AR 95-1 Flashcards

1
Q

Are deviations from AR 95-1 permitted?

A

Yes, deviations are permitted during emergencies. Any deviations must be reported to the unit commander within 24 hours.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

If a pilot is not qualified or current, who must they fly with?

A

They must fly with an IP, SP, or IE.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Define aviation operations?

A

Any operation with intent to start the main aircraft engines.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

When will the checklist be used?

A

For preflight through before leaving aircraft checks.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

When may required checks be accomplished from memory?

A

While airborne, when time does not permit use of the checklist or when its use would cause a safety hazard.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

When does flying time begin and end?

A

It begins when the helicopter lifts off the ground and ends when the engines are stopped.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

How soon must an aviator turn in their Individual Aircrew Training Folder (IATF) upon reaching a new unit?

A

Within 14 calendar days.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

When may aviators select landing and takeoff areas?

A

When on lifesaving missions or when further flight is inadvisable.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

When must anticollision lights be on?

A

When the engines are operating except when conditions may cause vertigo or other hazards to safety.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What are the three steps of the mission approval process?

A
  • Initial mission approval — alignment with METL and aircraft available
  • Mission planning and briefing — planning and risk assessment
  • Final mission approval — risk approval authority accepts the risk with the PC/AMC
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

When must a mission be rebriefed and reapproved?

A

If a crewmember changes or a mission parameter changes which increases the resultant risk.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Who may approve individual waivers to aircraft ATP requirements?

A

The first commander, O-6 or above, in the aviators chain of command.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

How long can an aviator go between APARTs before he becomes RL3?

A

24 months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Who is authorized to conduct EP training?

A

A qualified and current IP or SP.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

When must a post-mishap flight evaluation be conducted?

A

When crew is involved in a Class A or Class B mishap. May also be conducted for a Class C mishap.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What must be done when ATP requirements are not met?

A

The commander must begin an investigation within 30 days from the date of notification.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What three actions may a commander take after investigating a failure to meet ATP requirements?

A
  • Authorize a 30 day extension to complete the requirements.
  • Request a waiver of requirements.
  • Recommend or convene a flying evaluation board (FEB).
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

May an aviator who failed to complete ATP requirements serve as PC or MBO?

A

No, until the missed requirements are made up, the aviator may not perform PC or briefing officer duties.

19
Q

What actions must a commander take if an aviator fails a hands-on performance evaluation in their primary aircraft?

A
  • Reclassify the individual to the appropriate RL.
  • Authorize additional training, if necessary.
  • Provide a re-evaluation or impose a temporary restriction from flying duties (FEB as necessary).
20
Q

If a pilot does not fly for __ days they must be administered a proficiency flight evaluation.

A

60

21
Q

The PC will be:

A
  • Responsible and having final authority for operation, servicing, and securing the aircraft he or she pilots.
  • Selected in accordance with AR 95-1 and local regulations.
  • Qualified, current, and designated RL1 in the aircraft mission, type, design, and series.
  • Listed in the flight plan.
  • Responsible for crew and passenger briefings.
  • At a crewstation with access to the flight controls.
22
Q

The PI will be:

A
  • At a crew station with access to the flight controls.
  • Qualified and current in the aircraft mission, type, design, and series.
  • Briefed by the PC.
  • Listed on the flight plan.
23
Q

Army personnel engaged in the operation of Army aircraft shall comply with applicable:

A
  • Federal aviation regulations.
  • ICAO regulations.
  • Host country regulations.
  • Military regulations.
  • Applicable Federal and state laws.
  • DOD FLIP.
  • Operator’s manuals, checklists, and AWRs.
24
Q

What will the aviator consider in his flight planning?

A
  • Aircraft performance.
  • Departure, enroute, and approach data.
  • NOTAMS.
  • DOD FLIP and/or approved non-government FLIP.
25
Q

What are the VFR flight weather planning requirements?

A
  • Destination weather greater than VFR minimums at ETA through one hour.
  • Predominate weather will apply.
  • Aviators may file to Class B, C, D, and E surface airspace with SVFR from ETA through one hour. (must still be able to maintain enroute visibility and cloud clearances per table 5-1)
26
Q

What are the PC responsibilities in regards to weight and balance?

A
  • Ensure the accuracy of computations on DD Form 365-4.
  • Ensure that a completed DD Form 365-4 is aboard the aircraft.
  • Verify that the weight and CG will remain within allowable limits for the entire flight. (Several forms with various loadings may satisfy this requirement.)
27
Q

What are the take-off minimums for a pilot with less tha 50 hours of weather time?

A

100 foot ceilings and 1/4 mile visibility.

28
Q

What are the Class C and D VFR weather minimums?

A
  • Visibility — 3 miles
  • Cloud Clearance
    • 1000’ above
    • 500’ below
    • 2000’ horizontally
29
Q

What are the Class B VFR weather minimums?

A
  • Visibility — 3 miles
  • Cloud Clearance
    • Clear of clouds
30
Q

What are the Class E VFR weather minimums?

A
  • Below 10000’ MSL
    • Visibility — 3 miles
    • Cloud Clearance
      • 1000’ above
      • 500’ below
      • 2000’ horizontally
  • Above 10000’ MSL
    • Visibility — 5 miles
    • Cloud Clearance
      • 1000’ above
      • 1000’ below
      • 1 mile horizontally
31
Q

What are the Class G VFR weather minimums below 1200’ AGL?

A
  • Day
    • Visibility — 1/2 mile
    • Cloud Clearance
      • Clear of clouds
  • Night
    • Visibility — 1 mile
    • Cloud Clearance
      • Clear of clouds
32
Q

What are the Class G VFR weather minimums above 1200’ AGL but below 10000’ MSL?

A
  • Day
    • Visibility — 1 mile
    • Cloud Clearance
      • 1000’ above
      • 500’ below
      • 2000’ horizontally
  • Night
    • Visibility — 3 miles
      • 1000’ above
      • 500’ below
      • 2000’ horizontally
33
Q

What are the Class G VFR weather minimums above 1200’ AGL and above 10000’ MSL?

A
  • Visibility — 5 miles
  • Cloud Clearance
    • 1000’ below
    • 1000’ above
    • 1 mile horizontally
34
Q

How long may an aircraft be flown “VFR on top”?

A

For no more than 30 minutes.

35
Q

What weather is required to initiate an IFR approach?

A

An approach may be initiated regardless of ceiling and visibility.

36
Q

What requirements must be met before descending below the MDA/DH/DA?

A
  • The approach threshold or approach lighting must be clearly visible to the pilot.
  • The aircraft must be in a position from which a safe approach to the landing area can be made.
37
Q

What is the Apache’s weight and balance classification and what does it mean?

A

The Apache is a Class 2 aircraft meaning weight or center-of-gravity limits can be readily exceeded.

38
Q

How often must the DD Form 365-4 be checked for accuracy?

A

At least every 90 days.

39
Q

When must aircraft be weighed?

A

When:

  • Overhaul or major airframe repairs are accomplished.
  • Modifications of one percent or greater of the aircraft’s basic weight are applied.
  • Any modifications for which the weight and center-of-gravity cannot be accurately comuted.
  • Records are suspected to be in error.
  • The period since previous weigh reaches 24 months (Class 2 aircraft).
40
Q

What are the PC’s responsibilities in regards to ALSE?

A

The PC must ensure that ALSE comensurate with the mission and operational environment is available and crew and passengers are briefed on its location and use.

41
Q

When must supplemental oxygen be used?

A
  • Over 10000 feet for one hour.
  • Over 12000 feet for 30 minutes.
  • Over 14000 feet for any time period.
  • Prebreathing must be accomplished for flights over 18000 feet.
42
Q

What protective clothing must be worn by all crewmembers?

A
  • Flight helmet
  • Flight suit
  • Flight gloves
  • Cotton, wool, or nomex undergarmets
  • Identification tags
  • Leather boots
43
Q

What is the minimum required ALSE?

A
  • Extraction device
  • First aid kit
  • Approved survival knife
  • Fire starter
  • Signaling device