GST OCT 2014 Flashcards
The “WARNING” regarding 30mm stoppage states: If ___ or more rounds have been fired in the preceding __________, and a stoppage occurs, personnel must remain clear of the aircraft for __________. Aircraft crewmembers should remain in the aircraft and continue positive gun control.
The “WARNING” regarding 30mm stoppage states: If 300 or more rounds have been fired in the preceding 10 minutes, and a stoppage occurs, personnel must remain clear of the aircraft for 30 minutes. Aircraft crewmembers should remain in the aircraft and continue positive gun control.
(-10, pg. 4-108)
What is the “WARNING” associated with the 30mm?
Failure to adhere to the published gun duty cycle may result in catastrophic failure, loss of aircraft, injury or death. (-10, pg. 4-107)
The Gun Duty Cycle is as follows: _, __ round bursts w/ _________ between bursts followed by a _________ cooling period. For burst limiter settings of other than __, no more than ___ rounds within __________ before allowing gun to cool for __________, after which the cycle can be repeated.
The Gun Duty Cycle is as follows: 6, 50 round bursts w/ 5 seconds between bursts followed by a 10 minute cooling period. For burst limiter settings of other than 50, no more than 300 rounds within 60 seconds before allowing gun to cool for 10 minutes, after which the cycle can be repeated.
(-10, pg. 4-107)
T/F Under NVS, the AWS will continue to follow IHADSS LOS when operating in NVS FIXED mode.
True (-10, pg. 4-105)
In the event of a GUN EL MISTRACK fault, the gun will be ___________________.
In the event of a GUN EL MISTRACK fault, the gun will be Stowed in Elevation. (-10, pg. 4-106)
In the event of ______________ with gun selected and the HMD as the selected sight, the gun will remain at its last commanded position. Gun firing is _________. When the gun is de-actioned, it will _____________________________.
In the event of IHADSS failure with gun selected and the HMD as the selected sight, the gun will remain at its last commanded position. Gun firing is inhibited. When the gun is de-actioned, it will return to the stowed position. (-10, pg. 4-19)
In the event of a power loss the gun is spring driven to ___________ in elevation to prevent _____ during landing.
In the event of a power loss the gun is spring driven to +11 degrees in elevation to prevent dig-in during landing. (-10 pg. 4-105)
If the gun system is actioned and the WP has detected a NO GO status, a “_________” weapon status field message will be displayed and the _______________________ anytime _____________________.
If the gun system is actioned and the WP has detected a NO GO status, a “gun fail” weapon status field message will be displayed and the LOS reticle will flash anytime the trigger is pulled.
(-10, pg. 4-22, 26; ATM, pg. 4-159)
Fixed Gun may be utilized during degraded systems operations, such as when the M-TADS or FCR are not available or unsuitable. Helmet sights are inherently inaccurate at long range due to aircraft vibration and therefore have a low probability of hit against targets beyond 1,000 meters. When engaging point targets ___________________ (without the use of the M-TADS or FCR) the crew should select Fixed Gun.
Fixed Gun may be utilized during degraded systems operations, such as when the M-TADS or FCR are not available or unsuitable. Helmet sights are inherently inaccurate at long range due to aircraft vibration and therefore have a low probability of hit against targets beyond 1,000 meters. When engaging point targets beyond 1,000 meters (without the use of the M-TADS or FCR) the crew should select Fixed Gun. (ATM, pg. 4-160)
When the AWS is in the Fixed Gun position, the WP will command the turret to ____ degrees in elevation and _________ forward in azimuth to the aircraft centerline.
When the AWS is in the Fixed Gun position, the WP will command the turret to +.87 degrees in elevation and 0 degrees forward in azimuth to the aircraft centerline. (ATM, pg. 4-161)
The AWS will / will not (circle one) continue to follow IHADSS LOS when operating in the NVS FIXED mode.
The AWS will / will not (circle one) continue to follow IHADSS LOS when operating in the NVS FIXED mode. (-10, pg. 4-105)
There is no indication in the cockpit when the SQUAT ORIDE switch is in the AIR position. What is the hazard associated with the SQUAT ORIDE switch being in the AIR position with the aircraft on the ground?
The possibility exists that the AWS could inadvertently be driven into the ground.
(-10, pg. 4-106)
The maximum effective range of the 30mm is ___________________.
The maximum effective range of the 30mm is 1500 to 1700 meters. (ATM, pg. 4-160; .45, B-15)
What is the time of flight for a 3Km 30mm shot?
12.2 sec (ATM, pg. 4-12; .45, B-17)
What is the approximate muzzle velocity of the 30mm round?
2640 fps / 805 mps (.45, pg. A-8)
The rate of fire for the 30 mm is ________.
The rate of fire for the 30 mm is 625 +/- 25. (-10, pg. 4-105; .45, pg. B-15)
Fragmentation effects can be expected from the M789 HEDP 30mm round within a _______ radius.
Fragmentation effects can be expected from the M789 HEDP 30mm round within a 4-meter radius. (.45, pg. B-19)
The AWS ammo handling system has a maximum capacity of ____ rounds.
The AWS ammo handling system has a maximum capacity of 1200 rounds. (-10, pg. 4-105)
The 100 gal Robertson IAFS (Robby Tank) includes a ___ round ammunition storage magazine with __ rounds in the flex chute, making the maximum capacity ___ rounds.
The 100 gal Robertson IAFS (Robby Tank) includes a 242 round ammunition storage magazine with 58 rounds in the flex chute, making the maximum capacity 300 rounds. (-10, pg. 4-105)
The WP will provide fire control solution for the 30mm up to a range of ___________.
The WP will provide fire control solution for the 30mm up to a range of 4200 meters.
(-10, pg. 4-105; ATM, pg. 4-160)
With the exception of Rolled Homogeneous Armor (________________), penetration performance for single 30-mm projectiles is _____________. In order to breach typical MOUT targets structures, ____________________________ is required.
With the exception of Rolled Homogeneous Armor (2 inches of RHA), penetration performance for single 30-mm projectiles is not available. In order to breach typical MOUT targets structures, continued/concentrated fire is required. (.45, pg. B-17)
The gun turret is capable of azimuth movement of __________ left or right of the helicopter centerline, ___________ elevation, (+9 degrees elevation within 10 degrees of aircraft centerline), and ___________ depression.
The gun turret is capable of azimuth movement of 86 degrees left or right of the helicopter centerline, +11 degrees elevation, (+9 degrees elevation within 10 degrees of aircraft centerline), and -60 degrees depression. (-10, pg. 4-105)
Gun Dynamic Harmonization procedures should be accomplished maintaining a heading to target of __________ and __________________ from the target.
Gun Dynamic Harmonization procedures should be accomplished maintaining a heading to target of ±5 degrees and 500 to 1500 meters from the target. (-10, pg 4-108; ATM, pg. 4-160)
When conducting AWS Harmonization, the CPG positions the dashed reticule (GUN DH reticule) over the Mean Point of Impact (MPI) of the rounds then presses the ___________________________.
When conducting AWS Harmonization, the CPG positions the dashed reticule (GUN DH reticule) over the Mean Point of Impact (MPI) of the rounds then presses the Store/UPDT Switch (ORT LHG).
(10, pg. 4-109)
The 30mm is limited to ___________ in azimuth when the rockets are actioned simultaneously.
The 30mm is limited to ±60 degrees in azimuth when the rockets are actioned simultaneously. (AWS SHO, pg. D-24)
The 30mm is limited to __________ in azimuth on the side of the next missile to be fired if it is on the inboard pylon.
The 30mm is limited to 52 degrees in azimuth on the side of the next missile to be fired if it is on the inboard pylon. (AWS SHO, pg. D-24)
To ensure effective fragment performance when engaging troops in the open, the CPG will select a DMPI _________________ personnel targets.
To ensure effective fragment performance when engaging troops in the open, the CPG will select a DMPI slightly short of personnel targets. (ATM)
What is the rotary wing risk estimate distance for a 1500 meter 30mm engagement?
115 meters (JFIRE, pg. 151)
What are the visual markings of the M789 30mm HEDP round?
Black projectile with yellow band and yellow markings on projectile and case. (.45, pg. B-16)
What are the visual markings of the M788 30mm TP round?
Blue projectile with aluminum nosepiece and white markings on projectile and case. (.45, pg. B-16)
Due to the possibility of surging the engines, do not fire rockets from ________ stations. Fire no more than _____ with two ________ launchers every _________, or fire with only ____________ launcher installed without restrictions (ripples permitted).
Due to the possibility of surging the engines, do not fire rockets from in-board stations. Fire no more than pairs with two outboard launchers every 3 seconds, or fire with only one outboard launcher installed without restrictions (ripples permitted). (-10, pg. 4-111)
Re-inventory and attempting to fire ___, ___, and ___ rocket types, after a NO-FIRE event is not recommended due to significant impact on accuracy. The rockets should not be used for at least _______ to allow the M439 (Base Mounted Resistance Capacitance) fuse to reset.
Re-inventory and attempting to fire 6MP, 6FL, and 6SK rocket types, after a NO-FIRE event is not recommended due to significant impact on accuracy. The rockets should not be used for at least 10 days to allow the M439 (Base Mounted Resistance Capacitance) fuse to reset. (10, pg. 4-111)
How can the crew check/verify the rocket type within each of the rocket zones and the amount of gun ammo loaded on preflight? Can these setting be change on the MPD load page?
The Load Maintenance Panel (LMP) provides this capability. The crew can override these settings on the Weapons Utility Load page. (-10, pg. 4-112)
T/F If the pilot actions rockets, his steering cursor will be visible to both pilots.
False (-10, pg 4-29)
The Aerial Rocket Subsystem can be employed independently by either crewmember or in the cooperative mode when the active sight is _______________.
The Aerial Rocket Subsystem can be employed independently by either crewmember or in the cooperative mode when the active sight is HMD, TADS, or FCR. (-10, pg.4-111)
The pylons articulate independently and are controlled by the weapons processor through a range of _________________.
The pylons articulate independently and are controlled by the weapons processor through a range of +4 to -15 degrees. (-10, pg. 4-110)
Live-fire testing shows that most rockets achieve best effectiveness between ___________________.
Live-fire testing shows that most rockets achieve best effectiveness between 3000 to 5000 meters. (ATM)
Firing MK66 in a hover or low speed at a height of less than ________, and for all other flight conditions of ________, is not authorized.
Firing MK66 in a hover or low speed at a height of less than 7 ft AGL, and for all other flight conditions of 5 ft AGL, is not authorized. (-10, pg. 4-111)
With the current configuration of our flight line aircraft (pods on pylons 1 and 4), what rocket zones and quantities are available? ____, ___, and ___.
With the current configuration of our flight line aircraft (pods on pylons 1 and 4), what rocket zones and quantities are available? A- 24, B- 8, and E- 6. (-10, pg. 4-110)
Hover fire rocket engagements with 6PD (10 pounders) can be achieved at a range of approximately ___________ without changing ____________________. At ranges beyond ___________, ________________________________ may have to be made to meet firing constraints.
Hover fire rocket engagements with 6PD (10 pounders) can be achieved at a range of approximately 4500 meters without changing aircraft pitch angle. At ranges beyond 4500 meters, pitch attitude changes (nose-up) may have to be made to meet firing constraints. (ATM, pg. 4-153)
The Mk66 motor fuse/warhead combination currently supported by our software includes ___, ___, ___, ___, ___, and ___.
The Mk66 motor fuse/warhead combination currently supported by our software includes 6PD, 6MP, 6FL, 6IL, 6RC, and 6SK. (-10, pg. 4-111; .45, pg. C-1, 23)
The position of the rocket pylons when in the FXD mode is based on the following inputs and assumptions: _______________, ___________________________, ________ forward airspeed at trigger pull, ____________________ and _______________________________.
The position of the rocket pylons when in the FXD mode is based on the following inputs and assumptions: -20º dive angle, 1063m slant range to target, 110 KTAS forward airspeed at trigger pull, 6PD rockets selected and inputs from the Air Data System. (ATM, pg 4-154)
The bursting radius of the M151 HE “10 Pounder” is _________; however, high-velocity fragments can produce a lethality radius of more than _________.
The bursting radius of the M151 HE “10 Pounder” is 10 meters; however, high-velocity fragments can produce a lethality radius of more than 50 meters. (ATM, pg. 5-10)
What is employing “sunshine” IAW .45 and JFIRE?
Employing Illume Rockets (.45, pg. 14-4; JFIRE)
Each M73 submunition has a shaped charge that can penetrate more than ________ of armor.
Each M73 submunition has a shaped charge that can penetrate more than 4 inches of armor.
(.45, pg. C-16)
The M261 MPSM has 9 submunitions and effective employment ranges from _________________________.
The M261 MPSM has 9 submunitions and effective employment ranges from 500 meters to 7000 meters. (ARS SHO)
Firing of 2.75-inch rockets with M261 MPSM warheads is limited to ranges greater than ___________, and forward airspeeds of less than ________.
Firing of 2.75-inch rockets with M261 MPSM warheads is limited to ranges greater than 1000 meters, and forward airspeeds of less than 90 knots. (-10, pg. 4-111; .45, pg. C-16)
What is a RAD and what does it do for an MPSM rocket?
Ram Air Decelerator. Stops the forward velocity, stabilizes the descent and arms the submunition. (.45, pg. C-16)
What altitude should the gunner ensure that Illum (M257/M278) rockets deploy above the ground?
1500’ AGL (.45, pg. C-13)
What standoff range should Illum (M257/M278) rockets be launched from?
3500 meters (.45, pg. C-13)
Spent Illum rocket motors will impact the ground between __________________ beyond the target and along the trajectory of the rocket.
Spent Illum rocket motors will impact the ground between 700 to 1200 meters beyond the target and along the trajectory of the rocket. (.45, pg. 14-38)
The minimum range to target when firing Flechette rockets is __________. The effective range with MK66 rocket motors is ____________.
The minimum range to target when firing Flechette rockets is 800 meters. The effective range with MK66 rocket motors is 1 km to 3 km. (-10, pg 4-111)
___________ is ejected during Flechette employment to serve as a daytime center-pattern indicator. Future versions will contain a titanium pyrotechnic charge as a nighttime center-pattern indicator.
Red pigment is ejected during Flechette employment to serve as a daytime center-pattern indicator. Future versions will contain a titanium pyrotechnic charge as a nighttime center-pattern indicator. (.45, pg. C-9)
The flechette rocket detonates about ____ before the predetermined range.
The flechette rocket detonates about 150m before the predetermined range. (.45, pg C-8)
Caution should be taken to address the impact point for the expended Flechette rocket motor and warhead case. The impact zone extends out between ____________ meters from deployment point.
Caution should be taken to address the impact point for the expended Flechette rocket motor and warhead case. The impact zone extends out between 700 and 1200 meters from deployment point. (.45, pg. C-9)
At ___________, Flechettes have an impact velocity of approximately 350 meters per second. This is sufficient velocity to penetrate up to ___________________.
At 1000 meters, Flechettes have an impact velocity of approximately 350 meters per second. This is sufficient velocity to penetrate up to 8mm of milled steel. (.45, pg. C-9)
Do not fire rockets with the M433 RC fuse in situations where they might fly closer than ___ from other airborne helicopters.
Do not fire rockets with the M433 RC fuse in situations where they might fly closer than 51m from other airborne helicopters. (-10, pg.4-111)
What are the four “T’s” of diving flight?
Target, Torque, Trim, and Target. (ATM, pg. 4-134)
During diving flight, if rockets are fired while out of Trim, what direction will the rockets tend to go?
An out-of-trim condition will deflect the rockets toward the trim ball. (ATM, pg. 4-34)
What is the rotary wing risk estimate distance for a 1500meter PD rocket engagement?
305 meters (JFIRE, pg. 151)
To prevent IAT break lock during missile launch, you should offset the aircraft centerline ______________ to the side the SAL missile being launched.
To prevent IAT break lock during missile launch, you should offset the aircraft centerline 3 to 5 degrees to the side the SAL missile being launched. (.45, pg. 14-55)
The SAL LOBL missile constraint box is ___________.
The SAL LOBL missile constraint box is ±20 degrees. (.45, pg. 14-58)
The SAL LOAL missile constraint box is ____________.
The SAL LOAL missile constraint box is ±7.5 degrees. (.45, pg. 14-59)
The LOAL LO/HI mode constraints box is driven by what?
The acquired WP, TGT, threat, hazard, or CM in the B5 position. (ATM, Task 1459)
Hellfire missile arming occurs after _____________acceleration _________________ after launch.
Hellfire missile arming occurs after exceeding 10g acceleration 150 to 300 meters after launch. (.45, pg. D-2)
Peak velocity of the Hellfire missile when launched at sea level is _____________________ or _________ or _______ or ________.
Peak velocity of the Hellfire missile when launched at sea level is 475 meters per second or 923 knots or 950 mph or Mach 1.4. (.45, pg. D-2)
How long is the allowable training mode missile elapsed ON time?
30 minutes (-10, pg. 4-126)
If the allowable elapsed ON time for a training mode missile is exceeded, what symbol will appear on the affected missile icon? What does this symbol mean?
OT — Overtemperature (-10, pg. 4-126)
In the NORM and MAN mode, regardless of actual inventory, how many missiles will the WP reserve for the priority channel?
3 (ATM, Task 1458)
The missile counter-counter measures (MSL CCM) button enables the counter-counter measure routine within the laser missile. This selection _______ the pulse repetition frequency (PRF number of pulses per second) tracking capability of the missile to the precise PRF of the selected laser code.
The missile counter-counter measures (MSL CCM) button enables the counter-counter measure routine within the laser missile. This selection narrows the pulse repetition frequency (PRF number of pulses per second) tracking capability of the missile to the precise PRF of the selected laser code. (SHWS, pg. D-65)
SAL II “K Model” LOBL minimum engagement ranges:
- 0 degree offset: 500 meters
- 20 degree offset: 700 meters
(.45, pg. 14-59)
SAL II “K Model” LOAL DIR minimum engagement range:
- 0 degree offset: 1,500 meters
- 7.5 degree offset: 1,700 meters
(.45, pg. 14-59)
SAL II “K Model” LOAL LO minimum engagement range:
- 0 degree offset: 2,000 meters
- 7.5 degree offset: 2,500 meters
(.45, pg. 14-59)
SAL II “K Model” LOAL HI minimum engagement range:
- 0 degree offset: 3,500 meters
- 7.5 degree offset: 3,500 meters
(.45, pg. 14-59)
What is the minimum range for a AGM-114K-2A missile? Why?
800 meters; because of fragmentation and possible pre-mature detonation. (AWR 2007D-A05)
During a remote designation, the designator should neither be within __________________ and ___________________ of the gun target line, nor more than __________ from the target centerline.
During a remote designation, the designator should neither be within 30 degrees lateral and 40 degrees vertical of the gun target line, nor more than 60 degrees from the target centerline. (ATM, Task 1458; .45, pg. 4-71)
Minimum SAL LOAL engagement ranges should be increased by __________ if the target is ______________ below the aircraft.
Minimum SAL LOAL engagement ranges should be increased by 500 meters if the target is 50 to 400 feet below the aircraft. (.45, pg. 14-59)
Minimum SAL LOAL engagement ranges should be increased by ___________ if the target is _____________________ below the aircraft.
Minimum SAL LOAL engagement ranges should be increased by 1000 meters if the target is 401 to 800 feet below the aircraft. (.45, pg. 14-59)
With _______ selected, a SAL Hellfire will clear a ________ mask __________ away.
With LOAL LO selected, a SAL Hellfire will clear a 260 foot mask 600 meters away. (.45, pg. 14-59)
With _______ selected, a SAL Hellfire will clear a _________ mask ___________ away.
With LOAL HI selected, a SAL Hellfire will clear a 1000 foot mask 1500 meters away. (.45, pg. D-45)
What is the minimum engagement range for a LOAL DIR for a K model missile with 7.5 degrees offset? Your altitude is 300 feet above the target.
2200 meters (1700 meters due to the offset plus 500 meters additional range due to altitude above the target). (ATM, pp. 4-137)
The maximum __________________________ for a SAL missile engagement is limited by the ability of the designator to ________________________________________, the ______________________ to be concentrated enough to prevent overspill or Underspill, and for _________________________________ to the seeker so the seeker can lock onto the reflected laser energy.
The maximum effective engagement range for a SAL missile engagement is limited by the ability of the designator to accurately maintain the laser spot on the target, the size of the laser spot to be concentrated enough to prevent overspill or underspill, and for sufficient reflected laser energy to the seeker so the seeker can lock onto the reflected laser energy. (.45, pg. 14-54)
The maximum range of the Hellfire missile is affected by missile trajectory, launch altitude, battery life, and laser designation capabilities; 7km. What can be done to extend the range?
Selecting a LOAL-L or LOAL-H trajectory (except for P+ and R model missiles) will extend the missile’s maximum range from 7 to 8 kilometers. (.45, pg. 14-56)
What can be done to extend the maximum SAL missile range?
Fire LOAL-LO or LOAL-HI to increase the missile trajectory. (.45, CH 14)
What is the maximum LOBL Cloud Clearance Ceiling for a K/M/N/R missile trajectory?
600 feet (.45, pg. 14-58)
What is the max airspeed you can fly when engaging with a AGM-114F-A?
90 knots (AWR 2008D-A72)
What is the weight of an AGM-114L Longbow HELLFIRE missile?
105.1 lbs (-10, pg. 6-14)
For RF missile engagements ______________, the maximum allowable offset angle is _________.
For RF missile engagements less than 1km, the maximum allowable offset angle is 5 degrees.
(-10, pg 4-28; .45, pg. D-20)
When the RF missile is tracking and the target range is ______________________________, the allowable constraints angle is __________.
When the RF missile is tracking and the target range is greater than or equal to 1km, the allowable constraints angle is 20 degrees. (.45, pg. D-20)
When an RF missile detects a moving target with a range between ___________, it will radiate and engage LOBL.
When an RF missile detects a moving target with a range between .5km to 8km, it will radiate and engage LOBL. (ATM, Task 1459)
The RF missile will attempt to launch LOBL on a stationary target between the ranges of ____________. If target is not detected it will revert to LOAL.
The RF missile will attempt to launch LOBL on a stationary target between the ranges of 1km to 2.5km. If target is not detected it will revert to LOAL. (ATM, Task 1459)
The RF missile can engage stationary targets LOAL between ____________.
The RF missile can engage stationary targets LOAL between 2.5km to 6km. (.45, pg. D-11)
The RF missile is capable of hitting stationary LOAL targets via the TADS handover and through RFHOs to a maximum range of ___________.
The RF missile is capable of hitting stationary LOAL targets via the TADS handover and through RFHOs to a maximum range of 8000 meters. (ATM, pg. 4-148)
If the sight selected is FCR, what type of missile page will be displayed when the missile system is actioned or the missile button is selected?
RF missile page even if no RF missiles are present. (-10 pg. 4-102)
What symbol is displayed on the RF missile icon to indicate that the missile is ready to receive the target?
R (-10, pg. 4-116)
When the RF missile-training mode is enabled, what symbol will be displayed on all tactical RF missile icons?
NA (-10, pg. 4-116)
What is “transfer alignment”?
The transfer of the aircraft inertial data to the missile inertial platform. (-10, pg. 4-118)
What are the three acquisition sources that may provide targeting information for an RF missile target handover?
TADS, FCR, and IDM (-10, pg. 4-118; ATM , pg. 4-146; .45, pg. 14-68)
Why would the RF missile LOBL INHIBIT option be used?
To allow for LOAL shots only, Inhibits RF missile from transmitting which eliminates the RF missile signature. (ATM, Task 1458)
The __________________________ is used to prevent secondary target information from being handed over from the FCR to the RF missile during a __________ target engagement.
The 2nd target inhibit button is used to prevent secondary target information from being handed over from the FCR to the RF missile during a stationary target engagement.
(-10, pg. 4-123; ATM, pg. 4-147)
An RF missile uses a curved trajectory to induce relative motion between a stationary target and its background by flying an off-axis path to the target. This is called _______________________.
An RF missile uses a curved trajectory to induce relative motion between a stationary target and its background by flying an off-axis path to the target. This is called Doppler Beam Sharpening.
(ATM, Task 1459; .45, pg. D-20)
At a 20 degree offset launch angle, an RF missile azimuth DBS flight profile will use a maximum curved trajectory cross range of __________ at ____.
At a 20 degree offset launch angle, an RF missile azimuth DBS flight profile will use a maximum curved trajectory cross range of 990 meters at 8 km. (.45, pg. D-21; SHWS, pg. B-91)
Stationary targets between ____________________ are engaged by RF LOAL using a Doppler beam sharpening (DBS) missile fly-out profile to create target movement. The crew may control which direction the missile conducts DBS by _______________________________________.
Stationary targets between 2,500 and 8,000 meters are engaged by RF LOAL using a Doppler beam sharpening (DBS) missile fly-out profile to create target movement. The crew may control which direction the missile conducts DBS by pointing the nose of the aircraft in the desired direction.
(ATM, pg. 4-148)
The AUTO button will enable automatic missile power management. In the AUTO mode, RF missiles will be powered up at _________ intervals. This ________ occur while missiles are WASed.
The AUTO button will enable automatic missile power management. In the AUTO mode, RF missiles will be powered up at 10 minute intervals. This does not occur while missiles are WASed. (SHWS, pg. D-86)
Where is the hazard area for a radiating RF missile located?
1 meter and a 45 degree cone off the missile nose (.45, pg D-12)
The Shot-At icon associated with SAL autonomous missile engagements is derived using _______________________________ regardless of which crewmember conducts the engagement.
The Shot-At icon associated with SAL autonomous missile engagements is derived using the CPG’s sight and range source regardless of which crewmember conducts the engagement. (-10, pg. 3-91)
How many Shot-At locations can be stored?
128 (-10, pg. 3-104)
When a SAL missile is displayed in WHITE and flashes between a bold and normal line, that missile is selected as _______________________________ in the firing sequence.
When a SAL missile is displayed in WHITE and flashes between a bold and normal line, that missile is selected as the next missile to be launched in the firing sequence. (-10, pg. 4-115)
Define the following missile status messages:
(10, pg. 4-116-117)
When the Hellfire missile system is actioned in the manual mode, the MSL ADV switch on the collective mission grip is ______. When the SAL missile mode is NORM or RIPL the switch is __________.
When the Hellfire missile system is actioned in the manual mode, the MSL ADV switch on the collective mission grip is active. When the SAL missile mode is NORM or RIPL the switch is not active.
What is the “rule of thumb” for computing Hellfire TOF?
RANGE x 4 (SHO, pg. D-55)
What is the “rule of thumb” for calculating maximum laser delay?
(TOF/2)-2 (SHO, pg. D-55)
The rotary wing risk estimate distance for AGM-114 K/M/N/F/L is __________.
The rotary wing risk estimate distance for AGM-114 K/M/N/F/L is 110 meters. (JFIRE, pg. 151)
Default range for the pilot is _____; default range for the CPG is ____.
Default range for the pilot is 1.5 km; default range for the CPG is 3.0 km. (-10, pg. 4-15)
The FCR has the ability to initiate the radar scan, detect, and classify more than ___ targets, prioritize the __ most dangerous targets, transmit information to other aircraft, and initiate a precision attack within 30 seconds. Processors determine location, speed, and direction of travel of a maximum of ___ targets.
The FCR has the ability to initiate the radar scan, detect, and classify more than 128 targets, prioritize the 16 most dangerous targets, transmit information to other aircraft, and initiate a precision attack within 30 seconds. Processors determine location, speed, and direction of travel of a maximum of 256 targets. (.45, pg. G-3)
A _____________________ in the Range and Range Source Status section of your HAD indicates a ____________________________.
A _flashing asterisk (*)_ in the Range and Range Source Status section of your HAD indicates a multiple target condition is detected. (-10, pg 4-33)
When TADS is the selected sight, the weapons processor employs a seven-state Kalman filter-based Target State Estimator to determine actual target velocities. The target state estimator differentiates aircraft induced motion rates from motion target rates. Once a target rate is derived, the lead predictor computes the appropriate lead angle based on computed TOF of the projectile. The TSE computes the target rates for the ____________________ and compensates for ________________ when engaging with _______________ when TADS is the LOS.
When TADS is the selected sight, the weapons processor employs a seven-state Kalman filter-based Target State Estimator to determine actual target velocities. The target state estimator differentiates aircraft induced motion rates from motion target rates. Once a target rate is derived, the lead predictor computes the appropriate lead angle based on computed TOF of the projectile. The TSE computes the target rates for the RF missile hand over and compensates for trajectory shift when engaging with gun and rockets when TADS is the LOS. (.45, pg. 14-68)
T/F Scan to scan correlation is available in the Air Targeting Mode.
False (ATM, pg. 4-82)
T/F In the air surveillance mode, NTS target symbols are displayed.
False (-10, pg. 4-53; .45, pg. 4-83)
Up to __ RFI symbols can be displayed on the ASE page.
Up to 10 RFI symbols can be displayed on the ASE page. (-10, pg 4-54)
RFI emitters will stay full intensity until __________ after they cease transmission.
RFI emitters will stay full intensity until 30 seconds after they cease transmission. (-10, pg 4-65)
The RFI number one emitter will be displayed with a _________________ around the threat Symbol and target type.
The RFI number one emitter will be displayed with a Home Plate Symbol around the threat Symbol and target type. (-10, pg. 4-67)
After RFI emitters have ceased radiating for __________, the symbols will change to _________________. After __________ of no transmission receipt, the symbols will _____.
After RFI emitters have ceased radiating for 30 seconds, the symbols will change to partial intensity. After 90 seconds of no transmission receipt, the symbols will blank. (-10, pg. 4-67)
Friendly RFI emitters are displayed in ____ and enemy/gray emitters are displayed in ______.
Friendly RFI emitters are displayed in CYAN and enemy/gray emitters are displayed in YELLOW.
(-10, pg. 4-67)
Selection of other than #1 emitter with the CAQ enabled places __________________________ (_______________________) over that emitter.
Selection of other than #1 emitter with the CAQ enabled places an inverse video homeplate (selected emitter symbol) over that emitter. (-10, pg. 4-67)
Powering the RLWR ON enables up to _____ detected RLWR threats to be displayed on the ______ of the ASE footprint.
Powering the RLWR ON enables up to seven detected RLWR threats to be displayed on the inside of the ASE footprint. (-10, pg. 4-130)
Powering the RFI ON enables up to ___ detected RFI threats to be displayed on the _______ of the ASE footprint.
Powering the RFI ON enables up to ten detected RFI threats to be displayed on the outside of the ASE footprint. (-10, pg. 4-52)
The RFI system detects and processes _____, _____________, and __________________________________.
The RFI system detects and processes pulse, pulse doppler, and continuous wave (CW) radar signals. (-10, pg. 4-130)
What does the message “RFI DATA?” mean?
RFI has been commanded to do a CUED search and no threat data is available. (-10-2, pg. 4-33)
A cued search may be performed on a Fine Detect or Course Detect as long as the target is within ___________ of the ______________.
A cued search may be performed on a Fine Detect or Course Detect as long as the target is within ±90 degrees of the FCR centerline. (-10, pg. 4-68)
The ___________ switch is used to rapidly orient the FCR antenna to the highest priority RFI emitter.
The CUED Search switch is used to rapidly orient the FCR antenna to the highest priority RFI emitter. (-10, pg. 4-68)
While performing a cued search, the RFI #1 emitter is not merged. What will happen if the cued search button is pressed a second time?
The FCR antenna will orient to the next priority emitter. (-10, pg. 4-66)
Internal errors can develop in-flight due to temperature changes within the internal components of the TADS (thermal drift). When confidence in the boresight is suspect, an internal boresight should be accomplished. This procedure is recommended _______________________________.
Internal errors can develop in-flight due to temperature changes within the internal components of the TADS (thermal drift). When confidence in the boresight is suspect, an internal boresight should be accomplished. This procedure is recommended two times every 2.5-hour flight. (-10, pg. 4-96)
When do FCR target symbols become stale?
Moving: 5 seconds. Stationary: 30 seconds.
(-10, pg. 4-55)
If the FCR is operating in GTM and you do a cued search, but the detected emitter is airborne what will the FCR do?
Change to ATM (-10, pg 4-68)
How do you make the alternate NTS the NTS on the FCR page?
By either pressing the NTS button or selecting the alternate NTS with the cursor or shooting the NTS, or conducting another FCR scan. (-10, pg 4-55)
What is the maximum range of the FCR in the Terrain Profile Mode?
2500 meters (-10, pg. 4-62)
The GTM/RMAP scan sectors are: WFOV __________, MFOV __________, NFOV __________ and ZFOV __________.
The GTM/RMAP scan sectors are: WFOV 90 degrees, MFOV 45 degrees, NFOV 30 degrees and ZFOV 15 degrees. (-10, pg. 4-58)
The FCR is unable to process __________________ at ranges greater than ___________.
The FCR is unable to process stationary targets at ranges greater than 6000 meters.
(ATM, pg. 4-147)
Be able to label the FCR icons:
(-10, pg. 4-55)
Be able to label the FCR icons:
(-10, pg. 4-55)
In zoom mode the FCR will conduct _ scans per scanburst.
In zoom mode the FCR will conduct 4 scans per scanburst. (-10, pg 4-47)
The arcs and tics on the FCR GTM and RMAP depict ___ each?
The arcs and tics on the FCR GTM and RMAP depict 2km each? (-10, pg 4-58)
The ___ button is used to select the next target in the priority list as the NTS target.
The NTS button is used to select the next target in the priority list as the NTS target. (-10, pg 4-51)
Which FCR Priority Scheme emphasizes stationary ground targets?
B (-10, pg. 4-65)
Which Priority Scheme would you use if you expected to engage moving ground targets?
C (-10, pg. 4-65)
A single scan burst in GTM _________ will give _______.
A single scan burst in GTM narrow FOV will give 3 scans. (-10, pg. 4-49)
________________________ improves STI detection and classification and Moving Target Indicator (MTI) classification.
Scan-To-Scan-Correlation improves STI detection and classification and Moving Target Indicator (MTI) classification. (-10, pg. 4-50)
When FCR is the selected sight and the weapon system is actioned, the __________ is ______ and the NTS symbol will become _____.
When FCR is the selected sight and the weapon system is actioned, the NTS target is frozen and the NTS symbol will become solid. (-10, pg. 4-55)
Once the NTS target is frozen, and a target is detected that out-prioritizes the NTS target, the ___________ will be automatically displayed on that target symbol and ___________________.
Once the NTS target is frozen, and a target is detected that out-prioritizes the NTS target, the ANTS symbol will be automatically displayed on that target symbol and flash for 3 seconds. (-10, pg. 4-55)
What is the caution associated with use of the FCR TEMP ORIDE button?
Continued operation with the FCR TEMP ORIDE button selected may cause permanent damage to FCR components. (-10, pg. 4-65)
What will happen if you press the display ZOOM switch on the RH ORT Grip?
The display zoom area 6:1 will be centered on the NTS target. (-10, pg. 4-12)
Regarding TPM obstacle symbols, a maximum of __________ may be displayed on the FCR page TPM format or IHADSS C-Scope formats at any one time.
Regarding TPM obstacle symbols, a maximum of 64 symbols may be displayed on the FCR page TPM format or IHADSS C-Scope formats at any one time. (-10, pg. 4-64)
A shot-at symbol will be displayed _______ target symbols ______/______ a scan burst and prior to a hellfire missile launch. The symbol is displayed _________ a target symbol following a HF missile launch at that target.
A shot-at symbol will be displayed beneath target symbols during/after a scan burst and prior to a hellfire missile launch. The symbol is displayed on top of a target symbol following a HF missile launch at that target. (-10, pg. 4-50)
Terrain Profile Mode wide format displays a ______________________ when _____________________________________ and _______________________________. Narrow format displays a _____________________ when __________________________________ and _______________________________.
Terrain Profile Mode wide format displays a 180-degree scan sector when ground speed decreases below 45 knots and until increasing above 55 knots. Narrow format displays a 90-degree scan sector when ground speed increases above 55 knots and until decreasing below 45 knots. (-10, pg. 4-63)
When the CAQ button is used to select an FCR target symbol, the coordinate data is stored in ___.
When the CAQ button is used to select an FCR target symbol, the coordinate data is stored in T50. (-10, pg. 3-100)
The Radar Jammer icon is displayed as a _______________________ in the center of the _______ Icon whenever the radar jammer is transmitting.
The Radar Jammer icon is displayed as a flashing lightning bolt in the center of the Ownship Icon whenever the radar jammer is transmitting. (-10, pg. 4-135)
Where will an uncorrelated RWR detect icon be displayed?
Identified by an icon being oriented directly in front of the ownship (C/D band activity). (-10, pg. 4-136)
The LINK function is used in the CPG station to set the ______________________________ when the selected sight is TADS or to set the ___________________________ when the selected sight is FCR. In the pilot station, it is used only to set the ____________________________.
The LINK function is used in the CPG station to set the FCR centerline to the TADS LOS when the selected sight is TADS or to set the TADS LOS to the FCR NTS LOS when the selected sight is FCR. In the pilot station, it is used only to set the TADS LOS to the FCR NTS LOS. (-10, pg. 4-7; ATM, Task 1144)
FLIR image quality in both MTADS and MPNVS can degrade over time. The __________ (_______________________________________) process is performed to optimize FLIR image quality.
FLIR image quality in both MTADS and MPNVS can degrade over time. The FLIR SANUC (Scene Assisted Non-Uniformity Correction) process is performed to optimize FLIR image quality. (-10, pg. 4-74; ATM, Task 1140)
Crew Coordination should take place before initiating SANUC due to the removal of TADS or PNVS video. The SANUC should not be performed if _______________________________________.
Crew Coordination should take place before initiating SANUC due to the removal of TADS or PNVS video. The SANUC should not be performed if ground and obstacle clearance cannot be maintained. (-10, pg. 4-74; ATM, Task 1140)
On the AF (Air Fire) Page, if the values are all displayed in _____ the mission may be executed safely. If a value is displayed in _____, a performance parameter has been exceeded. The OBS range values are currently based off the _______ laser performance for a 90% probability of a hit with a SAL missile.
On the AF (Air Fire) Page, if the values are all displayed in GREEN the mission may be executed safely. If a value is displayed in WHITE, a performance parameter has been exceeded. The OBS range values are currently based off the OH-58D’s laser performance for a 90% probability of a hit with a SAL missile. (-10, 3-69)
The ______________________ will nominally take _________ for the algorithms to provide an accurate target-state output for ballistics computation and lead-angle compensation.
The Target State Estimator will nominally take 3 seconds for the algorithms to provide an accurate target-state output for ballistics computation and lead-angle compensation. (.45, pg. 14-68)
MUMT-2 Range expectations:
- AAG to Observer: 15km
- AAG to AAG: 15km
- UR to UAS: 40km
(v13.1 Differences)
Remote Designator Safety Zone: Can you shoot a hellfire while your Wingman Lases using this scenario?
No, designator is withing range safety fan.
- OWN - GREEN: within 8km HF max range
- OBS - GREEN: within 12 km max designation
- FAN - WHITE: NG because OBS in safety fan
While performing diving fire, the Low Altitude Warning audio sounds. What actions are required by the crew?
_The aircrew shall give their sole attention to placing the aircraft back above the minimum altitude. The P* will ensure that the nose of the aircraft is placed equal to or above the horizon prior to adding power to preclude accelerating, descending flight. Tactical play, radio transmissions, and nonessential inter communications system (ICS) shall cease until the P* states “BACK ABOVE” to the P._ (ATM, Task 1415, 1422)
When performing firing techniques, which crewmember will operate the SAFE/ARM button?
Pilot not on the controls. (ATM, Task 1422)
What are the three levels of safing?
- Weapons trigger switch released
- Weapons action switch deselected
- SAFE/ARM button – SAFE
(ATM, Task 1422)
Can the flight crew override the “NAV DATA INVALID” message in the sight status field of the High Action Display?
NO (Safety inhibit) (-10, pg. 4-32)
Can the flight crew override the “ACCEL LIMIT” message in the weapon inhibit status field of the High Action Display?
NO (Safety inhibit) (-10, pg. 4-40)
Pilot and CPG shall perform their _____________________ prior to entering the ____.
Pilot and CPG shall perform their armament safety check prior to entering the FARP. (-10, pg. 8-14)
When _______________________ or are predicted, and Hellfire operations are expected, the launcher ________________ located on each Hellfire launcher must be manually placed in the ARM position prior to lift off. It is possible for this switch to be rendered inoperative due to _____.
When icing conditions exist or are predicted, and Hellfire operations are expected, the launcher ARM/SAFE switch located on each Hellfire launcher must be manually placed in the ARM position prior to lift off. It is possible for this switch to be rendered inoperative due to icing. (-10, pg. 8-3)
When operating at ___________________, ensure anti-ice is in the ___________. Failure of the anti-ice/detector during ___________________ could result in severe ___________.
When operating at high power settings, ensure anti-ice is in the manual mode. Failure of the anti-ice/detector during high power settings could result in severe Np/Nr droop. (-10, pg. 8-12)
Crewmembers will not use enemy targets on the TSD to mark __________________.
Crewmembers will not use enemy targets on the TSD to mark friendly positions.
What are the four major fratricide prevention initiatives IAW the .45? Note: for this question you don’t have to use exact words, as long as you relay understanding of the intent of the 4 initiatives.
- DOCTRINE: Adhere to Doctrine/SOP/TTP’s
- TRAINING: Combat ID & Graphic Control Measures Training
- ORGANIZATION: LNO’s & Liaisons
- LEADER/SOLDIER DEVELOPMENT: Rehearsals &AARs
(.45, pg. 10-3)
Maximum effective range is defined as _______________________________________.
Maximum effective range is defined as the longest range at which a weapon has a 50% probability of hitting a target. (.45, pg. A-4)
The two types of fires are ______ and ________.
The two types of fires are Direct and Indirect. (.45, pg. 14-2)
What are the three Techniques of Fire?
Destruction, Neutralization, and Suppression.
(ATM, pg. 4-133; .45, pg. 15-3)
Destruction. Destruction is awesome. It’s what we strive to get good at. Destruction is a decisive engagement that puts a target out of action permanently. ___________ is achieved by _______________________ or __________________________.
Destruction. Destruction is awesome. It’s what we strive to get good at. Destruction is a decisive engagement that puts a target out of action permanently. Destruction is achieved by killing enemy personnel or destroying enemy equipment. (ATM, pg. 4-133; .45, pg. 15-3; FM 7-Gonzo)
Neutralization. Neutralization knocks a target out of action temporarily. It is the standard for rocket engagements. ______________ of a target occurs when it suffers at least ___ casualties or damage.
Neutralization. Neutralization knocks a target out of action temporarily. It is the standard for rocket engagements. Neutralization of a target occurs when it suffers at least 10% casualties or damage.
(ATM, pg. 4-133; .45, pg. 15-3)
Suppression. Suppressive fire is used to defend friendly forces from accurate enemy attack. What are suppressive fires supposed to do?
Limit enemy movement, limit enemy observation, and increase friendly freedom to maneuver. (ATM, pg. 4-133; .45, pg. 15-3)
Suppression. Suppressive fire is most effective when fired at a sustained rate of ________ round bursts from the 30mm, each burst should strike within _________ of the suspected target area.
Suppression. Suppressive fire is most effective when fired at a sustained rate of 10 or 20 round bursts from the 30mm, each burst should strike within 10 meters of the suspected target area.
(.45, pg. 14-43)
The four modes of fire IAW .45 are:
Hover fire, moving fire, running fire, and diving fire.
(.45, pg. 14-2; ATM Task 1422 — ATM does not include moving, it lists low alt bump.)
Moving fire is an engagement from a moving helicopter ________________________________. Running fire is an engagement from a moving helicopter __________________________.
Moving fire is an engagement from a moving helicopter equal to or greater than ETL but less than 40 KTAS. Running fire is an engagement from a moving helicopter above 40 KTAS through Vne. (.45, pg. 14-2)
What is the purpose of a “Fence Check?”
The purpose of a Fence Check is to ensure that the aircraft is configured to fight. Each aircraft prior to moving into a hostile environment must be prepared to engage threats immediately and defend itself accordingly. (.45, pg. 14-5)
What are the standard steps of a Fence Check?
Weapons, ASE, IFF, Lights, Recorder (WAILR) (.45, pg. 14-5)
What does “Fence Out” mean? What does “Fence In” mean?
- Fence out: conduct WAILR check crossing ‘the wire’, leaving the traffic pattern, crossing the FLOT, or METTC depending.
- Fence in: conduct reverse WAILR as part of the before landing checks.
(.45, pg. 14-5)
How many priority fire zones can be created/displayed on the TSD? How many can be active at one time?
8, 1 (-10, pg. 3-134; .45, pg. E-11)
During pre-mission planning, when conducting EA Calculus and determining what Hellfire weapons load would be applicable to the mission, the Battalion will always use a ______ .
During pre-mission planning, when conducting EA Calculus and determining what Hellfire weapons load would be applicable to the mission, the Battalion will always use a Ph=70%. (TACSOP, pg. 140-3)
What is the difference between a “break,” “jinking,” and a “pull off?”
- A “Break” is an Immediate action command to perform an emergency maneuver to deviate from the present ground track by executing a maximum performance evasive maneuver.
- “Jinking” is defined as deliberate, controlled changes of multiple axes in order to elude enemy fire.
- A “Pull Off” is employed to enable attack helicopter the safest possible departure from the target area.
(ATM, pg. 6-5, 4-134, 4-203)
Transmission of the ________________ constitutes _________________ except in ________________________.
Transmission of the 5-Line CCA Brief constitutes clearance to fire except in Danger Close Situations.
(JFIRE, pg. 70)
To provide time and spacing to set up a running or diving attack, the PC/AMC/JTAC selects an Initial Point (IP) approximately _______ from the target utilizing an identifiable terrain or electronic feature The IP acts as the starting point for the attack run.
To provide time and spacing to set up a running or diving attack, the PC/AMC/JTAC selects an Initial Point (IP) approximately 8-10 km from the target utilizing an identifiable terrain or electronic feature The IP acts as the starting point for the attack run. (ATM, pg. 4-134; .45, pg. 14-2)
After conducting a proper TPM-R brief, the AMC assigns team member responsibilities within the team based upon the tactical situation. What are the three common attack pattern calls?
Shooter/Shooter, Shooter/Cover, and Looker/Shooter. (ATM, Task 2043)
NORMA/BRASCRAF - Range. The kill zone should be within the ______________ of the weapon’s range for aircraft survivability. Range must be within the minimum and maximum effective range of the selected weapon system, and should be outside the enemy’s _______________________.
NORMA/BRASCRAF - Range. The kill zone should be within the last one-third of the weapon’s range for aircraft survivability. Range must be within the minimum and maximum effective range of the selected weapon system, and should be outside the enemy’s maximum effective range. (ATM, pg. 4-127)
What are the four dimensions of a WEZ? What is the 5th dimension?
- R-MIN: Minimum engagement range.
- R-MAX: Maximum engagement range.
- Azimuth (left/right) limits: Lateral engagement limits or fields of fire modified by surrounding terrain and natural or man-made obstacles.
- Elevation limits: Vertical engagement limits of the system modified by surrounding terrain and natural or man-made obstacles.
- ‘and’ Time of Flight (TOF).
(ATM, Task 1414; .45, pg. A-5)
The four types of ballistics are ________, ________, ______, and ________.
The four types of ballistics are Interior, Exterior, Aerial, and Terminal. (.45, pg. A-6)
____________________, an _________________, influences the accuracy of all weapon systems, it ____________________. Maximum error is induced by rotor downwash when the weapon system is fired from an aircraft hovering ___.
Rotor Downwash Error, an aerial ballistic, influences the accuracy of all weapon systems, it most affects rockets. Maximum error is induced by rotor downwash when the weapon system is fired from an aircraft hovering IGE. (.45, pg. A-10)
In the AH-64D, Rotor Downwash Error is reduced to zero with forward airspeed of ________.
In the AH-64D, Rotor Downwash Error is reduced to zero with forward airspeed of 30 knots.
(ATM, pg. 4-134)
________________ is an __________________ that causes a clockwise spinning projectile to __________________.
Projectile Drift is an exterior ballistic that causes a clockwise spinning projectile to drift to the right. (.45, pg. A-8)
________________ is an ________________ aircraft movement imparted onto the projectile shift forward causing the projectile to _____________.
Trajectory Shift is an aerial ballistic aircraft movement imparted onto the projectile shift forward causing the projectile to shift forward. (.45, pg. A-13)
_____________________ is produced when ____________________________________ combine. When a target is ___________, _____________________________________, causing the round to move _____________. When a target is ________, ______________________ (round moves _____) tend to lessen _______________________ (round moves ___), so ____________________________.
Port-Starboard Effect is produced when trajectory shift and projectile drift combine. When a target is to the left, the effects of drift and shift compound each other, causing the round to move further right. When a target is to the right, the effect of projectile drift (round moves right) tend to lessen the effect of trajectory shift (round moves left), so less compensation is required. (.45, pg. A-13)
__________________ is an ________________ it is caused by __________ (___________________) in the ___________________________________.
Angular Rate Error is an aerial ballistic it is caused by the motion (pitch, roll, and/or yaw) in the launch platform as a projectile leaves the weapon. (.45, pg. A-10)
A crew fires a burst of 30mm at a target and misses to the left. Crew adjusts by placing the line of sight equal distance to the right of the target and fires again, this time hitting the target. What technique was used?
The Burst on Target Recognition Method, also known as ‘Kentucky Windage’ (.45, pg. 14-21)
List the seven laser related missile performance distracters.
- *Backscatter**, Boresight error,
- *Attenuation**, Beam divergence, Spot jitter, Overspill, Underspill, Entrapment, and Podium Effect. (.45, pg. F-3)
Backscatter is ____________________________.
Backscatter is _a portion of the laser beam’s energy reflected off atmospheric particles in the laser
path back towards the designator while the remainder of the laser’s energy penetrates towards the target_. (ATM, pg. 4-141; .45, pg. F-6)
T/F The BACKSCATTER inhibit message can be overridden by the weapon trigger 2nd detent.
False (Safety inhibit) (10-2, pg. 4-40)
__________ occurs when the laser’s reflection point on the DPI is ________________________. The amount of reflected energy does not decrease; however, the aspect angle at which the
laser can be seen the missile is reduced, or blocked during its flight. This may occur due to
designating a point within an enclosed area; a wheel well, road wheel, open window, cave, or a wall with an extended overhang-such as a porch or building entryway.
Entrapment occurs when the laser’s reflection point on the DPI _is trapped or masked within the
target_. The amount of reflected energy does not decrease; however, the aspect angle at which the
laser can be seen the missile is reduced, or blocked during its flight. This may occur due to
designating a point within an enclosed area; a wheel well, road wheel, open window, cave, or a wall with an extended overhang-such as a porch or building entryway. (.45, pg. F-5)
_____________ occurs when the designator is illuminating a target and some portion of the target
blocks the reflected energy or the angle between the laser designator and the missile seeker. This
prevents the laser spot from being detected or tracked. It has been observed to occur during
REMOTE engagements and buddy lase with UAVs, but could occur between AH’s and other platforms.
Podium Effect occurs when the designator is illuminating a target and some portion of the target
blocks the reflected energy or the angle between the laser designator and the missile seeker. This
prevents the laser spot from being detected or tracked. It has been observed to occur during
REMOTE engagements and buddy lase with UAVs, but could occur between AH’s and other platforms. (.45, pg. 4-4)
______________ is the single largest contributor to perceived dispersion associated with the AH-64 30mm cannon.
Turret bending is the single largest contributor to perceived dispersion associated with the AH-64 30mm cannon. (.45, pg. A-24)
What is Turret Bending?
Airframe and gun-turret flexing in response to sustained recoil. (.45, pg. A-24)
The minimum safe employment range for the IZLID is __________.
The minimum safe employment range for the IZLID is 620 meters. (ATM, pg. 4-180; AWR 2007D-A34)
___, ____, and _____are the three selectable modes of IZLID operation.
Low, High, and Pulse are the three selectable modes of IZLID operation. (.45, pg. F-7)
To illuminate targets with the IZLID beyond 1000m, a manual range of _____ must be entered into the weapons processor (WP) to prevent the gun barrel from elevating above line-of-sight (LOS).
To illuminate targets with the IZLID beyond 1000m, a manual range of 1000m must be entered into the weapons processor (WP) to prevent the gun barrel from elevating above line-of-sight (LOS). (AWR 2007D-A34)
When operating in the TESS/weapons TNG mode, what is displayed in the weapons inhibit section of the HAD when the weapon system is “armed?”
Training (-10, pg. 4-39, 102)
What is entered on the keyboard unit (KU) to select auto range?
“A” (-10, pg. 4-15)
The maximum PRF Laser frequency that may be entered is ____.
The maximum PRF Laser frequency that may be entered is 1788. (-10, pg. 4-121; .45, D-32)
The minimum altitude for auto ranging is approximately _________ with a __________ look down angle.
The minimum altitude for auto ranging is approximately 33 ft. AGL with a one-degree look down angle. (SHWS, pg. D-16)
Squeezing the laser trigger switch to the first detent fires _____________ for target ranging. Squeezing the laser trigger to the second detent fires __________ burst of laser energy for target designation and continuous range updates.
Squeezing the laser trigger switch to the first detent fires 3 laser bursts for target ranging. Squeezing the laser trigger to the second detent fires continuous burst of laser energy for target designation and continuous range updates. (-10, pg. 4-15)
On the COORD page, pressing any _________ makes a waypoint, control measure or target threat an __________________.
On the COORD page, pressing any VAB L1 – L6 makes a waypoint, control measure or target threat an acquisition source. (-10, pg. 3-128)
The _______________ to action a weapon (WAS) has control of that weapon. Exception: If the CPG has rockets actioned via the _______ and the pilot actions rockets, __________________ is in effect.
The last crewmember to action a weapon (WAS) has control of that weapon. Exception: If the CPG has rockets actioned via the LHG WAS and the pilot actions rockets, cooperative moding is in effect. (-10, pg. 4-6)
