4-2 SOP

Question 1

How long do aviators have to turn in their IFRF and IATF upon arriving in the unit?

Answer 1

14 calendar days. (App. 2, A, 1)

Question 2

Within how long must new aviators have an RL level designated?

Answer 2

Within 45 days of assignment to the unit. (App. 2, A, 3)

Question 3

Who is the approving authority for a 30 day ATP extension?

Answer 3

The Battalion Commander. (App. 2, A, 5)

Question 4

What FAC positions and minimums must be assigned within three years of graduation from flight school.

Answer 4

Aviators must be assigned FAC 1 or FAC 2 positions and will be assessed FAC 1 flying hours minimums. (App. 2, B, 1)

Question 5

What flight tasks may personnel perform without a flight physical and up-slip?

Answer 5

None. Personnel will not perform any type of aircraft cockpit duties without a current flight physical and an up-slip. (App. 2, C, 1, b)

Question 6

What are the 4-2 ARB semiannual minimums?

Answer 6

• 9 NVD hours
  
  • 3 hours each NVS and NVG
• 2 hours night unaided
• 3 hours hood/weather
• 2 hours of EP training

(App. 2, C, 9)

Question 7

Must all tasks marked with a “D” in the ATM be evaluated in day mode?

Answer 7

No. Tasks need only be evaluated in the mode demanding mode, NVD. Those tasks marked N or NVG must also be evaluted in those modes. (App 2, D, 6)

Question 8

What are the 4-2 ARB closeout procedures?

Answer 8

• Closeout must be completed within 10 days after the end of the birth month.
• The 2408-12 must be reviewed on the 1st of the month and any discrepancies corrected NLT the 5th.
• If the closeout is not completed by the 10th the Aviator will not be able to fly till it is completed.

Question 9

What type of flashlight must be used to preflight in darkness?

Answer 9

A flashlight with a clear lens. (App. 3, A, 1)

Question 10

May aided and unaided aircraft fly in the same formation?

Answer 10

No. (App. 3, A, 2)

Question 11

What visual signals may be used to indicate radio failure at night?

Answer 11

Anti-collision lights to white momentarily or flash position lights on and off bright. (App. 3, A, 7)

Question 12

When is NOE NVD flight authorized?

Answer 12

On approved NVD training routes, in helicopter training areas, or when a hazard recon has been completed within 72 hours. (App. 3, A, 9)

Question 13

When may aircraft operate single ship at night?

Answer 13

• When on published routes.
• When in control zones with an operational control tower.
• In the MTFV and TTA.
• When under positive ATC control.
• When transitioning between published routing and approved airfields or training areas.

(App. 3, B, 1)

Question 14

What are the TADS/PNVS requirements for night flight?

Answer 14

The TADS and PNVS will be on, operatinal, and fully adjusted for use during all NVD flights. (App. 3, D, 1)

Question 15

May aviators substitute NVGs for an inoperative TADS or PNVS?

Answer 15

No. The TADS/PNVS remain the primary night vision system on the AH-64D. Aviators will not take off on an NVD mission with an inoperative TADS or PNVS. (App. 3, E, 2)

Question 16

May supplemental lighting by used during NVG flights?

Answer 16

Yes. Use of supplemental lighting (lip lights, finger lights, flash lights, chemical lights, etc.) is authorized provided such lighting does not degrade the NVGs. (App. 3, E, 4)

Question 17

What lighting is prohibited in the cockpit during NVG operations?

Answer 17

Red or white lighting will not be used in the cockpit during NVG operations. (App. 3, E, 5)

Question 18

May the PLT and CPG fly NVGs simultaneously?

Answer 18

No. NVS remains the primary night sensor and both NVS systems will be on, tested, and operational for all NVG flights. (App. 3, E, 6)

Question 19

May IHADSS GUN shots be made under NVGs?

Answer 19

No. Use of NVGs as the sensor when firing IHADSS GUN is prohibited. (App. 3, E, 6)

Question 20

How does the 4-2 SOP define terrain flight?

Answer 20

Below 200’ AHO day and below 500’ AHO night. (App. 4, A, 1)

Question 21

When may terrain flight be performed?

Answer 21

Only when it is authorized in the mission briefing (DA Form 5484-R) and when in an authorized terrain flight area as defined in the 4-2 SOP. (App. 4, A, 1)

Question 22

What is the minimum altitude for CMF?

Answer 22

Combat Maneuvering Flight will not be conducted below 200’ AGL. (App. 4, A, 2)

Question 23

What are the PC responsibilities in regards to hazard maps?

Answer 23

The PC is responsible for validating hazard maps and ensuring they are carried in the cockpit and used during flight. (App. 4, A, 4)

Question 24

When may aircrews descend below the 200’ AGL day and 500’ AGL night minimum flight altitudes?

Answer 24

When lower is required for weather avoidance. (App. 4, B)

Question 25

Before conducting tactical flight operations outside approved training areas what must be accomplished?

Answer 25

• A flight reconnaisance has been accomplished during the day within 72 hours.
• Primary and alternate routes have been reconned.
• All wires and obstacles within 1 km of the route noted.
• Hazards in vicinity of PZ/LZs, BP, ABFs, SBFs, EAs, FARPs, HAs, and any place were hovering operations will occur are identified and plotted.
• Aviators are briefed on hazards prior to flying route.
• Hazards are plotted on aviators’ maps and entered into AMPS if possible.

(App. 4, C)

Question 26

At what point may the P take the controls if the P* has not identified a wire hazard?

Answer 26

If the P* has not identified the hazard by 100 m he must stop the aircraft, climb for clearance, or the P may take the controls.

Question 27

What are the PC’s responsibilities when clearing an aircraft after live fire?

Answer 27

• Bolt to the rear and breach empty.
• Carrier observed while cycled for three continuous cycles.
• Rocket pods visually inspected.

(App. 5, N, 1)

Question 28

How may instrument training be completed?

Answer 28

Either in the aircraft or LCT. (App. 6, B, 1)

Question 29

What actions should be taken when IIMC?

Answer 29

• IIMC recovery per the ATM.
• Transition to the flight page as soon as possible.
• Comply with local IIMC recovery procedures.
• The P should be prepared to talk the P* through the recovery, copy clearances, assist with the cross check, or take the controls as required.

(App. 6, C)

Question 30

How will a flight conduct an IIMC breakup?

Answer 30

• Each aircraft will turn 10 degrees times their gun number to the briefed side.
• The formation will stack down in 500’ increments from the lead aircraft.
  
  • The reverse stack (stacking up) will not be used.
• Aircraft remaining VMC will maintain VMC.

(App. 6, D, 2)

Question 31

When must IIMC prodecures be briefed?

Answer 31

• All multi-aircraft flights.
• Single ship flights anytime the ceiling is visibility are forecast to be less than 3000’ and 3 miles.

(App. 6, D, 4)

Question 32

What are the Korea transponder requirements?

Answer 32

At a minimum, one aircraft per flight will have an installed, operational, and properly loaded IFF system to include modes 1, 2, 3, and 4. All aircraft entering the P518 will have all modes filled and operational. (App. 7, E, 1, a)

Question 33

What is the minimum crew to operate engines (no intent to fly)?

Answer 33

At least a PC and an RL2 aviator. (App. 9, A, 6)

Question 34

May RL2 or RL3 aviators operate the APU?

Answer 34

Only RL1 aviators and RL2 MTPs are authorized to operate the APU. (App. 9, A, 7)

Question 35

Define multi-aircraft operations.

Answer 35

The movement of two or more aircraft in one or more formations. (App. 10, A, 1)

Question 36

Define formation flight.

Answer 36

A flight in which two or more aircraft are operating in such proximity that the others must duplicate movement of the lead aircraft. (App. 10, A, 2)

Question 37

What are the only call-out items that must be acknowledged by a flight?

Answer 37

In flight hazards. Aircraft will respond in gun order. (App. 10, B, 2)

Question 38

What are the prefered formations for formation flight?

Answer 38

• Above 200’ AHO - combat cruise at 45º with 500-1000’ separation.
  
  • Seperation may be reduced in an ATC environment.
• Below 200’ AHO - combat cruise.
• Below 80’ AHO - combat cruise and combat spread are the only authorized formations.

(App. 10, C)

Question 39

Who is authorized to fly in the LCT?

Answer 39

Only aviators assigned to the ATP. The Battalion Commander may authorize others when an SP/IP/IE/UT is operating the I/O station. (App. 11, B, 2, b)

Question 40

What training requirements may be met in the LCT?

Answer 40

• Night unaided.
• Hood.
• NVS currency (IAW ATM).
• RL Progression.
• INST APART evaluation.
• CBRN training and evaluation.

(App. 11, B, 2, d)

Question 41

Who must attend the pilot briefs?

Answer 41

They will be attended by everyone, excused only by the BN CDR (App. 12, C, 3)

Question 42

When must aviators read the Aircrew Information Reading File?

Answer 42

Prior to the first flight of the month or by the 5th day of the month, whichever comes first. (App. 13, B, 4)

Question 43

What are the over-water currency requirements?

Answer 43

• Sea Mk II (HEED) – annually
• Shallow Water Egrees Trainer (SWET) — with annual HEED training
• Modular Egress Training System (METS) — every four years

(App. 14, B, 1, a)

Question 44

What are the minimum over-water altitudes?

Answer 44

100’ AGL day and 200’ AGL night. The low bug will be set at stated altitude. Rates of descent will not exceed current AGL altitude. (App. 14, C, 2)

Question 45

What are the over-water weather minimums?

Answer 45

1000’ ceiling and 3 miles visibility. No reduction authorized. (App. 14, C, 4)

Question 46

How far from a Safe Landing Area may aircraft fly single ship over-water?

Answer 46

No more than five minutes. (App. 14, C, 5)

Question 47

When is the mustang suit required?

Answer 47

• Water temp:
  
  • < 60º F — suits mandatory.
  • 60-70º F — BN CDR’s discretion.
  • > 70º F — PC’s discretion.

(App. 14, C, 8)

Question 48

What gear is required to fly over-water?

Answer 48

• Mustang suit (water temperature dependent).
• Air Warrior extraction vest.
• Flotation collar.
• HEED bottle.
• Life raft (in cockpit).

Question 49

Where will weather briefs be obtained from?

Answer 49

From the 607th OWS at Camp Humphreys. (App. 15, A)

Question 50

How often will weather be updated?

Answer 50

Aircrews will attempt to update weather every two hours and at each stop on stop over flight plans. Missions need not be aborted due to inability to update weather while en-route. (App. 15, B)

Question 51

What actions will aircrews take if a Weather Warning (WW) or Area Weather Advisory (AWA) is issued with weather worse than:

• Ceiling or visibility less than VFR/SVFR minimums.
• Surface wind of 35-44 knots.
• Hail
• Lightning observed within 5 miles.
• Wind chill below -20º F (-29º C).

Answer 51

Aircrews will plan to terminate the flight one hour prior to the effective time unless Battalion Commander approval has been received. (App. 15, C, 1, b)

Question 52

When will flight operations be suspended and aircraft hangered?

Answer 52

When a WW, AWA, or forecast indicates:

• Tornado watch is in effect.
• Surface wind ≥ 45 knots.
• Hail ½ inch or greater.
• Receipt of a tropical storm COR 2 alert.

Question 53

What are the minimum items required in the cockpit for flight?

Answer 53

• Uniform IAW AR 95-1, Chapter 8.
• RMM, operational and installed.
• DTC with current BN load.
• 4-2 ARB APG.
• DOD FLIP (PAC VOL 2 App Plate, FIH, VFR Arr/Dep, ROK VFR Arr/Dep)
• 1:50,000 map with current hazard information.
  
  • (for all areas performing terrain flight)
• 1:250,000 JOG
  
  • (with prefered route structure)
• 1:50,000 P518 special map
  
  • (if operating in the P518)

(App. 16, C)

Question 54

When must a mission be terminated or re-briefed and approved?

Answer 54

• When conditions encountered change the FMAA level originally approved.
• When there is a change in crewmember.
• When there is a change of mission.
• When there are significant changes to the previously briefed mission.

(App. 17, B/C)

Question 55

When may a VOCO mission briefing or mission approval be used?

Answer 55

VOCOs are the exception not the standard and must be kept to a minimum. (App. 17, C, 2)

Question 56

What will a PC flight evaluation include?

Answer 56

• Standardization NVD APART tasks.
• Selected instrument tasks.
• Combat Maneuvering Flight.
• Flight into an airfield other than KSG.
• IIMC with full recovery.

(App. 19, F, 1)

Question 57

When must the recorder be used?

Answer 57

ALL flights are required to be recorded for the entire flight if the video recorder is installed and operational. If the VCR is installed and operational an RMM will be installed and recording the entire flight. (App. 22, 1/2)