Finals: Exam 2 Review Flashcards

1
Q

Muscle fibers are similar to other cells except are

A

a. Multinucleate and striated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Includes the single synaptic ending of the motor neuron innervating each muscle fiber and underlying specialization of sarcolemma

A

a. Neuromuscular junction NMJ

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Place on sarcolemma where NMJ occurs

A

a. Motor end plate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Includes each motor neuron and all fibers it innervates

A

a. Motor unit

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

T or f When a motor neuron is activated, all muscle fibers in its motor unit contract

A

a. True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Fine movement occur when

A

a. Motor units are small

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Gross movement occur when motor units are

A

a. Large

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Since individual motor units fire “ all or none” how do skeletal muscles perform smooth movements

A

a. Recruitment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

_____ are composed of thick and thin filaments that give rise to bands which underlie striations

A

a. Myofilaments

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Muscle contracts because myofibrils get shorter and it Occurs because thin filaments slide over and between thick filaments

A

a. Sliding filament theory of contraction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

After binding myosin undergoes conformational change ____ (thin slide over thick filament) which exerts force on actin

A

a. Power stroke

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Cross bridges are formed by

A

a. Heads of myosin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Control of cross bridge attachment to actin is via _______ which serves as a switch for muscle contraction and relaxation

A

a. Troponin-tropomyosin system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Ca2+ levels decrease because it is continuously pumped back into _______ (a calcium reservoir in muscle)

A

a. Sarcoplasmic reticulum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Release of Ach at NMJ causes

A

a. Large depolarizing end-plate potentials and Aps in muscle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Ca++ channels in SR are mechanically channels on T tubules an dAPs in T tubules cause release of Ca++ from cisternae via V-gated Ca++ release channels called

A

a. Electromechanical release

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Single rapid contraction and relaxation of muscle fibers

A

a. Twitch

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

If 2nd stimulus occurs before muscle relaxes from 1st, the 2nd twitch will be greater

A

a. Summation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

If muscle is stimulated by an increasing frequency of electrical shocks, its tension will increase to a maximum

A

a. Incomplete tetanus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

If frequency is so fast no relaxation occurs, a smooth sustained contraction result

A

a. Complete tetanus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

If muscle is repeatedly stimulated with maximum voltage to produce individual twitches , successive twitches get larger

A

a. Treppe or staircase effect

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Largest part of brain (80 % mass) and is responsible for higher mental functions

A

a. Cerebrum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Each hemisphere of cerebrum has 5 lobes

A

a. Frontal
b. parietal
c. temporal
d. occipital
e. insula

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Outermost portion of cerebrum with numerous folds and grooves = convolutions

A

a. Cerebral cortex

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

An elevated fold is called

A

a. Gyrus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Frontal lobe is separated from parietal lobe by a deep fissure called

A

a. Central sulcus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

_____ of frontal lobe is involved in motor control

A

a. Precentral gyrus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

_____ of parietal lobe receives sensory info from areas controlled by precentral gyrus

A

a. Postcentral gyrus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Contains auditory centers; receives sensory info from cochlea and also links and processes auditory and visual info

A

a. Temporal lobe

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Responsible for vision and coordination of eye movement

A

a. Occipital lobe

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Plays role in memory encoding; integrates sensory info with visceral responses; coordinates cardiovascular response to stress

A

a. Insula

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

involves complex computer manipulation obtained from x-ray absorption of tissues of different densities; visualizes soft tissues at different depths

A

a. x-ray computed tomography CT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

uses radioisotopes that emit positrons injected into the blood stream; positrons collide with electrons causing the emission of gamma rays that can be detected and indicate the most active areas of the brain; is used to examine brain metabolism & blood flow, drug distribution (allows to see blood flow in brain)

A

a. Positron-emission tomography PET

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

protons (H+) can be controlled by magnetic fields and emit detectable radio-wave signals when stimulated; shows brain function

A

a. Magnetic resonance imaging MRI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Measures electrical activity of cerebral cortex; used to diagnose epilepsy & brain death (least dangerous)

A

a. Electroencephalogram EEG)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Ability to remember facts and events

A

a. Declarative memory

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Perceptual and motor skills

A

a. Nondeclarative memory

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

The consolidation of S-T into L-T memory is the function of the _______ = hippocampus, amygdaloid nucleus, and adjacent areas of cerebral cortex

A

a. Medial temporal lobe (MTL)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Is critical for acquiring new memories and consolidating short-into long-term memory

A

a. Hippocampus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Crucial for fear memories

A

a. Amygdala

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Removal of the left MTL impairs the consolidation of

A

a. Short term verbal memories

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Increased sustained excitability of a synapse after initial high frequency stimulation

A

a. Long term potential LTP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Hippocampus contains neural stem cells that may produce new neurons

A

a. Neurogenesis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Stress or depression impede learning and cause

A

a. Hippocampus to shrink

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Contains several nuclei of cranial nerves and 2 important respiratory control centers = apneustic and pneumotaxic

A

a. Pons

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

2nd larges structure in brain; receives input from proprioceptors; involved in coordinating movements and motor learning

A

a. Cerebellum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Contains all tract that pass between brain and spinal cord, many nuclei of cranial nerves, and several curual centers for breathing and cardiovascular system

A

a. Medulla

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Complex network of nuclei and fibers spanning medulla, pons, midbrain, and thalamus, and hypothalamus; functions as reticular activating system

A

a. Reticular formation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Sets level of arousal of cerebral cortex to incoming sensory information

A

a. Reticular formation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Manages our physiology by regulating cardiac and smooth muscles and glands that are not under voluntary control

A

a. Autonomic nervous system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Neurons that conduct impulses away from CNS

A

a. Motor efferent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Have cell bodies in CNS and send axons to skeletal muscle for voluntary control (sensory neuron  CNS  motor output neurons  effector organ)

A

a. Somatic pathway

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

(sensory neuron –> CNS –> preganglionic neuron –> postganglionic neuron –> effector organ)

A

a. Autonomic pathway

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Without innervation skeletal muscle is

A

a. Paralyzed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Smooth muscle and cardiac muscle maintain resting tone in absence of nerve stimulation; becomes move sensitive when ANS input is cut

A

a. Denervation hypersensitivity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Originate in the spinal cord between thoracic and lumbar levels

A

a. Preganglionic fibers of sympathetic division

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Mediates “fight, flight, and stress” reactions mostly trough the release of norepinephrine from postganglionic fibers and epinephrine from the adrenal medulla

A

a. Sympathetic division

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Originate in the brain and in the sacral levels of the spinal cord

A

a. Preganglionic fibers of parasympathetic division

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Mediates “rest and digest” reactions through the release of Ach from postganglionic fibers

A

a. Parasympathetic division

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Sympathetic division of the ANS is also called _____ because its preganglionic neurons exit spinal cord from t1 to L2

A

a. Thoracolumbar division

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Most sympathetic fibers separate from somatic motor neurons and synapse on postganglionic neurons within a double row of ganglia called

A

a. Paravertebral ganglia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

Paravertebral ganglia Form chain of interconnected ganglia paralleling spinal cord called the

A

a. Sympathetic chain of ganglia

63
Q

Myelinated preganglionic sympathetic axons exit the spinal cord in the ventral roots of spinal nerves but diverge within short pathways called

A

a. White rami communicantes

64
Q

Axons of postganglionic neurons are unmyelinated and from the _____ as they return to spinal nerves

A

a. Gray rami communicantes

65
Q

Divergence and convergence together cause the sympathetic division to mostly act as a unit

A

a. Mass activation

66
Q

Outer adrenal glands secrete

A

a. Steroid hormones

67
Q

Inner adrenal medulla secretes

A

a. Mostly 85% epinephrine (adrenaline) and norepinephrine (15%)

68
Q

_____ appears to be a modified sympathetic ganglion because it has the same embryonic origin as the postganglionic sympathetic neurons

A

a. Adrenal medulla

69
Q

Parasympathetic division of the ANS is also called ______ because long preganglionic parasympathetic fibers originate in midbrain, medulla, pons and 2nd – 4th region of spinal column

A

a. Craniosacral division

70
Q

Preganglionic parasympathetic fibers synapse on postganglionic parasympathetic fibers in parasympathetic ganglia called _______ located next to or within target organ

A

a. Terminal ganglia

71
Q

Cutaneous effectors (sweat glands, blood vessels, arrector pili receive

A

a. Sympathetic innervation

72
Q

The _______ carries most parasympathetic fibers and synapse in terminal ganglia spread throughout the body (innervates heart, lungs, esophagus, stomach, pancreas, liver, small intestine and and upper half of the large intestine)

A

a. long vagus nerve X

73
Q

parasympathetic postganglionic fibers also release Ach called

A

a. cholinergic synapses

74
Q

Most postganglionic sympathetic fibers release norepinephrine (noradrenaline) called

A

a. Adrenergic synapse

75
Q

Where postganglionic autonomic neurons enter into their target organs, they have many swellings called varicosities which release NTs along a length of axon that forms unusual synapse called

A

a. Synapses en passant

76
Q

Drugs that promote actions of a NT

A

a. Agonist

77
Q
  1. Drugs that inhibit actions of a NT
A

a. Antagonist

78
Q

Are stimulated by nicotine and Ach and are always excitatory; located in NMJs and autonomic ganglia

A

a. Nicotinic receptors

79
Q

Stimulated by Ach and muscarine and can be excitatory or inhibitory

A

a. Muscarinic receptors

80
Q

Some postganglionic neurons Appear to use ATP, VIP and NO and do not use norepinephrine or Ach

A

a. Nonadrenergic noncholinergic fibers

81
Q

Cause similar effects such as with salivation

A

a. Complementary

82
Q

Produce different effects that work together to cause desired effect…eg reproductive system

A

a. Cooperative or synergistic

83
Q

Adrenal medulla, arrector pili muscle, sweat glands, and most blood vessels receive only

A

a. Sympathetic innervation

84
Q

Most directly controls activity of ANS by receiving afferent information via CNX (vagus)

A

a. Medulla oblongata

85
Q

Has centers for control of cardiovascular, pulmonary, urinary, reproductive, and digestive systems

A

a. Medulla oblongata

86
Q

Has centers for control of body temperature, hunger, thirst, the pituitary gland, the cerebral cortex and limbic system (emotions), and can regulate medulla oblongata

A

a. Hypothalamus

87
Q

Is responsible for visceral responses that reflect emotional states

A

a. Limbic system

88
Q

Transduce (change) environmental information into Aps

A

a. Sensory receptors

89
Q

Sense chemical stimuli (taste buds, olfactory receptors)

A

a. Chemoreceptors

90
Q

Transduce light (rods and cones)

A

a. Photoreceptors

91
Q

Respond to temperature changes (heat and cold)

A

a. Thermoreceptors

92
Q

Respond to deformation of their cell membrane (touch, pressure, hair cells of inner ear)

A

a. Mechanoreceptors

93
Q

Respond to intense stimuli by signaling pain

A

a. Nociceptor

94
Q

Signal positional information of body parts (join receptors, Golgi tendons, muscle spindles)

A

a. Proprioceptors

95
Q

Near an epithelial surface (respond to touch, pressure, temperature or pain)

A

a. Cutaneous receptors

96
Q

Respond at constant rate as long as stimulus is applied eg pain

A

a. Tonic receptors

97
Q

Respond with burst of activity but quickly reduce firing rate to constant stimulation

A

a. Phasic receptors

98
Q

Responsible for sensory adaptation (smell and touch)

A

a. Phasic receptors

99
Q

In phasic receptors the _______ adapts to a constant stimulus and quickly diminishes in amplitude

A

a. Generator potential

100
Q

Cutaneous sensation such as touch, pressure, and heat are mediated by

A

a. Free and encapsulated nerve endings

101
Q

Are slow-adapting, expanded free nerve endings that mediate touch

A

a. Ruffini endings and Merkel’s discs

102
Q

Encapsulated nerve endings mediate touch, pressure and adapt quickly

A

a. Meisner’s and Pacinian corpuscles

103
Q

Minimum distance at which 2 points of touch can be perceived as separate

A

a. Two-point touch threshold

104
Q

CNS process that sharpens sensation; sensory neurons at center of stimulation area inhibit more lateral neurons and object are perceived as single touch with well-defined borders

A

a. Lateral inhibition

105
Q

Smell olfaction receptors are located in ____ at top of nasal cavity

A

a. Olfactory epithelium

106
Q

Receptor cells of olfactory apparatus are bipolar neurons that send axons to

A

a. Olfactory bulb

107
Q

Olfactory apparatus Stem cells that produce new receptor cells every 1-2 months

A

a. Basal cells

108
Q

Sweet and bitter and Odor molecules bind to receptors and act through

A

a. G proteins

109
Q

Provides sense of equilibrium orientation to gravity

A

a. Vestibular apparatus

110
Q

Otolith organs consists of

A

a. Utricle and saccule

111
Q

Vestibular apparatus consists of

A

a. Otolith organs and semicircular canals

112
Q

Utricle and saccule produce info about

A

a. Linear acceleration

113
Q

Semicircular canals oriented in 3 planes give sense of

A

a. Angular (rotational) acceleration

114
Q

Modified epithelial cells and are receptors for hearing and equilibrium

A

a. Hair cells

115
Q

Hair cells contain 20-50 hair like extensions called

A

a. Stereocilia

116
Q

1 Longer hair cell extension

A

a. Kinocilium

117
Q

Utricle and saccule each have a ___ a patch of specialized epithelium containing hair and support cells

A

a. Macula

118
Q

Calcium carbonate crystals that resist change in movements

A

a. Otoliths

119
Q

At base of semicircular canals where sensory hair cells are located

A

a. Crista ampullaris

120
Q

Hair cell process are embedded in gelatinous membrane ____ with higher density than endolymph

A

a. Cupula of crista ampullaris

121
Q

Involuntary oscillations of eyes

A

a. Vestibular nystagmus

122
Q

Loss of equilibrium

A

a. Vertigo

123
Q

Malleus carries vibration to incus, which goes to stapes and to

A

a. Oval window

124
Q

Muscle attached to stapes and provides portion from loud noises

A

a. Stapedius muscle

125
Q

Where sound is transduced

A

a. Organ of corti

126
Q

Pressure waves moving thru cochlear duct create shearing forces between basilar and _____, moving and bending stereocilia

A

a. Tectorial membrane

127
Q

Occurs when transmission of sound waves to oval window is impaired; helped by hearing aids

A

a. Conduction deafness

128
Q

Impaired transmission of nerve impulses; helped by cochlear implants

A

a. Sensorineural deafness

129
Q

A multilayered epithelium consisting of neurons, pigmented epithelium and photoreceptors (rods and cones)

A

a. Retina

130
Q
  1. Axons of retinal neurons gather at ______ (bind spot) and exit eye in optic disc
A

a. Optic disc

131
Q

Part of the external world projected into retina

A

a. Visual field

132
Q

Sharpness’ of vision

A

a. Visual acuity

133
Q

Ability to distinguish (resolve) 2 closely spaced dots

A

a. Resolving power

134
Q

(nearsightedness) image is focused in front of retina because eyeball is too long; object will have to be closer to be seen

A

a. Myopia

135
Q

(farsightedness) image is focused behind retina because eyeball too short; object will have to be further away to be seen

A

a. Hyperopia

136
Q

Cornea or lens is not symmetrical; light is bent unevenly, causing uneven focus

A

a. Astigmatism

137
Q

In dark, photoreceptors release ____ that hyperpolarizes bipolar

A

a. Inhibitory NT

138
Q

Light inhibits photoreceptors from releasing _____, thus stimulating bipolars, which excite ganglionic cells, which transit AP to brain

A

a. Inhibitory NT

139
Q

T or F cGMP keeps Na+ channels open; light converts cGMP to GMP and Na+ channels close

A

a. True

140
Q

Nuclear hormone receptors serve as

A

a. Transcription factors

141
Q

Contractile units of skeletal muscle consisting of components between 2 z disc

A

Sarcomeres

142
Q

In ______ muscle,

______ blocks binding sites on actin so cross bridge cannot occur; occurs when ca++ levels are low

A

Relax; tropomyosin

143
Q

When calcium levels rise, calcium bonds to _____ causing conformational change which moves tropomyosin and exposes binding sites allowing crossbridges and contraction to occur: crossbridges cycles stop when calcium levels decrease

A

Troponin

144
Q

Sensitive to horizontal acceleration

A

Utricle

145
Q

Sensitive to vertical acceleration

A

Saccule

146
Q

Neural stem cells

A

Ependymal cells

147
Q

All cells have a negative internal charge and unequal distribution of ions

A

Resting membrane potential

Result from large anions trapped inside cells

148
Q

Mp becomes more negative than rmp: inhibitory inhibits nerve impulses

A

Hyper polarization

149
Q

Mp returns to RMP

A

Repolarization.

150
Q

VG channels are opened by

A

Depolarization

151
Q

Mao inhibitors

A

Antidepressants

152
Q

Collection of cell bodies outside of cna; located in head neck, abdomen, and parallel to the spinal cord

A

Autonomic ganglion

153
Q

Originate in midbrain hindbrain upper thoracic to 4th sacral level of spinal cord

A

Preganglionic fibers

154
Q

Some preganglionic neurons that exit the spinal cord below the diaphragm do not synapse in the sympathetic chain of ganglia. Beyond the sympathetic chain these preganglionic fibers form

A

Sphancnic nerves and synapse in collateral ganglion (preventral ganglia)