Ch 2 (Systems) (Part 1) Flashcards
Up to page 2-61.
The AH 64D is a ___-___ main rotor system with ___ lead-lag dampeners.
Fully articulated
Elastomeric
The AH 64D tail rotor is a ___-___ design.
Semi rigid.
What is the diameter of the main rotor?
48 feet
How long is the AH 64D from the back tip of the tail rotor to the forward tip of the main rotor?
58 feet, 1 inch
How tall is the AH 64D from the ground to the top of the whip antenna?
17 feet, 6 inches
What is the turning radius of the AH 64D?
37 feet, 6 inches
During canopy jettison, how far can fragments travel?
Up to 50 feet.
What height should the seats be adjusted to during all flight operations? Why?
Boresight level for MPD viewing angles
The shoulder harness lock will engage with an accelerative force of __ Gs. If the webbing is exposed to an acceleration of __ Gs, the harnesses will remain locked until the lock is moved from the forward to aft position again.
6, 2.5
Should polarized sunglasses be worn in the A/C?
No, makes shit appear black.
When on the APU and power levers OFF, the MPDs will enter a screen-saving function if no buttons have been pressed within the preceding ___ minutes.
5 minutes.
Changing the map scale on the TSD page affects only the control and display of the map scale on that MPD (T/F)
True
When either MPD is in MONO mode, labels which are shown in red or yellow are depicted how?
Bold
What does a white triangle next to a button selection on an MPD mean?
That a command failed.
If data is invalid or missing on an MPD, what symbol (and color) will appear?
White question mark.
What page does the helicopter default to when there is a warning with an audio message?
Engine page
What are the two conditions where the ENG page will not autopage to the left MPD?
When an ENG page is on the right MPD
When there is a FLT page on the left MPD
What pages are displayed when the following actions are taken:
EMERG HYD button
Sight Select FCR
ENG start
ENG
FCR
ENG
What is a way to quickly move your cursor from one MPD to another?
Double-bumping
When will the cursor be automatically stowed in the lower left hand side of the MPD?
After 3 minutes
Selecting MASTER OFF on the COM -> INIT -> MSN page will turn off what components ?
FCR, TADS and PNVS to OFF
IDM and DTU to STBY
Mode 4 codes will be dropped after how long without power? Following the selection of the button, how long must the A/C be in the air before the button must be selected again?
20 seconds, 60 seconds
What is the purpose of IDM INHIBIT?
Prevent automatic message transmits
How many characters can be stored on one line of the keyboard unit (scratch pad)?
44 total, 22 displayed on the KU at one time
How do you reset the timer on the EUFD?
By holding the timer button by more than 2 seconds.
What are the four sections of the engine?
Hot, Cold, Accessory, Powertrain
What components are mounted on the Cold section of the ENG?
DECU, history recorder, ignition system
What components are mounted to the Powertrain section of the ENG?
The thermocouple harness, TQ and overspeed sensor, and Np sensor.
How does the engine remove particles from the air as it passes through the Cold section?
The swirl frame swirling action uses centrifugal force. Those particles are then dumped out of a nozzle.
When will the ENG anti-ice system be manually selected ON?
When there is visible moisture and the FAT is less than +5*C
What type of fuel pump exists on the ENGs?
Suction
When you see ENG ## FUEL BYPASS, what does that mean?
The filter element detects differential pressure, which indicates impending bypass.
What is the purpose of the HMU? What are the overspeed parameters?
Meter the fuel to the combustor to control Ng speed. 110%, plus or minus 2. It cuts off fuel flow to the cumbustor, which causes the engine to shut down.
What kind of inputs does the HMU respond to?
Mechanical inputs from the Power Available and Load Demand spindles.
What is the purpose of the ODV?
Responds to a signal from the DECU, which causes a solenoid to close, thus routing fuel back to the HMU. The engine will NOT automatically restart.
What functions does the DECU provide?
Load sharing / Tq matching (contingency power enabled below 51%)
Torque spike suppression below 35% Np
Alternate power from the opposite engine’s alternator or by GEN power.
Hot start prevention (TGT greater than 900*C)
Max TQ Rate Attenuator
TGT Limiting
Fault Code validation
What spindles does the Alternator provide?
What indication will be lost when the Alternator is lost?
- Ng
- Ignition
- DECU
Ng will be lost.
How long will the ENG be able to provide emergency oil lubrication? Where does the oil come from?
30 seconds at 75% Ng
The oil comes from sump A & B and are pushed to engine bearings by air jets.
What is the purpose of the liquid-to-liquid cooler?
Transfers heat from the oil to the fuel
What type of chip detector gives you the ENG ## CHIPS caution?
Integral magnet and a electrical connector
What are the sources of air for ENG starts?
- APU bleed air
- Opposite ENG bleed air
- Externally connected ground source
At what % Ng goes the ATS shut off?
52%
What provides bleed air for ENG starts?
The APU
The opposite ENG provides bleed air pressure until the other ENG reaches what % Ng?
95%
How much fuel is located in the FWD and AFT fuel cells?
156 FWD
220 AFT
The use of JP4 fuel is prohibited during external aux tank operation above ___* F ambient.
80
The Internal Aux Fuel System (IFAS/Robbie Tank) has two configurations: ___ gal and ___ gal.
130
100
What is the configuration of the cross-feed valve?
Three-way, four-position valve.
What type of fuel pump is located on the Aft fuel cell?
It is pneumatically driven boost pump that pressurizes the fuel line out of the aft fuel cell.
The FWD/AFT FUEL CELL caution is illuminated below how many pounds per tank?
240 FWD
260 AFT
Where does the APU draw its fuel from?
The aft fuel cell and it provides pressurized fuel to the APU. The APU shutoff valve controls the flow of fuel from the aft cell to the APU via the boost pump.
The NIU serves what function?
The NIU is automatically operated when what is available?
Fills the ullages (airspace) with oxygen-depleted air. It purges 70% of the oxygen present (less than 9%).
It is automatically operated whenever pressurized air and 115Vac are available.
Auto-leveling to the Aft tank begins when? (7 total)
- ) ENG 1 or 2 running
- ) APU or ENG bleed air is on
- ) Aft fuel level 500lbs and is >50lbs more than aft fuel quantity
- ) If FWD fuel quantity >500 lbs and >100 lbs more than the aft fuel quantity
When will auto leveling to the AFT fuel cell stop? (3 total)
- ) FWD fuel low level caution
- ) Fuel split <20lbs
- ) APU off and bleed air off.
Auto-leveling to the Fwd tank begins when? (7 total)
- ) ENG 1 or 2 running
- ) APU or ENG bleed air is on
- ) FWD fuel level 500lbs and is >50lbs more than FWD fuel quantity
- ) If AFT fuel quantity >500 lbs and >100 lbs more than the FWD fuel quantity
When will auto leveling to the FWD fuel cell stop? (4 total)
- ) AFT fuel low level caution
- ) Fuel split >20 lbs
- ) FWD tank is full
- ) APU is off and the bleed air is off
The crossfeed will be set to ___ at all times unless executing EPs. A malfunctioning crossfeed valve could result in a…
NORM
Single ENG flameout
The time remaining in the Fuel END window will be displayed in what color below how many minutes remaining?
White, 20 minutes
Do the ERFS tanks have any bollistic protection?
No. It can cause a fuel driven fuselage fire or cause the tank to detonate.
What functions does the FMC provide (6 total)
Rate damping Attitude hold Altitude hold Turn coordination Command augmentation Heading hold
How does collective control inputs affect the fuel flow from the HMU?
Collective inputs are transmitted to the servo for controlling the main rotor blade pitch angle and to the load demand spindle of each ENG’s HMU for load anticipation.
What are the 3 modes of the stabilator?
Auto
NOE/A
Manual
When is SCAS engaged?
Following EGI allignment
How is the stabilator angle displayed in manual mode?
White with no airspeed
How is the stabilator displayed when it is detectred as failed?
Yellow with the limiting KTAS for the current position.
When is the stabilator position and KTAS displayed in red?
When the KTAS limit is exceeded
What is displayed when the stabilator position is unknown?
Stabilator icon with KTAS equivalent of 90 KIAS.
The stabilator is displayed how when it is in a failed mode and position is unknown?
A “?” in red just above the stabilator icon.
What are the stabilator limits?
-10* up to +35* down
What % actuator authority does SAS have?
+/- 10% in roll, yaw, and collective
+20 to -10% in pitch
When will the FORCE TRIM INTRPT caution display?
A/C on the ground Force trim powered on Nr > or = 60% Tq < or = 20% Force trim interrupted for 4, 8, or 12 seconds.
What systems make up SCAS?
Stabilization system
Command system
Hold modes
What are the parameters for velocity hold?
From 5 to 40 knots ground speed (30 kts when decelerating)
What are the parameters for position hold?
Ground speed up to 5 knots
What are the parameters for attitude hold?
Ground speed above 40 knots and decreasing down to 30 knots ground speed.
Pitch attitude less than +/- 30 degrees
Roll attitude less than +/- 60 degrees
Pitch/roll rates are less than 5 degrees per second.
When will you receive the HOVER DRIFT advisory?
When the A/C has drifted one whole rotor diameter (48 feet) and the hold mode is engaged.
What are the breakout values for attitude hold?
Pitch/roll displacement greater than/equal to .25 inches
Collective placement greater than/equal to .50 inches
Pedal placement depends on the hold submode as follows:
- Position hold: greater than/equal to .1 inch
- Velocity hold: greater than/equal to .2 inches
- Attitude hold: greater than/equal to .3 inches
What are the parameters for Radar Altitude hold?
- Groundspeed between 0 and 40 kts
- Altitude between 0 and 1428” AGL.
When will the aircraft use barometric altitude hold instead of radar altitude hold?
Whenever the aircraft is outside any of the parameters for radar altitude hold.
What are the parameters for Barometric Altitude hold?
Greater than 1428” AGL and 40 kts ground speed.
What rates of climb and decent are allowed for Radar Altitude and Barometric Hold?
Between 5 and 40 kts ground speed, less than 200 fpm
For ground speeds between 40-60 kts, 200-400 fpm
When will the ALT Drift advisory be displayed?
Barometric: greater than 100 feet
Radar: 5 feet deviation at 10 feet to 100 feet at 1400 feet.
When will altitude hold automatically disengage?
Collective movement greater than .5 inches from the reference position
Rotor speed > 104%
Rotor speed < 97%
Either engine torque exceeds 100%
Either engine TGT exceeds 867* C
During a BUCS jam, the worst case scenario, there will be a ___% aft control authority from the point of the jam. The yaw axis may be limited to +/- ___% from the point of the jam. If flight control authority is insufficient for a hover, attempt a _____.
12
25
Run-on landing.
How might one clear an erroneous BUCS message>
Applying HYD power and completing an FMC IBIT
If an ARDD is rolled during a control force fight, will the crew be allotted the same three seconds it would be allotted during a normal BUCS jam?
Negatron
Describe BUCS.
It is a single-channel, non-redundant, fly-by-wire system that can electronically operate all four control axes. The controls respond the same as they would in SAS-off flight
What two systems must be operational for the FMC to operate?
PRI HYD and FMC
What do LVDT and RVDT stand for? What do they track?
Linear Variable Displacement Transducer, senses mistracks and send control movement information to the FMC.
Rotary Variable Displacement Transducer, sense a decoupling of the ARDDs.
How long does the crew have to neutralize the controls after a jam? A severance?
3 seconds, 1 second
What happens if the CPG creates too small of a mistrack before pulling the BUCS trigger?
Nada
What does a BUCS FAIL message indicate on the EUFD?
BUCS is in a failed state.
What does a BUCS FAIL (axis) message indicate on the EUFD?
Severance between the crewstations. The PLT is still mechanically linked. The CPG will have to create a mistrack to assume the controls. However, there is no subsequent transfer after that.
What does a BUCS ON PLT (axis) message indicate on the EUFD?
Severance aft of the crewstations. To transfer the controls, nothing special needs to be done - controls are still mechanically linked.
What does a BUCS ON (station) (axis) message indicate on the EUFD?
Jam in one of the flight control axis’s. The crewmember who rolls the ARDD has the control of the axis.
What systems will still be available after rolling the ARDD during a Jam when the PLT is flying?
SAS will be off in the engaged axis
Force trim will be on in all axis.
Hold modes will be available in the axes that SAS is available.
What systems will be available during a severance aft of the crewstation when the PLT is flying?
SAS will be off
Force Trim will be on in all axes
Hold modes will be available where there is still SAS.
What systems will be available during a severance between the crewstations when the PLT is flying?
Force trim will not be available to the CPG in the severed axis
CPG controls will not follow the PLTs
SAS will be off in the severed axis
Hold modes will be available where there is SAS
What systems will be available during a jam when the CPG is flying?
SAS and Force Trim will be off in the engaged axis
Hold modes will be available in the axis where SAS is available.
What systems will be available during a severance aft of the crewstations when the CPG is flying?
SAS will be off in the affected axis
Force trim will be on in all axes
Hold modes will be available in the axes that SAS is available.
What systems will be available during a severance between the crewstations with the CPG flying?
SAS and force trim will be off in the affected axis
Hold modes will be available in the axes where SAS is available
Force trim feel will not be available to the CPG in the severed axis.
