GST OCT 2014 Flashcards
1
Q
The “WARNING” regarding 30mm stoppage states: If ___ or more rounds have been fired in the preceding __________, and a stoppage occurs, personnel must remain clear of the aircraft for __________. Aircraft crewmembers should remain in the aircraft and continue positive gun control.
A
The “WARNING” regarding 30mm stoppage states: If 300 or more rounds have been fired in the preceding 10 minutes, and a stoppage occurs, personnel must remain clear of the aircraft for 30 minutes. Aircraft crewmembers should remain in the aircraft and continue positive gun control.
(-10, pg. 4-108)
2
Q
What is the “WARNING” associated with the 30mm?
A
Failure to adhere to the published gun duty cycle may result in catastrophic failure, loss of aircraft, injury or death. (-10, pg. 4-107)
3
Q
The Gun Duty Cycle is as follows: _, __ round bursts w/ _________ between bursts followed by a _________ cooling period. For burst limiter settings of other than __, no more than ___ rounds within __________ before allowing gun to cool for __________, after which the cycle can be repeated.
A
The Gun Duty Cycle is as follows: 6, 50 round bursts w/ 5 seconds between bursts followed by a 10 minute cooling period. For burst limiter settings of other than 50, no more than 300 rounds within 60 seconds before allowing gun to cool for 10 minutes, after which the cycle can be repeated.
(-10, pg. 4-107)
4
Q
T/F Under NVS, the AWS will continue to follow IHADSS LOS when operating in NVS FIXED mode.
A
True (-10, pg. 4-105)
5
Q
In the event of a GUN EL MISTRACK fault, the gun will be ___________________.
A
In the event of a GUN EL MISTRACK fault, the gun will be Stowed in Elevation. (-10, pg. 4-106)
6
Q
In the event of ______________ with gun selected and the HMD as the selected sight, the gun will remain at its last commanded position. Gun firing is _________. When the gun is de-actioned, it will _____________________________.
A
In the event of IHADSS failure with gun selected and the HMD as the selected sight, the gun will remain at its last commanded position. Gun firing is inhibited. When the gun is de-actioned, it will return to the stowed position. (-10, pg. 4-19)
7
Q
In the event of a power loss the gun is spring driven to ___________ in elevation to prevent _____ during landing.
A
In the event of a power loss the gun is spring driven to +11 degrees in elevation to prevent dig-in during landing. (-10 pg. 4-105)
8
Q
If the gun system is actioned and the WP has detected a NO GO status, a “_________” weapon status field message will be displayed and the _______________________ anytime _____________________.
A
If the gun system is actioned and the WP has detected a NO GO status, a “gun fail” weapon status field message will be displayed and the LOS reticle will flash anytime the trigger is pulled.
(-10, pg. 4-22, 26; ATM, pg. 4-159)
9
Q
Fixed Gun may be utilized during degraded systems operations, such as when the M-TADS or FCR are not available or unsuitable. Helmet sights are inherently inaccurate at long range due to aircraft vibration and therefore have a low probability of hit against targets beyond 1,000 meters. When engaging point targets ___________________ (without the use of the M-TADS or FCR) the crew should select Fixed Gun.
A
Fixed Gun may be utilized during degraded systems operations, such as when the M-TADS or FCR are not available or unsuitable. Helmet sights are inherently inaccurate at long range due to aircraft vibration and therefore have a low probability of hit against targets beyond 1,000 meters. When engaging point targets beyond 1,000 meters (without the use of the M-TADS or FCR) the crew should select Fixed Gun. (ATM, pg. 4-160)
10
Q
When the AWS is in the Fixed Gun position, the WP will command the turret to ____ degrees in elevation and _________ forward in azimuth to the aircraft centerline.
A
When the AWS is in the Fixed Gun position, the WP will command the turret to +.87 degrees in elevation and 0 degrees forward in azimuth to the aircraft centerline. (ATM, pg. 4-161)
11
Q
The AWS will / will not (circle one) continue to follow IHADSS LOS when operating in the NVS FIXED mode.
A
The AWS will / will not (circle one) continue to follow IHADSS LOS when operating in the NVS FIXED mode. (-10, pg. 4-105)
12
Q
There is no indication in the cockpit when the SQUAT ORIDE switch is in the AIR position. What is the hazard associated with the SQUAT ORIDE switch being in the AIR position with the aircraft on the ground?
A
The possibility exists that the AWS could inadvertently be driven into the ground.
(-10, pg. 4-106)
13
Q
The maximum effective range of the 30mm is ___________________.
A
The maximum effective range of the 30mm is 1500 to 1700 meters. (ATM, pg. 4-160; .45, B-15)
14
Q
What is the time of flight for a 3Km 30mm shot?
A
12.2 sec (ATM, pg. 4-12; .45, B-17)
15
Q
What is the approximate muzzle velocity of the 30mm round?
A
2640 fps / 805 mps (.45, pg. A-8)
16
Q
The rate of fire for the 30 mm is ________.
A
The rate of fire for the 30 mm is 625 +/- 25. (-10, pg. 4-105; .45, pg. B-15)
17
Q
Fragmentation effects can be expected from the M789 HEDP 30mm round within a _______ radius.
A
Fragmentation effects can be expected from the M789 HEDP 30mm round within a 4-meter radius. (.45, pg. B-19)
18
Q
The AWS ammo handling system has a maximum capacity of ____ rounds.
A
The AWS ammo handling system has a maximum capacity of 1200 rounds. (-10, pg. 4-105)
19
Q
The 100 gal Robertson IAFS (Robby Tank) includes a ___ round ammunition storage magazine with __ rounds in the flex chute, making the maximum capacity ___ rounds.
A
The 100 gal Robertson IAFS (Robby Tank) includes a 242 round ammunition storage magazine with 58 rounds in the flex chute, making the maximum capacity 300 rounds. (-10, pg. 4-105)
20
Q
The WP will provide fire control solution for the 30mm up to a range of ___________.
A
The WP will provide fire control solution for the 30mm up to a range of 4200 meters.
(-10, pg. 4-105; ATM, pg. 4-160)
21
Q
With the exception of Rolled Homogeneous Armor (________________), penetration performance for single 30-mm projectiles is _____________. In order to breach typical MOUT targets structures, ____________________________ is required.
A
With the exception of Rolled Homogeneous Armor (2 inches of RHA), penetration performance for single 30-mm projectiles is not available. In order to breach typical MOUT targets structures, continued/concentrated fire is required. (.45, pg. B-17)
22
Q
The gun turret is capable of azimuth movement of __________ left or right of the helicopter centerline, ___________ elevation, (+9 degrees elevation within 10 degrees of aircraft centerline), and ___________ depression.
A
The gun turret is capable of azimuth movement of 86 degrees left or right of the helicopter centerline, +11 degrees elevation, (+9 degrees elevation within 10 degrees of aircraft centerline), and -60 degrees depression. (-10, pg. 4-105)
23
Q
Gun Dynamic Harmonization procedures should be accomplished maintaining a heading to target of __________ and __________________ from the target.
A
Gun Dynamic Harmonization procedures should be accomplished maintaining a heading to target of ±5 degrees and 500 to 1500 meters from the target. (-10, pg 4-108; ATM, pg. 4-160)
24
Q
When conducting AWS Harmonization, the CPG positions the dashed reticule (GUN DH reticule) over the Mean Point of Impact (MPI) of the rounds then presses the ___________________________.
A
When conducting AWS Harmonization, the CPG positions the dashed reticule (GUN DH reticule) over the Mean Point of Impact (MPI) of the rounds then presses the Store/UPDT Switch (ORT LHG).
(10, pg. 4-109)
25
The 30mm is limited to ___________ in azimuth when the rockets are actioned simultaneously.
The 30mm is limited to **_±60 degrees_** in azimuth when the rockets are actioned simultaneously. (AWS SHO, pg. D-24)
26
The 30mm is limited to __________ in azimuth on the side of the next missile to be fired if it is on the inboard pylon.
The 30mm is limited to **_52 degrees_** in azimuth on the side of the next missile to be fired if it is on the inboard pylon. (AWS SHO, pg. D-24)
27
To ensure effective fragment performance when engaging troops in the open, the CPG will select a DMPI _________________ personnel targets.
To ensure effective fragment performance when engaging troops in the open, the CPG will select a DMPI **_slightly short of_** personnel targets. (ATM)
28
What is the rotary wing risk estimate distance for a 1500 meter 30mm engagement?
**_115 meters_** (JFIRE, pg. 151)
29
What are the visual markings of the M789 30mm HEDP round?
**_Black projectile with yellow band and yellow markings on projectile and case._** (.45, pg. B-16)
30
What are the visual markings of the M788 30mm TP round?
**_Blue projectile with aluminum nosepiece and white markings on projectile and case._** (.45, pg. B-16)
31
Due to the possibility of surging the engines, do not fire rockets from ________ stations. Fire no more than _____ with two ________ launchers every \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_, or fire with only ____________ launcher installed without restrictions (ripples permitted).
Due to the possibility of surging the engines, do not fire rockets from **_in-board_** stations. Fire no more than **_pairs_** with two **_outboard_** launchers every **_3 seconds_**, or fire with only **_one outboard_** launcher installed without restrictions (ripples permitted). (-10, pg. 4-111)
32
Re-inventory and attempting to fire \_\_\_, \_\_\_, and ___ rocket types, after a NO-FIRE event is not recommended due to significant impact on accuracy. The rockets should not be used for at least _______ to allow the M439 (Base Mounted Resistance Capacitance) fuse to reset.
Re-inventory and attempting to fire **_6MP_**, **_6FL_**, and **_6SK_** rocket types, after a NO-FIRE event is not recommended due to significant impact on accuracy. The rockets should not be used for at least **_10 days_** to allow the M439 (Base Mounted Resistance Capacitance) fuse to reset. (10, pg. 4-111)
33
How can the crew check/verify the rocket type within each of the rocket zones and the amount of gun ammo loaded on preflight? Can these setting be change on the MPD load page?
_The **Load Maintenance Panel** (LMP) provides this capability. The crew can override these settings on the **Weapons Utility Load page**._ (-10, pg. 4-112)
34
T/F If the pilot actions rockets, his steering cursor will be visible to both pilots.
False (-10, pg 4-29)
35
The Aerial Rocket Subsystem can be employed independently by either crewmember or in the cooperative mode when the active sight is \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
The Aerial Rocket Subsystem can be employed independently by either crewmember or in the cooperative mode when the active sight is **_HMD, TADS, or FCR_**. (-10, pg.4-111)
36
The pylons articulate independently and are controlled by the weapons processor through a range of \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
The pylons articulate independently and are controlled by the weapons processor through a range of **_+4 to -15 degrees_**. (-10, pg. 4-110)
37
Live-fire testing shows that most rockets achieve best effectiveness between \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
Live-fire testing shows that most rockets achieve best effectiveness between **_3000 to 5000 meters_**. (ATM)
38
Firing MK66 in a hover or low speed at a height of less than \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_, and for all other flight conditions of \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_, is not authorized.
Firing MK66 in a hover or low speed at a height of less than **_7 ft AGL_**, and for all other flight conditions of **_5 ft AGL_**, is not authorized. (-10, pg. 4-111)
39
With the current configuration of our flight line aircraft (pods on pylons 1 and 4), what rocket zones and quantities are available? \_\_\_\_, \_\_\_, and \_\_\_.
With the current configuration of our flight line aircraft (pods on pylons 1 and 4), what rocket zones and quantities are available? **_A- 24_**, **_B- 8_**, and **_E- 6_**. (-10, pg. 4-110)
40
Hover fire rocket engagements with 6PD (10 pounders) can be achieved at a range of approximately ___________ without changing \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_. At ranges beyond \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_, ________________________________ may have to be made to meet firing constraints.
Hover fire rocket engagements with 6PD (10 pounders) can be achieved at a range of approximately **_4500 meters_** without changing **_aircraft pitch angle_**. At ranges beyond **_4500 meters_**, **_pitch attitude changes (nose-up)_** may have to be made to meet firing constraints. (ATM, pg. 4-153)
41
The Mk66 motor fuse/warhead combination currently supported by our software includes \_\_\_, \_\_\_, \_\_\_, \_\_\_, \_\_\_, and \_\_\_.
The Mk66 motor fuse/warhead combination currently supported by our software includes **_6PD_**, **_6MP_**, **_6FL_**, **_6IL_**, **_6RC_**, and **_6SK_**. (-10, pg. 4-111; .45, pg. C-1, 23)
42
The position of the rocket pylons when in the FXD mode is based on the following inputs and assumptions: \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_, \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_, ________ forward airspeed at trigger pull, ____________________ and \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
The position of the rocket pylons when in the FXD mode is based on the following inputs and assumptions: **_-20º dive angle_**, **_1063m slant range to target_**, **_110 KTAS_** forward airspeed at trigger pull, **_6PD rockets selected_** and **_inputs from the Air Data System_**. (ATM, pg 4-154)
43
The bursting radius of the M151 HE “10 Pounder” is \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_; however, high-velocity fragments can produce a lethality radius of more than \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
The bursting radius of the M151 HE “10 Pounder” is **_10 meters_**; however, high-velocity fragments can produce a lethality radius of more than **_50 meters_**. (ATM, pg. 5-10)
44
What is employing “sunshine” IAW .45 and JFIRE?
**_Employing Illume Rockets_** (.45, pg. 14-4; JFIRE)
45
Each M73 submunition has a shaped charge that can penetrate more than ________ of armor.
Each M73 submunition has a shaped charge that can penetrate more than **_4 inches_** of armor.
| (.45, pg. C-16)
46
The M261 MPSM has 9 submunitions and effective employment ranges from \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
The M261 MPSM has 9 submunitions and effective employment ranges from **_500 meters to 7000 meters_**. (ARS SHO)
47
Firing of 2.75-inch rockets with M261 MPSM warheads is limited to ranges greater than \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_, and forward airspeeds of less than \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
Firing of 2.75-inch rockets with M261 MPSM warheads is limited to ranges greater than **_1000 meters_**, and forward airspeeds of less than **_90 knots_**. (-10, pg. 4-111; .45, pg. C-16)
48
What is a RAD and what does it do for an MPSM rocket?
**_Ram Air Decelerator. Stops the forward velocity, stabilizes the descent and arms the submunition_**. (.45, pg. C-16)
49
What altitude should the gunner ensure that Illum (M257/M278) rockets deploy above the ground?
**_1500’ AGL_** (.45, pg. C-13)
50
What standoff range should Illum (M257/M278) rockets be launched from?
**_3500 meters_** (.45, pg. C-13)
51
Spent Illum rocket motors will impact the ground between __________________ beyond the target and along the trajectory of the rocket.
Spent Illum rocket motors will impact the ground between **_700 to 1200 meters_** beyond the target and along the trajectory of the rocket. (.45, pg. 14-38)
52
The minimum range to target when firing Flechette rockets is \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_. The effective range with MK66 rocket motors is \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
The minimum range to target when firing Flechette rockets is **_800 meters_**. The effective range with MK66 rocket motors is **_1 km to 3 km_**. (-10, pg 4-111)
53
\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ is ejected during Flechette employment to serve as a daytime center-pattern indicator. Future versions will contain a titanium pyrotechnic charge as a nighttime center-pattern indicator.
**_Red pigment_** is ejected during Flechette employment to serve as a daytime center-pattern indicator. Future versions will contain a titanium pyrotechnic charge as a nighttime center-pattern indicator. (.45, pg. C-9)
54
The flechette rocket detonates about ____ before the predetermined range.
The flechette rocket detonates about **_150m_** before the predetermined range. (.45, pg C-8)
55
Caution should be taken to address the impact point for the expended Flechette rocket motor and warhead case. The impact zone extends out between ____________ meters from deployment point.
Caution should be taken to address the impact point for the expended Flechette rocket motor and warhead case. The impact zone extends out between **_700 and 1200_** meters from deployment point. (.45, pg. C-9)
56
At \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_, Flechettes have an impact velocity of approximately 350 meters per second. This is sufficient velocity to penetrate up to \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
At **_1000 meters_**, Flechettes have an impact velocity of approximately 350 meters per second. This is sufficient velocity to penetrate up to **_8mm of milled steel_**. (.45, pg. C-9)
57
Do not fire rockets with the M433 RC fuse in situations where they might fly closer than ___ from other airborne helicopters.
Do not fire rockets with the M433 RC fuse in situations where they might fly closer than **_51m_** from other airborne helicopters. (-10, pg.4-111)
58
What are the four “T’s” of diving flight?
**_Target, Torque, Trim, and Target._** (ATM, pg. 4-134)
59
During diving flight, if rockets are fired while out of Trim, what direction will the rockets tend to go?
**_An out-of-trim condition will deflect the rockets toward the trim ball._** (ATM, pg. 4-34)
60
What is the rotary wing risk estimate distance for a 1500meter PD rocket engagement?
**_305 meters_** (JFIRE, pg. 151)
61
To prevent IAT break lock during missile launch, you should offset the aircraft centerline ______________ to the side the SAL missile being launched.
To prevent IAT break lock during missile launch, you should offset the aircraft centerline **_3 to 5 degrees_** to the side the SAL missile being launched. (.45, pg. 14-55)
62
The SAL LOBL missile constraint box is \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
The SAL LOBL missile constraint box is **_±20 degrees_**. (.45, pg. 14-58)
63
The SAL LOAL missile constraint box is \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
The SAL LOAL missile constraint box is **_±7.5 degrees_**. (.45, pg. 14-59)
64
The LOAL LO/HI mode constraints box is driven by what?
The **_acquired WP_**, **_TGT_**, **_threat_**, **_hazard_**, or **_CM in the B5 position_**. (ATM, Task 1459)
65
Hellfire missile arming occurs after \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_acceleration _________________ after launch.
Hellfire missile arming occurs after **_exceeding 10g_** acceleration **_150 to 300 meters_** after launch. (.45, pg. D-2)
66
Peak velocity of the Hellfire missile when launched at sea level is _____________________ or _________ or _______ or \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
Peak velocity of the Hellfire missile when launched at sea level is **_475 meters per second_** or **_923 knots_** or **_950 mph_** or **_Mach 1.4_**. (.45, pg. D-2)
67
How long is the allowable training mode missile elapsed ON time?
**_30 minutes_** (-10, pg. 4-126)
68
If the allowable elapsed ON time for a training mode missile is exceeded, what symbol will appear on the affected missile icon? What does this symbol mean?
**_OT — Overtemperature_** (-10, pg. 4-126)
69
In the NORM and MAN mode, regardless of actual inventory, how many missiles will the WP reserve for the priority channel?
**_3_** (ATM, Task 1458)
70
The missile counter-counter measures (MSL CCM) button enables the counter-counter measure routine within the laser missile. This selection _______ the pulse repetition frequency (PRF number of pulses per second) tracking capability of the missile to the precise PRF of the selected laser code.
The missile counter-counter measures (MSL CCM) button enables the counter-counter measure routine within the laser missile. This selection **_narrows_** the pulse repetition frequency (PRF number of pulses per second) tracking capability of the missile to the precise PRF of the selected laser code. (SHWS, pg. D-65)
71
SAL II “K Model” LOBL minimum engagement ranges:
* 0 degree offset: 500 meters
* 20 degree offset: 700 meters
(.45, pg. 14-59)
72
SAL II “K Model” LOAL DIR minimum engagement range:
* 0 degree offset: 1,500 meters
* 7.5 degree offset: 1,700 meters
(.45, pg. 14-59)
73
SAL II “K Model” LOAL LO minimum engagement range:
* 0 degree offset: 2,000 meters
* 7.5 degree offset: 2,500 meters
(.45, pg. 14-59)
74
SAL II “K Model” LOAL HI minimum engagement range:
* 0 degree offset: 3,500 meters
* 7.5 degree offset: 3,500 meters
(.45, pg. 14-59)
75
What is the minimum range for a AGM-114K-2A missile? Why?
**_800 meters; because of fragmentation_** and possible pre-mature detonation. (AWR 2007D-A05)
76
During a remote designation, the designator should neither be within __________________ and ___________________ of the gun target line, nor more than __________ from the target centerline.
During a remote designation, the designator should neither be within **_30 degrees lateral_** and **_40 degrees vertical_** of the gun target line, nor more than **_60 degrees_** from the target centerline. (ATM, Task 1458; .45, pg. 4-71)
77
Minimum SAL LOAL engagement ranges should be increased by __________ if the target is ______________ below the aircraft.
Minimum SAL LOAL engagement ranges should be increased by **_500 meters_** if the target is **_50 to 400 feet_** below the aircraft. (.45, pg. 14-59)
78
Minimum SAL LOAL engagement ranges should be increased by ___________ if the target is _____________________ below the aircraft.
Minimum SAL LOAL engagement ranges should be increased by **_1000 meters_** if the target is **_401 to 800 feet_** below the aircraft. (.45, pg. 14-59)
79
With _______ selected, a SAL Hellfire will clear a ________ mask __________ away.
With **_LOAL LO_** selected, a SAL Hellfire will clear a **_260 foot_** mask **_600 meters_** away. (.45, pg. 14-59)
80
With _______ selected, a SAL Hellfire will clear a _________ mask ___________ away.
With **_LOAL HI_** selected, a SAL Hellfire will clear a **_1000 foot_** mask **_1500 meters_** away. (.45, pg. D-45)
81
What is the minimum engagement range for a LOAL DIR for a K model missile with 7.5 degrees offset? Your altitude is 300 feet above the target.
_**2200 meters** (1700 meters due to the offset plus 500 meters additional range due to altitude above the target)._ (ATM, pp. 4-137)
82
The maximum __________________________ for a SAL missile engagement is limited by the ability of the designator to \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_, the ______________________ to be concentrated enough to prevent overspill or Underspill, and for _________________________________ to the seeker so the seeker can lock onto the reflected laser energy.
The maximum **_effective engagement range_** for a SAL missile engagement is limited by the ability of the designator to **_accurately maintain the laser spot on the target_**, the **_size of the laser spot_** to be concentrated enough to prevent overspill or underspill, and for **_sufficient reflected laser energy_** to the seeker so the seeker can lock onto the reflected laser energy. (.45, pg. 14-54)
83
The maximum range of the Hellfire missile is affected by missile trajectory, launch altitude, battery life, and laser designation capabilities; 7km. What can be done to extend the range?
Selecting a **_LOAL-L or LOAL-H trajectory_** (except for P+ and R model missiles) will extend the missile’s maximum range from **_7 to 8 kilometers_**. (.45, pg. 14-56)
84
What can be done to extend the maximum SAL missile range?
**_Fire LOAL-LO or LOAL-HI to increase the missile trajectory._** (.45, CH 14)
85
What is the maximum LOBL Cloud Clearance Ceiling for a K/M/N/R missile trajectory?
**_600 feet_** (.45, pg. 14-58)
86
What is the max airspeed you can fly when engaging with a AGM-114F-A?
**_90 knots_** (AWR 2008D-A72)
87
What is the weight of an AGM-114L Longbow HELLFIRE missile?
**_105.1 lbs_** (-10, pg. 6-14)
88
For RF missile engagements \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_, the maximum allowable offset angle is \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
For RF missile engagements **_less than 1km_**, the maximum allowable offset angle is **_5 degrees_**.
| (-10, pg 4-28; .45, pg. D-20)
89
When the RF missile is tracking and the target range is \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_, the allowable constraints angle is \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
When the RF missile is tracking and the target range is **_greater than or equal to 1km_**, the allowable constraints angle is **_20 degrees_**. (.45, pg. D-20)
90
When an RF missile detects a moving target with a range between \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_, it will radiate and engage LOBL.
When an RF missile detects a moving target with a range between **_.5km to 8km_**, it will radiate and engage LOBL. (ATM, Task 1459)
91
The RF missile will attempt to launch LOBL on a stationary target between the ranges of \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_. If target is not detected it will revert to LOAL.
The RF missile will attempt to launch LOBL on a stationary target between the ranges of **_1km to 2.5km_**. If target is not detected it will revert to LOAL. (ATM, Task 1459)
92
The RF missile can engage stationary targets LOAL between \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
The RF missile can engage stationary targets LOAL between **_2.5km to 6km_**. (.45, pg. D-11)
93
The RF missile is capable of hitting stationary LOAL targets via the TADS handover and through RFHOs to a maximum range of \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
The RF missile is capable of hitting stationary LOAL targets via the TADS handover and through RFHOs to a maximum range of **_8000 meters_**. (ATM, pg. 4-148)
94
If the sight selected is FCR, what type of missile page will be displayed when the missile system is actioned or the missile button is selected?
**_RF missile page even if no RF missiles are present_**. (-10 pg. 4-102)
95
What symbol is displayed on the RF missile icon to indicate that the missile is ready to receive the target?
**_R_** (-10, pg. 4-116)
96
When the RF missile-training mode is enabled, what symbol will be displayed on all tactical RF missile icons?
**_NA_** (-10, pg. 4-116)
97
What is “transfer alignment”?
**_The transfer of the aircraft inertial data to the missile inertial platform_**. (-10, pg. 4-118)
98
What are the three acquisition sources that may provide targeting information for an RF missile target handover?
**_TADS_**, **_FCR_**, and **_IDM_** (-10, pg. 4-118; ATM , pg. 4-146; .45, pg. 14-68)
99
Why would the RF missile LOBL INHIBIT option be used?
**_To allow for LOAL shots only, Inhibits RF missile from transmitting which eliminates the RF missile signature_**. (ATM, Task 1458)
100
The __________________________ is used to prevent secondary target information from being handed over from the FCR to the RF missile during a __________ target engagement.
The **_2nd target inhibit button_** is used to prevent secondary target information from being handed over from the FCR to the RF missile during a **_stationary_** target engagement.
| (-10, pg. 4-123; ATM, pg. 4-147)
101
An RF missile uses a curved trajectory to induce relative motion between a stationary target and its background by flying an off-axis path to the target. This is called \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
An RF missile uses a curved trajectory to induce relative motion between a stationary target and its background by flying an off-axis path to the target. This is called **_Doppler Beam Sharpening_**.
| (ATM, Task 1459; .45, pg. D-20)
102
At a 20 degree offset launch angle, an RF missile azimuth DBS flight profile will use a maximum curved trajectory cross range of __________ at \_\_\_\_.
At a 20 degree offset launch angle, an RF missile azimuth DBS flight profile will use a maximum curved trajectory cross range of **_990 meters_** at **_8 km_**. (.45, pg. D-21; SHWS, pg. B-91)
103
Stationary targets between ____________________ are engaged by RF LOAL using a Doppler beam sharpening (DBS) missile fly-out profile to create target movement. The crew may control which direction the missile conducts DBS by \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
Stationary targets between **_2,500 and 8,000 meters_** are engaged by RF LOAL using a Doppler beam sharpening (DBS) missile fly-out profile to create target movement. The crew may control which direction the missile conducts DBS by **_pointing the nose of the aircraft in the desired direction_**.
| (ATM, pg. 4-148)
104
The AUTO button will enable automatic missile power management. In the AUTO mode, RF missiles will be powered up at _________ intervals. This ________ occur while missiles are WASed.
The AUTO button will enable automatic missile power management. In the AUTO mode, RF missiles will be powered up at **_10 minute_** intervals. This **_does not_** occur while missiles are WASed. (SHWS, pg. D-86)
105
Where is the hazard area for a radiating RF missile located?
**_1 meter and a 45 degree cone off the missile nose_** (.45, pg D-12)
106
The Shot-At icon associated with SAL autonomous missile engagements is derived using _______________________________ regardless of which crewmember conducts the engagement.
The Shot-At icon associated with SAL autonomous missile engagements is derived using **_the CPG’s sight and range source_** regardless of which crewmember conducts the engagement. (-10, pg. 3-91)
107
How many Shot-At locations can be stored?
**_128_** (-10, pg. 3-104)
108
When a SAL missile is displayed in WHITE and flashes between a bold and normal line, that missile is selected as _______________________________ in the firing sequence.
When a SAL missile is displayed in WHITE and flashes between a bold and normal line, that missile is selected as **_the next missile to be launched_** in the firing sequence. (-10, pg. 4-115)
109
Define the following missile status messages:
(10, pg. 4-116-117)
110
When the Hellfire missile system is actioned in the manual mode, the MSL ADV switch on the collective mission grip is \_\_\_\_\_\_. When the SAL missile mode is NORM or RIPL the switch is \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
When the Hellfire missile system is actioned in the manual mode, the MSL ADV switch on the collective mission grip is **_active_**. When the SAL missile mode is NORM or RIPL the switch is **_not active_**.
111
What is the “rule of thumb” for computing Hellfire TOF?
**_RANGE x 4_** (SHO, pg. D-55)
112
What is the “rule of thumb” for calculating maximum laser delay?
**_(TOF/2)-2_** (SHO, pg. D-55)
113
The rotary wing risk estimate distance for AGM-114 K/M/N/F/L is \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
The rotary wing risk estimate distance for AGM-114 K/M/N/F/L is **_110 meters_**. (JFIRE, pg. 151)
114
Default range for the pilot is \_\_\_\_\_; default range for the CPG is \_\_\_\_.
Default range for the pilot is **_1.5 km_**; default range for the CPG is **_3.0 km_**. (-10, pg. 4-15)
115
The FCR has the ability to initiate the radar scan, detect, and classify more than ___ targets, prioritize the __ most dangerous targets, transmit information to other aircraft, and initiate a precision attack within 30 seconds. Processors determine location, speed, and direction of travel of a maximum of ___ targets.
The FCR has the ability to initiate the radar scan, detect, and classify more than **_128_** targets, prioritize the **_16_** most dangerous targets, transmit information to other aircraft, and initiate a precision attack within 30 seconds. Processors determine location, speed, and direction of travel of a maximum of **_256_** targets. (.45, pg. G-3)
116
A _____________________ in the Range and Range Source Status section of your HAD indicates a \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
A _**flashing asterisk (\*)**_ in the Range and Range Source Status section of your HAD indicates a **_multiple target condition is detected_**. (-10, pg 4-33)
117
When TADS is the selected sight, the weapons processor employs a seven-state Kalman filter-based Target State Estimator to determine actual target velocities. The target state estimator differentiates aircraft induced motion rates from motion target rates. Once a target rate is derived, the lead predictor computes the appropriate lead angle based on computed TOF of the projectile. The TSE computes the target rates for the ____________________ and compensates for ________________ when engaging with _______________ when TADS is the LOS.
When TADS is the selected sight, the weapons processor employs a seven-state Kalman filter-based Target State Estimator to determine actual target velocities. The target state estimator differentiates aircraft induced motion rates from motion target rates. Once a target rate is derived, the lead predictor computes the appropriate lead angle based on computed TOF of the projectile. The TSE computes the target rates for the **_RF missile hand over_** and compensates for **_trajectory shift_** when engaging with **_gun and rockets_** when TADS is the LOS. (.45, pg. 14-68)
118
T/F Scan to scan correlation is available in the Air Targeting Mode.
**_False_** (ATM, pg. 4-82)
119
T/F In the air surveillance mode, NTS target symbols are displayed.
**_False_** (-10, pg. 4-53; .45, pg. 4-83)
120
Up to __ RFI symbols can be displayed on the ASE page.
Up to **_10_** RFI symbols can be displayed on the ASE page. (-10, pg 4-54)
121
RFI emitters will stay full intensity until __________ after they cease transmission.
RFI emitters will stay full intensity until **_30 seconds_** after they cease transmission. (-10, pg 4-65)
122
The RFI number one emitter will be displayed with a _________________ around the threat Symbol and target type.
The RFI number one emitter will be displayed with a **_Home Plate Symbol_** around the threat Symbol and target type. (-10, pg. 4-67)
123
After RFI emitters have ceased radiating for \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_, the symbols will change to \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_. After __________ of no transmission receipt, the symbols will \_\_\_\_\_.
After RFI emitters have ceased radiating for **_30 seconds_**, the symbols will change to **_partial intensity_**. After **_90 seconds_** of no transmission receipt, the symbols will **_blank_**. (-10, pg. 4-67)
124
Friendly RFI emitters are displayed in ____ and enemy/gray emitters are displayed in \_\_\_\_\_\_.
Friendly RFI emitters are displayed in **_CYAN_** and enemy/gray emitters are displayed in **_YELLOW_**.
| (-10, pg. 4-67)
125
Selection of other than #1 emitter with the CAQ enabled places __________________________ (\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_) over that emitter.
Selection of other than #1 emitter with the CAQ enabled places **_an inverse video homeplate (selected emitter symbol)_** over that emitter. (-10, pg. 4-67)
126
Powering the RLWR ON enables up to _____ detected RLWR threats to be displayed on the ______ of the ASE footprint.
Powering the RLWR ON enables up to **_seven_** detected RLWR threats to be displayed on the **_inside_** of the ASE footprint. (-10, pg. 4-130)
127
Powering the RFI ON enables up to ___ detected RFI threats to be displayed on the _______ of the ASE footprint.
Powering the RFI ON enables up to **_ten_** detected RFI threats to be displayed on the **_outside_** of the ASE footprint. (-10, pg. 4-52)
128
The RFI system detects and processes \_\_\_\_\_, \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_, and \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
The RFI system detects and processes **_pulse_**, **_pulse doppler_**, and **_continuous wave (CW) radar signals_**. (-10, pg. 4-130)
129
What does the message “RFI DATA?” mean?
**_RFI has been commanded to do a CUED search and no threat data is available_**. (-10-2, pg. 4-33)
130
A cued search may be performed on a Fine Detect or Course Detect as long as the target is within ___________ of the \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
A cued search may be performed on a Fine Detect or Course Detect as long as the target is within **_±90 degrees_** of the **_FCR centerline_**. (-10, pg. 4-68)
131
The ___________ switch is used to rapidly orient the FCR antenna to the highest priority RFI emitter.
The **_CUED Search_** switch is used to rapidly orient the FCR antenna to the highest priority RFI emitter. (-10, pg. 4-68)
132
While performing a cued search, the RFI #1 emitter is not merged. What will happen if the cued search button is pressed a second time?
**_The FCR antenna will orient to the next priority emitter._** (-10, pg. 4-66)
133
Internal errors can develop in-flight due to temperature changes within the internal components of the TADS (thermal drift). When confidence in the boresight is suspect, an internal boresight should be accomplished. This procedure is recommended \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
Internal errors can develop in-flight due to temperature changes within the internal components of the TADS (thermal drift). When confidence in the boresight is suspect, an internal boresight should be accomplished. This procedure is recommended **_two times every 2.5-hour flight_**. (-10, pg. 4-96)
134
When do FCR target symbols become stale?
**_Moving: 5 seconds. Stationary: 30 seconds_**.
| (-10, pg. 4-55)
135
If the FCR is operating in GTM and you do a cued search, but the detected emitter is airborne what will the FCR do?
**_Change to ATM_** (-10, pg 4-68)
136
How do you make the alternate NTS the NTS on the FCR page?
**_By either pressing the NTS button or selecting the alternate NTS with the cursor or shooting the NTS, or conducting another FCR scan_**. (-10, pg 4-55)
137
What is the maximum range of the FCR in the Terrain Profile Mode?
**_2500 meters_** (-10, pg. 4-62)
138
The GTM/RMAP scan sectors are: WFOV \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_, MFOV \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_, NFOV __________ and ZFOV \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
The GTM/RMAP scan sectors are: WFOV **_90 degrees_**, MFOV **_45 degrees_**, NFOV **_30 degrees_** and ZFOV **_15 degrees_**. (-10, pg. 4-58)
139
The FCR is unable to process __________________ at ranges greater than \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
The FCR is unable to process **_stationary targets_** at ranges greater than **_6000 meters_**.
| (ATM, pg. 4-147)
140
Be able to label the FCR icons:
(-10, pg. 4-55)
141
Be able to label the FCR icons:
(-10, pg. 4-55)
142
In zoom mode the FCR will conduct _ scans per scanburst.
In zoom mode the FCR will conduct **_4_** scans per scanburst. (-10, pg 4-47)
143
The arcs and tics on the FCR GTM and RMAP depict ___ each?
The arcs and tics on the FCR GTM and RMAP depict **_2km_** each? (-10, pg 4-58)
144
The ___ button is used to select the next target in the priority list as the NTS target.
The **_NTS_** button is used to select the next target in the priority list as the NTS target. (-10, pg 4-51)
145
Which FCR Priority Scheme emphasizes **_stationary ground targets_**?
**_B_** (-10, pg. 4-65)
146
Which Priority Scheme would you use if you expected to engage **_moving ground targets_**?
**_C_** (-10, pg. 4-65)
147
A single scan burst in GTM _________ will give \_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
A single scan burst in GTM **_narrow FOV_** will give **_3 scans_**. (-10, pg. 4-49)
148
\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ improves STI detection and classification and Moving Target Indicator (MTI) classification.
**_Scan-To-Scan-Correlation_** improves STI detection and classification and Moving Target Indicator (MTI) classification. (-10, pg. 4-50)
149
When FCR is the selected sight and the weapon system is actioned, the __________ is ______ and the NTS symbol will become \_\_\_\_\_.
When FCR is the selected sight and the weapon system is actioned, the **_NTS target_** is **_frozen_** and the NTS symbol will become **_solid_**. (-10, pg. 4-55)
150
Once the NTS target is frozen, and a target is detected that out-prioritizes the NTS target, the ___________ will be automatically displayed on that target symbol and \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
Once the NTS target is frozen, and a target is detected that out-prioritizes the NTS target, the **_ANTS symbol_** will be automatically displayed on that target symbol and **_flash for 3 seconds_**. (-10, pg. 4-55)
151
What is the caution associated with use of the FCR TEMP ORIDE button?
**_Continued operation with the FCR TEMP ORIDE button selected may cause permanent damage to FCR components_**. (-10, pg. 4-65)
152
What will happen if you press the display ZOOM switch on the RH ORT Grip?
**_The display zoom area 6:1 will be centered on the NTS target_**. (-10, pg. 4-12)
153
Regarding TPM obstacle symbols, a maximum of __________ may be displayed on the FCR page TPM format or IHADSS C-Scope formats at any one time.
Regarding TPM obstacle symbols, a maximum of **_64 symbols_** may be displayed on the FCR page TPM format or IHADSS C-Scope formats at any one time. (-10, pg. 4-64)
154
A shot-at symbol will be displayed _______ target symbols \_\_\_\_\_\_/\_\_\_\_\_\_ a scan burst and prior to a hellfire missile launch. The symbol is displayed _________ a target symbol following a HF missile launch at that target.
A shot-at symbol will be displayed **_beneath_** target symbols **_during/after_** a scan burst and prior to a hellfire missile launch. The symbol is displayed **_on top of_** a target symbol following a HF missile launch at that target. (-10, pg. 4-50)
155
Terrain Profile Mode wide format displays a ______________________ when _____________________________________ and \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_. Narrow format displays a _____________________ when __________________________________ and \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
Terrain Profile Mode wide format displays a **_180-degree scan sector_** when **_ground speed decreases below 45 knots_** and **_until increasing above 55 knots_**. Narrow format displays a **_90-degree scan sector_** when **_ground speed increases above 55 knots_** and **_until decreasing below 45 knots_**. (-10, pg. 4-63)
156
When the CAQ button is used to select an FCR target symbol, the coordinate data is stored in \_\_\_.
When the CAQ button is used to select an FCR target symbol, the coordinate data is stored in **_T50_**. (-10, pg. 3-100)
157
The Radar Jammer icon is displayed as a _______________________ in the center of the _______ Icon whenever the radar jammer is transmitting.
The Radar Jammer icon is displayed as a **_flashing lightning bolt_** in the center of the **_Ownship_** Icon whenever the radar jammer is transmitting. (-10, pg. 4-135)
158
Where will an uncorrelated RWR detect icon be displayed?
**_Identified by an icon being oriented directly in front of the ownship (C/D band activity)_**. (-10, pg. 4-136)
159
The LINK function is used in the CPG station to set the ______________________________ when the selected sight is TADS or to set the ___________________________ when the selected sight is FCR. In the pilot station, it is used only to set the \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
The LINK function is used in the CPG station to set the **_FCR centerline to the TADS LOS_** when the selected sight is TADS or to set the **_TADS LOS to the FCR NTS LOS_** when the selected sight is FCR. In the pilot station, it is used only to set the **_TADS LOS to the FCR NTS LOS_**. (-10, pg. 4-7; ATM, Task 1144)
160
FLIR image quality in both MTADS and MPNVS can degrade over time. The __________ (\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_) process is performed to optimize FLIR image quality.
FLIR image quality in both MTADS and MPNVS can degrade over time. The **_FLIR SANUC_** (**_Scene Assisted Non-Uniformity Correction_**) process is performed to optimize FLIR image quality. (-10, pg. 4-74; ATM, Task 1140)
161
Crew Coordination should take place before initiating SANUC due to the removal of TADS or PNVS video. The SANUC should not be performed if \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
Crew Coordination should take place before initiating SANUC due to the removal of TADS or PNVS video. The SANUC should not be performed if **_ground and obstacle clearance cannot be maintained_**. (-10, pg. 4-74; ATM, Task 1140)
162
On the AF (Air Fire) Page, if the values are all displayed in _____ the mission may be executed safely. If a value is displayed in \_\_\_\_\_, a performance parameter has been exceeded. The OBS range values are currently based off the _______ laser performance for a 90% probability of a hit with a SAL missile.
On the AF (Air Fire) Page, if the values are all displayed in **_GREEN_** the mission may be executed safely. If a value is displayed in **_WHITE_**, a performance parameter has been exceeded. The OBS range values are currently based off the **_OH-58D’s_** laser performance for a 90% probability of a hit with a SAL missile. (-10, 3-69)
163
The ______________________ will nominally take _________ for the algorithms to provide an accurate target-state output for ballistics computation and lead-angle compensation.
The **_Target State Estimator_** will nominally take **_3 seconds_** for the algorithms to provide an accurate target-state output for ballistics computation and lead-angle compensation. (.45, pg. 14-68)
164
MUMT-2 Range expectations:
* AAG to Observer: 15km
* AAG to AAG: 15km
* UR to UAS: 40km
(v13.1 Differences)
165
Remote Designator Safety Zone: Can you shoot a hellfire while your Wingman Lases using this scenario?
**_No, designator is withing range safety fan._**
* OWN - GREEN: within 8km HF max range
* OBS - GREEN: within 12 km max designation
* FAN - WHITE: NG because OBS in safety fan
166
While performing diving fire, the Low Altitude Warning audio sounds. What actions are required by the crew?
_**The aircrew shall give their sole attention to placing the aircraft back above the minimum altitude. The P\* will ensure that the nose of the aircraft is placed equal to or above the horizon prior to adding power to preclude accelerating, descending flight. Tactical play, radio transmissions, and nonessential inter communications system (ICS) shall cease until the P\* states “BACK ABOVE” to the P.**_ (ATM, Task 1415, 1422)
167
When performing firing techniques, which crewmember will operate the SAFE/ARM button?
**_Pilot not on the controls_**. (ATM, Task 1422)
168
What are the three levels of safing?
* Weapons trigger switch released
* Weapons action switch deselected
* SAFE/ARM button – SAFE
(ATM, Task 1422)
169
Can the flight crew override the “NAV DATA INVALID” message in the sight status field of the High Action Display?
**_NO_** (Safety inhibit) (-10, pg. 4-32)
170
Can the flight crew override the “ACCEL LIMIT” message in the weapon inhibit status field of the High Action Display?
**_NO_** (Safety inhibit) (-10, pg. 4-40)
171
Pilot and CPG shall perform their _____________________ prior to entering the \_\_\_\_.
Pilot and CPG shall perform their **_armament safety check_** prior to entering the **_FARP_**. (-10, pg. 8-14)
172
When _______________________ or are predicted, and Hellfire operations are expected, the launcher ________________ located on each Hellfire launcher must be manually placed in the ARM position prior to lift off. It is possible for this switch to be rendered inoperative due to \_\_\_\_\_.
When **_icing conditions exist_** or are predicted, and Hellfire operations are expected, the launcher **_ARM/SAFE switch_** located on each Hellfire launcher must be manually placed in the ARM position prior to lift off. It is possible for this switch to be rendered inoperative due to **_icing_**. (-10, pg. 8-3)
173
When operating at \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_, ensure anti-ice is in the \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_. Failure of the anti-ice/detector during ___________________ could result in severe \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
When operating at **_high power settings_**, ensure anti-ice is in the **_manual mode_**. Failure of the anti-ice/detector during **_high power settings_** could result in severe **_Np/Nr droop_**. (-10, pg. 8-12)
174
Crewmembers will not use enemy targets on the TSD to mark \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
Crewmembers will not use enemy targets on the TSD to mark **_friendly positions_**.
175
What are the four major fratricide prevention initiatives IAW the .45? Note: for this question you don’t have to use exact words, as long as you relay understanding of the intent of the 4 initiatives.
* **_DOCTRINE_**: Adhere to Doctrine/SOP/TTP’s
* **_TRAINING_**: Combat ID & Graphic Control Measures Training
* **_ORGANIZATION_**: LNO’s & Liaisons
* **_LEADER/SOLDIER DEVELOPMENT_**: Rehearsals &AARs
(.45, pg. 10-3)
176
Maximum effective range is defined as \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
Maximum effective range is defined as **_the longest range at which a weapon has a 50% probability of hitting a target_**. (.45, pg. A-4)
177
The two types of fires are ______ and \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
The two types of fires are **_Direct_** and **_Indirect_**. (.45, pg. 14-2)
178
What are the three Techniques of Fire?
**_Destruction_**, **_Neutralization_**, and **_Suppression_**.
| (ATM, pg. 4-133; .45, pg. 15-3)
179
Destruction. Destruction is awesome. It’s what we strive to get good at. Destruction is a decisive engagement that puts a target out of action permanently. ___________ is achieved by _______________________ or \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
Destruction. Destruction is awesome. It’s what we strive to get good at. Destruction is a decisive engagement that puts a target out of action permanently. **_Destruction_** is achieved by **_killing enemy personnel_** or **_destroying enemy equipment_**. (ATM, pg. 4-133; .45, pg. 15-3; *FM 7-Gonzo*)
180
Neutralization. Neutralization knocks a target out of action temporarily. It is the standard for rocket engagements. ______________ of a target occurs when it suffers at least ___ casualties or damage.
Neutralization. Neutralization knocks a target out of action temporarily. It is the standard for rocket engagements. **_Neutralization_** of a target occurs when it suffers at least **_10%_** casualties or damage.
| (ATM, pg. 4-133; .45, pg. 15-3)
181
Suppression. Suppressive fire is used to defend friendly forces from accurate enemy attack. What are suppressive fires supposed to do?
**_Limit enemy movement_**, **_limit enemy observation_**, and **_increase friendly freedom to maneuver_**. (ATM, pg. 4-133; .45, pg. 15-3)
182
Suppression. Suppressive fire is most effective when fired at a sustained rate of ________ round bursts from the 30mm, each burst should strike within _________ of the suspected target area.
Suppression. Suppressive fire is most effective when fired at a sustained rate of **_10 or 20_** round bursts from the 30mm, each burst should strike within **_10 meters_** of the suspected target area.
| (.45, pg. 14-43)
183
The four modes of fire IAW .45 are:
**_Hover fire_**, **_moving fire_**, **_running fire_**, and **_diving fire_**.
| (.45, pg. 14-2; ATM Task 1422 — ATM does not include moving, it lists low alt bump.)
184
Moving fire is an engagement from a moving helicopter \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_. Running fire is an engagement from a moving helicopter \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
Moving fire is an engagement from a moving helicopter **_equal to or greater than ETL but less than 40 KTAS_**. Running fire is an engagement from a moving helicopter **_above 40 KTAS through Vne_**. (.45, pg. 14-2)
185
What is the purpose of a “**_Fence Check_**?”
**_The purpose of a Fence Check is to ensure that the aircraft is configured to fight. Each aircraft prior to moving into a hostile environment must be prepared to engage threats immediately and defend itself accordingly_**. (.45, pg. 14-5)
186
What are the standard steps of a Fence Check?
**_Weapons, ASE, IFF, Lights, Recorder (WAILR)_** (.45, pg. 14-5)
187
What does “Fence Out” mean? What does “Fence In” mean?
* **_Fence out: conduct WAILR check crossing ‘the wire’, leaving the traffic pattern, crossing the FLOT, or METTC depending_**.
* **_Fence in: conduct reverse WAILR as part of the before landing checks_**.
(.45, pg. 14-5)
188
How many priority fire zones can be created/displayed on the TSD? How many can be active at one time?
**_8_**, **_1_** (-10, pg. 3-134; .45, pg. E-11)
189
During pre-mission planning, when conducting EA Calculus and determining what Hellfire weapons load would be applicable to the mission, the Battalion will always use a ______ .
During pre-mission planning, when conducting EA Calculus and determining what Hellfire weapons load would be applicable to the mission, the Battalion will always use a **_Ph=70%_**. (TACSOP, pg. 140-3)
190
What is the difference between a “break,” “jinking,” and a “pull off?”
* **_A “Break” is an Immediate action command to perform an emergency maneuver to deviate from the present ground track by executing a maximum performance evasive maneuver_**.
* **_“Jinking” is defined as deliberate, controlled changes of multiple axes in order to elude enemy fire_**.
* **_A “Pull Off” is employed to enable attack helicopter the safest possible departure from the target area_**.
(ATM, pg. 6-5, 4-134, 4-203)
191
Transmission of the ________________ constitutes _________________ except in \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
Transmission of the **_5-Line CCA Brief_** constitutes **_clearance to fire_** except in **_Danger Close Situations_**.
| (JFIRE, pg. 70)
192
To provide time and spacing to set up a running or diving attack, the PC/AMC/JTAC selects an Initial Point (IP) approximately _______ from the target utilizing an identifiable terrain or electronic feature The IP acts as the starting point for the attack run.
To provide time and spacing to set up a running or diving attack, the PC/AMC/JTAC selects an Initial Point (IP) approximately **_8-10 km_** from the target utilizing an identifiable terrain or electronic feature The IP acts as the starting point for the attack run. (ATM, pg. 4-134; .45, pg. 14-2)
193
After conducting a proper TPM-R brief, the AMC assigns team member responsibilities within the team based upon the tactical situation. What are the three common attack pattern calls?
**_Shooter/Shooter_**, **_Shooter/Cover_**, and **_Looker/Shooter_**. (ATM, Task 2043)
194
NORMA/BRASCRAF - Range. The kill zone should be within the ______________ of the weapon's range for aircraft survivability. Range must be within the minimum and maximum effective range of the selected weapon system, and should be outside the enemy’s \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
NORMA/BRASCRAF - Range. The kill zone should be within the **_last one-third_** of the weapon's range for aircraft survivability. Range must be within the minimum and maximum effective range of the selected weapon system, and should be outside the enemy’s **_maximum effective range_**. (ATM, pg. 4-127)
195
What are the four dimensions of a WEZ? What is the 5th dimension?
1. **_R-MIN_**: Minimum engagement range.
2. **_R-MAX_**: Maximum engagement range.
3. **_Azimuth_** (left/right) limits: Lateral engagement limits or fields of fire modified by surrounding terrain and natural or man-made obstacles.
4. **_Elevation_** limits: Vertical engagement limits of the system modified by surrounding terrain and natural or man-made obstacles.
* 'and’ **_Time of Flight_** (TOF).
(ATM, Task 1414; .45, pg. A-5)
196
The four types of ballistics are \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_, \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_, \_\_\_\_\_\_, and \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
The four types of ballistics are **_Interior_**, **_Exterior_**, **_Aerial_**, and **_Terminal_**. (.45, pg. A-6)
197
\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_, an \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_, influences the accuracy of all weapon systems, it \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_. Maximum error is induced by rotor downwash when the weapon system is fired from an aircraft hovering \_\_\_.
**_Rotor Downwash Error_**, an **_aerial ballistic_**, influences the accuracy of all weapon systems, it **_most affects rockets_**. Maximum error is induced by rotor downwash when the weapon system is fired from an aircraft hovering **_IGE_**. (.45, pg. A-10)
198
In the AH-64D, Rotor Downwash Error is reduced to zero with forward airspeed of \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
In the AH-64D, Rotor Downwash Error is reduced to zero with forward airspeed of **_30 knots_**.
| (ATM, pg. 4-134)
199
\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ is an __________________ that causes a clockwise spinning projectile to \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
**_Projectile Drift_** is an **_exterior ballistic_** that causes a clockwise spinning projectile to **_drift to the right_**. (.45, pg. A-8)
200
\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ is an ________________ aircraft movement imparted onto the projectile shift forward causing the projectile to \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
**_Trajectory Shift_** is an **_aerial ballistic_** aircraft movement imparted onto the projectile shift forward causing the projectile to **_shift forward_**. (.45, pg. A-13)
201
\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ is produced when ____________________________________ combine. When a target is \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_, \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_, causing the round to move \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_. When a target is \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_, ______________________ (round moves \_\_\_\_\_) tend to lessen _______________________ (round moves \_\_\_), so \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
**_Port-Starboard Effect_** is produced when **_trajectory shift and projectile drift combine_**. When a target is **_to the left_**, **_the effects of drift and shift compound each other_**, causing the round to move **_further right_**. When a target is **_to the right_**, **_the effect of projectile drift_** (round moves **_right_**) tend to lessen **_the effect of trajectory shift_** (round moves **_left_**), so **_less compensation is required_**. (.45, pg. A-13)
202
\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ is an ________________ it is caused by __________ (\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_) in the \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
**_Angular Rate Error_** is an **_aerial ballistic_** it is caused by **_the motion_** (**_pitch, roll, and/or yaw_**) in the **_launch platform as a projectile leaves the weapon_**. (.45, pg. A-10)
203
A crew fires a burst of 30mm at a target and misses to the left. Crew adjusts by placing the line of sight equal distance to the right of the target and fires again, this time hitting the target. What technique was used?
The **_Burst on Target Recognition Method_**, also known as **_‘Kentucky Windage’_** (.45, pg. 14-21)
204
List the seven laser related missile performance distracters.
* *_Backscatter_**, **_Boresight error_**,
* *_Attenuation_**, **_Beam divergence_**, **_Spot jitter_**, **_Overspill_**, **_Underspill_**, **_Entrapment_**, and **_Podium Effect_**. (.45, pg. F-3)
205
Backscatter is \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
Backscatter is _**a portion of the laser beam’s energy reflected off atmospheric particles in the laser
path back towards the designator while the remainder of the laser’s energy penetrates towards the target**_. (ATM, pg. 4-141; .45, pg. F-6)
206
T/F The BACKSCATTER inhibit message can be overridden by the weapon trigger 2nd detent.
**_False_** (Safety inhibit) (10-2, pg. 4-40)
207
\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ occurs when the laser’s reflection point on the DPI is \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_. The amount of reflected energy does not decrease; however, the aspect angle at which the
laser can be seen the missile is reduced, or blocked during its flight. This may occur due to
designating a point within an enclosed area; a wheel well, road wheel, open window, cave, or a wall with an extended overhang-such as a porch or building entryway.
**_Entrapment_** occurs when the laser’s reflection point on the DPI _**is trapped or masked within the
target**_. The amount of reflected energy does not decrease; however, the aspect angle at which the
laser can be seen the missile is reduced, or blocked during its flight. This may occur due to
designating a point within an enclosed area; a wheel well, road wheel, open window, cave, or a wall with an extended overhang-such as a porch or building entryway. (.45, pg. F-5)
208
\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ occurs when the designator is illuminating a target and some portion of the target
blocks the reflected energy or the angle between the laser designator and the missile seeker. This
prevents the laser spot from being detected or tracked. It has been observed to occur during
REMOTE engagements and buddy lase with UAVs, but could occur between AH’s and other platforms.
**_Podium Effect_** occurs when the designator is illuminating a target and some portion of the target
blocks the reflected energy or the angle between the laser designator and the missile seeker. This
prevents the laser spot from being detected or tracked. It has been observed to occur during
REMOTE engagements and buddy lase with UAVs, but could occur between AH’s and other platforms. (.45, pg. 4-4)
209
\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ is the single largest contributor to perceived dispersion associated with the AH-64 30mm cannon.
**_Turret bending_** is the single largest contributor to perceived dispersion associated with the AH-64 30mm cannon. (.45, pg. A-24)
210
What is Turret Bending?
**_Airframe and gun-turret flexing in response to sustained recoil_**. (.45, pg. A-24)
211
The minimum safe employment range for the IZLID is \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
The minimum safe employment range for the IZLID is **_620 meters_**. (ATM, pg. 4-180; AWR 2007D-A34)
212
\_\_\_, \_\_\_\_, and \_\_\_\_\_are the three selectable modes of IZLID operation.
**_Low_**, **_High_**, and **_Pulse_** are the three selectable modes of IZLID operation. (.45, pg. F-7)
213
To illuminate targets with the IZLID beyond 1000m, a manual range of _____ must be entered into the weapons processor (WP) to prevent the gun barrel from elevating above line-of-sight (LOS).
To illuminate targets with the IZLID beyond 1000m, a manual range of **_1000m_** must be entered into the weapons processor (WP) to prevent the gun barrel from elevating above line-of-sight (LOS). (AWR 2007D-A34)
214
When operating in the TESS/weapons TNG mode, what is displayed in the weapons inhibit section of the HAD when the weapon system is “armed?”
**_Training_** (-10, pg. 4-39, 102)
215
What is entered on the keyboard unit (KU) to select auto range?
**_“A”_** (-10, pg. 4-15)
216
The maximum PRF Laser frequency that may be entered is \_\_\_\_.
The maximum PRF Laser frequency that may be entered is **_1788_**. (-10, pg. 4-121; .45, D-32)
217
The minimum altitude for auto ranging is approximately _________ with a __________ look down angle.
The minimum altitude for auto ranging is approximately **_33 ft. AGL_** with a **_one-degree_** look down angle. (SHWS, pg. D-16)
218
Squeezing the laser trigger switch to the first detent fires _____________ for target ranging. Squeezing the laser trigger to the second detent fires __________ burst of laser energy for target designation and continuous range updates.
Squeezing the laser trigger switch to the first detent fires **_3 laser bursts_** for target ranging. Squeezing the laser trigger to the second detent fires **_continuous_** burst of laser energy for target designation and continuous range updates. (-10, pg. 4-15)
219
On the COORD page, pressing any _________ makes a waypoint, control measure or target threat an \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
On the COORD page, pressing any **_VAB L1 – L6_** makes a waypoint, control measure or target threat an **_acquisition source_**. (-10, pg. 3-128)
220
The _______________ to action a weapon (WAS) has control of that weapon. Exception: If the CPG has rockets actioned via the _______ and the pilot actions rockets, __________________ is in effect.
The **_last crewmember_** to action a weapon (WAS) has control of that weapon. Exception: If the CPG has rockets actioned via the **_LHG WAS_** and the pilot actions rockets, **_cooperative moding_** is in effect. (-10, pg. 4-6)
