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MCAT > High Yield Biology > Flashcards

High Yield Biology Flashcards

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1
Q

What are viruses made up of?

A

Genetic Material
Protein Coat
Sometimes, an envelope containing lipids

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2
Q

Protein coat of a virus is called

A

Capsid

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3
Q

Are enveloped viruses easier or harder to kill than non-enveloped and why?

A

Easier because the envelope is sensitive to heat, detergent, and desiccation

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4
Q

Why are viruses considered obligate intracellular parasites?

A

Because they cannot reproduce on their own

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5
Q

What are virions?

A

Viral progeny that are released to infect additional cells

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6
Q

Bacteriophages are?

A

Viruses that specifically target bacteria

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7
Q

What additional structures does a bacteriophage have?

A

Tail sheath - syringe to inject genetic material

Tail fiber - recognize and connect to host cell

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8
Q

Positive sense viral information?

A

Single stranded RNA virus who’s genome can be directly translated to functional proteins

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9
Q

Negative sense viral information?

A

Single stranded RNA virus who’s genome must be synthesized by RNA replicase into a complementary strand which can then be translated into a functional protein

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10
Q

What additional thing must a negative sense RNA virus contain?

A

RNA replicase

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11
Q

Retrovirus life cycle

A

Single stranded RNA virus that contains reverse transcriptase which synthesizes DNA from the RNA strand and the DNA is then integrated into host cell’s immune system

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12
Q

What additional thing must a retrovirus contain?

A

Reverse transcriptase

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13
Q

Productive virus life cycle

A

Keeps the host cell alive and virus leaves through extrusion - virus can keep using cell machinery

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14
Q

Lytic cycle

A

Bacteriophage reproduces and fills cell with virions and then the cell lyses and other bacteria are infected

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15
Q

Virulent Viruses

A

In lytic cycle

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16
Q

Lysogenic cycle

A

Virus integrates into the host genome and is replicated as the bacteria reproduces

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17
Q

Provirus

A

In lysogenic cycle

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18
Q

Prophage

A

In lysogenic cycle

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19
Q

What are prions?

A

Infectious proteins

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20
Q

Are prions living things?

A

No

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21
Q

How do prions cause disease?

A

Trigger the misfolding of other proteins - for example, conversion of alpha-helix to beta-sheet

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22
Q

What are viroids?

A

Small pathogens of a short circular single-stranded RNA that infect mostly plants

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23
Q

How do viroids cause disease?

A

Bind to a large number of RNA sequences to silence genome - results in metabolic and structural damage

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24
Q

How many cells are prokaryotic organisms?

A

Single-celled

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25
Q

Is the nucleus bound by a single or double membrane?

A

Double

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26
Q

What happens in the nucleolus?

A

Ribosomal RNA (rRNA) is synthesized

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27
Q

What are histones?

A

Organizing proteins around which linear DNA is wound

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28
Q

How many membranes does the mitochondria have?

A

Two - outer is a barrier between the cytosol and inner environment, inner contains the electron transport chain

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29
Q

What are the folds of the inner mitochondrial membrane called?

A

Cristae

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30
Q

Intermembrane space (mitochondria)

A

Space between the inner and outer membranes

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31
Q

Space inside the inner mitochondrial membrane?

A

Mitochondrial matrix

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32
Q

Which direction are protons pumped during the electron transport chain and what does this create?

A

From the matrix to the intermembrane space to generate the proton-motive force - protons then flow through ATP synthase to generate ATP

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33
Q

What makes the mitochondria semi-autonomous?

A

Contain some of their own genes which they replicate independently of the nucleus via binary fission

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34
Q

Where did mitochondria originate from?

A

Engulfing an aerobic prokaryote by an anaerobic prokaryote

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35
Q

Lysosomes are responsible for?

A

Breaking down substrates with hydrolytic enzymes

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36
Q

What organelle do endosomes often function in conjunction with?

A

Lysosomes

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37
Q

What do endosomes do?

A

Transport, package, and sort cell material travelling to and from the cell membrane

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38
Q

How does autolysis occur?

A

Release of lysosomal enzymes to cause apoptosis

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39
Q

Does the endoplasmic reticulum have one or two membranes?

A

Two

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40
Q

Where are proteins translated that are directed towards the cell itself?

A

Rough ER

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41
Q

Where are proteins translated that are directed outside the cell?

A

Cytoplasm

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42
Q

What are the roles of the smooth ER?

A

Lipid synthesis
Detoxification of drugs and poisons
Transport proteins from RER to golgi

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43
Q

Which organelle modifies and sorts its products?

A

Golgi

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44
Q

What organelles contain hydrogen peroxide?

A

Peroxisomes

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45
Q

What is the function of peroxisomes?

A

Breakdown of long-chain fatty acids through Beta oxidation

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46
Q

What makes up microfilaments?

A

Actin

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47
Q

What does actin interact with to create movement force?

A

Myosin

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48
Q

What cytoskeletal structure plays a role in cytokinesis?

A

Microfilaments

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49
Q

What makes up microtubules?

A

Tubulin

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50
Q

Is actin or tubulin hollow?

A

Tubulin

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51
Q

Which motor proteins do microtubules interact with?

A

Kinesin and Dynein

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52
Q

What cytoskeletal structure make up cilia and flagella?

A

Microtubules

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53
Q

What general structure do cilia and flagella have?

A

9+2

9 microtubule doublets surrounding 2 central microtubules

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54
Q

What are centrioles?

A

Microtubule organizing centers

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55
Q

Where are centrioles found?

A

Centrosome

56
Q

What general structure do centrioles have?

A

Nine triplets of microtubules with a hollow center

57
Q

Which cytoskeleton components increase rigidity of the cell and anchor organelles?

A

Intermediate filaments

58
Q

What cell type makes up the majority of functional cells in an organ?

A

Epithelial tissue

59
Q

Basement membrane

A

Layer of connective tissue beneath epithelial cells

60
Q

What does it mean that epithelial cells are polarized?

A

One side faces the lumen (inside of organ or tube) and the other faces blood vessels and structural cells

61
Q

Simple epithelia

A

One layer of cells

62
Q

Stratified epithelia

A

Multiple layers of cells

63
Q

Psuedostratified epithelia

A

Appear to have multiple layers due to differences in height but actually only have one

64
Q

Squamous epithelial cells are shaped like?

A

Flat and scalelike

65
Q

What does connective tissue mostly make up?

A

Support structure

66
Q

Stroma is?

A

Support structure

67
Q

Spherical bacteria

A

Cocci

68
Q

Rod-shaped bacteria

A

Bacilli

69
Q

Spiral-shaped bacteria

A

Spirilli

70
Q

Metabolic process of obligate aerobes?

A

Require oxygen

71
Q

Metabolic process of obligate anaerobes?

A

Cannot survive in environments with oxygen

72
Q

Metabolic process of facultative anaerobes?

A

Can survive in environments with and without oxygen

73
Q

Metabolic process of aurotolerant anaerobes?

A

Cannot use oxygen for metabolism but can survive in the presence of oxygen

74
Q

Envelope of a bacteria?

A

Cell wall and cell membrane

75
Q

What color do gram-positive cells turn?

A

Purple

76
Q

What color do gram-negative cells turn?

A

Pink/red

77
Q

Do gram positive or negative cells have a thicker cell wall?

A

Positive

78
Q

Chemotaxis

A

Moving in response to chemical stimuli

79
Q

Are prokaryotic or eukaryotic ribosomes bigger?

A

Eukaryotic

80
Q

By what process do single-celled eukaryotic cells multiply?

A

Binary fission

81
Q

Bacterial transformation

A

Genetic material from surroundings is picked up and incorporated into the genome

82
Q

Bacterial conjugation

A

Transfer of genetic material from one bacterium to another via conjugation bridge

83
Q

Bacterial transduction

A

Transfer of genetic material via a bacteriophage

84
Q

Transposons

A

Genetic elements that can insert and remove themselves from the genome

85
Q

Is mitochondrial DNA single or double stranded?

A

Double

86
Q

Glucogenesis?

A

Creation of glucose from glycerol and amino acids (from protein breakdown)

87
Q

What is ketone body synthesis?

A

Use of fatty acids as a source of fuel

88
Q

What is a test cross?

A

Use a homozygous recessive to determine is a dominant phenotype is homo or heterozygous for trait

89
Q

Which nucleic acids are pyrimidines?

A

C and T

90
Q

Which nucleic acids are purines?

A

G and A

91
Q

Are pyrimidines one or two ringed?

A

One

92
Q

Are purines one or two ringed?

A

Two

93
Q

What type of hormone is insulin?

A

Peptide

94
Q

Do eukaryotic fatty acids have an even or odd number of C?

A

Even

95
Q

Do eukaryotic fatty acids have cis or trans double bonds?

A

Cis

96
Q

When does an oocyte complete meiosis?

A

After fertilization

97
Q

Is a g-protein coupled receptor on the surface or intracellular?

A

Surface

98
Q

Do erythrocytes have mitochondria?

A

No

99
Q

Equation for DeltaG with Keq

A

DeltaG=-RTlnKeq

100
Q

What enzyme changes structure to be activated?

A

Zymogen

101
Q

Which end of DNA does synthesis start at?

A

3’

102
Q

What (R) / (S) configuration do amino acids have and what is the exception?

A 
(S) 
Cysteine is (R) because S group is higher priority
103
Q

What enantiomer are all amino acids in eukaryotes?

A

L-amino acids

104
Q

Can d amino acids exist?

A

Yes just in prokaryotes

105
Q

Which amino acid is not chiral?

A

Glycine

106
Q

What does the titration curve of an uncharged amino acid look like?

A

Starting at very low pH, amino acid is +1 (fully protonated)
First straight portion around pH of 2 for pKa of carboxylic acid
Vertical at pI ~6 when amino acid is +0 (c-end is deprotonated)
Another straight portion around pH of 9 for pKa of amino group
At very high pH, amino acid is -1 (fully deprotonated)

107
Q

What is the difference in titration curves for a charged amino acid compared to a neutral one?

A

An extra “step” for the third deprotonation of side group

108
Q

What is the pI of an amino acid with a basic side chain?

A

Higher

109
Q

What is the pI of an amino acid with an acidic side chain?

A

Lower

110
Q

What is the vertical portion of a titration curve of an amino acid?

A

pI

111
Q

What is the horizontal portion of a titration curve of an amino acid?

A

pKa

112
Q

How many amino acid residues does an oligopeptide have?

A

<20

113
Q

Primary protein structure

A

Linear sequence of amino acids

114
Q

Bonds of primary protein structure

A

Peptide bonds

115
Q

Secondary protein structure

A

Local structure of neighboring amino acids - alpha helix and beta sheets

116
Q

Bonds of secondary protein structure

A

Hydrogen bonds

117
Q

Alpha helix

A

Intramolecular hydrogen bonds between amino group of one amino acid and carbonyl 4 residues down the chain

118
Q

What secondary structure makes up keratin?

A

Alpha helix

119
Q

Beta Sheets

A

Intramolecular hydrogen bonds between amino group of one amino acid and adjacent carbonyl - can be parallel or antiparallel

120
Q

What secondary structure makes up fibroin?

A

Beta sheets

121
Q

What amino acid can disrupt secondary protein structure?

A

Proline

122
Q

Tertiary protein structure

A

Three-dimensional shape of a single polypeptide chain stabilized by hydrogen bonds, hydrophobic interactions, salt bridges (acid-base interactions), and disulfide bonds

123
Q

Does formation of a solvation layer increase or decrease entropy?

A

Decrease (unfavorable bc molecules are more organized, non-spontaneous)

124
Q

What is a disulfide bond?

A

Two cysteine molecules are oxidized and form a covalent bond in csytine

125
Q

Quaternary protein structure

A

Interaction between peptides in proteins that contain multiple subunits

126
Q

What is a conjugated protein?

A

Protein with a molecule covalently attached

127
Q

What is the covalently attached molecule on a conjugated protein called?

A

Prosthetic group

128
Q

What type of protein is collagen?

A

Structural

129
Q

What type of protein is elastin?

A

Structural

130
Q

What type of protein is keratin?

A

Structural

131
Q

What type of protein are cadherins?

A

Cell adhesion molecules, glycoproteins

132
Q

What type of protein are selectins?

A

Allow cells to adhere to carbohydrates on cell surfaces - immune cells

133
Q

Native PAGE gel electrophoresis

A

Maintains protein shape but is difficult to interpret due to different mass-to-charge ratios

134
Q

SDS PAGE gel electrophoresis

A

Denatures proteins and masks the charge allowing for accurate size comparison but intact protein cannot be obtained

135
Q

Isoelectric focusing

A

Electrophoresis in which protein migrates until a point where pH=pI

136
Q

Bradford protein assay

A

Starts green/brown in its protonated form and turns blue in the presence of protein by protonating the protein

MCAT (31 decks)

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