Final: Exam 1 Review Flashcards
1
Q
increases and decreases activity of the effectors
A
integrating center
2
Q
which is not included in the negative feedback loop?
a. blood sugar
b. temperature
c. most common feedback loop
d. blood clotting
A
d. blood clotting
3
Q
which is the healthier fatty acid, saturated or unsaturated?
A
unsaturated
4
Q
what is in between two amino acid/proteins?
amino acids are linked by?
A
peptide bonds
5
Q
what is the secondary structure of amino acids
A
- aa shaped by hydrogen bond
- alpha helices and beta pleated sheets
6
Q
What is not in DNA bases? that is used in RNA
A
uracil
7
Q
what is ketosis
A
increased blood ketones
8
Q
what is the basis/building blocks of nucleic acids?
A
nucleotides
9
Q
what is prostaglandin
A
cyclic carbon with fat chains
10
Q
rate of diffusion does not include?
A
ATP
11
Q
The resting membrane potential is -70mV, Na+ is 65 mV. Na+ contributes more than K+…
A
False
12
Q
What is the non-coding region in genes in pre-mRNA
A
introns
13
Q
Growth by increase in number of cells
A
hyperplasia
14
Q
Transamination/deamination can be converted to by…acetyl coa
A
all of the above?
krebs yes, pyruvic acid yes
15
Q
what will inhibity glycolysis
A
excess of ATP
16
Q
What is Na+/K+ pump
A
- 3 Na+ out and 2 K+ in
- primary active transport
17
Q
What does secondary transport often uses?
A
symport
18
Q
Secondary active transport uses energy from
A
uses energy from downhill movement of Na+ to drive “uphill” movement of another molecule
19
Q
What does glycolysis uses and end product
A
uses glucoses with end product of water
20
Q
what is telomeres
A
the non coding of genes in end of chromosomes end cap
21
Q
when does sister chormatids separate
A
anaphase
22
Q
What is trapped inside cell/charge?
A
anions
23
Q
Positive feedback loop does what?
A
amplifies initial change
24
Q
Homeostasis does what
A
maintain constant internal condition
25
Detect deviation from set point and send information to integrating centers
a. Sensors
26
Receive information from sensors and will cause the increase or decrease of activity of effectors; determines a response
a. Integrating center
27
Usually muscle or gland; will respond to messages from integrating centers to bring back homeostasis; produces the response
a. Effectors
28
When the action of the effectors is in the opposite direction of the initial change
a. Negative feedback loop
29
When the action of the effectors is in the same direction of the initial change; initial change is amplified
a. Positive feedback loop
30
control is built into organ being regulated
a. intrinsic
31
Control comes from outside of organ; by nervous or endocrine systems
a. Extrinsic
32
4 major subcategories of lipids
a. Triglycerides
b. phospholipids
c. steroids
d. prostaglandins
33
Which one is the healthier fatty acid that contains double bonds within hydrocarbon chains
a. Unsaturated
34
Increase blood ketones
a. Ketosis
35
Increase blood ketones too high and causes decrease ph
a. Ketoacidosis
36
Cyclic hydrocarbon group with fatty acid chains
a. Prostaglandins
37
Differences between amino acids are due to
a. Differences in functional group
38
Amino acids are linked by
a. Peptide bonds
39
Sequence of amino acids aa coded by genes (genetic code)…not functional
a. Primary structure of protein
40
Shape of aa caused by hydrogen bonding. Alpha and beta pleated sheets
a. Secondary structure of protein
41
Contains genetic code include DNA and RNA and made of long chains of nucleotides
a. Nucleic acids
42
Basic building blocks of nucleic acids
a. Nucleotides
43
Basis for ______ include guanine, thymine, cytosine, and adenine
a. DNA
44
Basis for _____ include guanine, uracil, cytosine, and adenine
a. RNA
45
2 strands of DNA to form ________ …law of complementary base pairing: A with T, C with G
a. Double Helix
46
A meshwork of protein fibers (collagen and elastin fibers) linked to molecules of gel-like ground substances
a. Extracellular matrix
47
Involves specific protein transporters (facilitated diffusion and active transport)
a. Carrier-mediated transport
48
Transport that Occurs by diffusion through membranes
a. Non-carrier mediated transport
49
28. Moves compounds down concentration gradient (from areas of higher concentration to areas of lower concentration); require no energy and includes simple diffusion (osmosis and facilitated diffusion)
a. Passive transport
50
Moves compounds up a concentration gradient (from areas of lower concentration to areas of higher concentration). Requires energy and specific concentration
a. Active transport
51
Random motion of molecules due to heat energy (random molecular collision
a. Diffusion
52
Rate of diffusion depends on
a. Magnitude of its concentration gradient which creates driving force
b. Permeability of membrane to it
c. Temperature
d. Surface area of membrane
53
Net diffusion of H2O across a selective permeable membrane…h2o diffuses down its concentration gradient
a. Osmosis
54
Solutes have to be _____ = cannot freely move across membrane for osmosis to occur
a. Osmotically active
55
Some cells have _______ to facilitate osmosis in special membranes
a. Aquaporins (water channels)
56
Measure of the tendency for a soln. to gain H2O by osmosis
a. Osmotic pressure
57
Solution have same osmotic pressure; has an equal concentration of solute; no osmosis
a. Isotonic
58
Solutions have higher osmotic pressure and are osmotically active; has a higher concentration of solute and causes cells to shrivel.
a. Hypertonic
59
If dehydrated, osmoreceptors in hypothalamus stimulate
a. ADH release
60
Protein carriers exhibit
a. Specificity
b. Competition
c. Saturation
61
Facilitated diffusion example; passive transport, no energy required. Down concentration gradient, by carrier proteins
a. Glucose transporter (Glut4 in skeletal muscle)
62
Transport of molecules against a concentration gradient requires ATP
a. Primary active transport
63
Uses ATP to move 3 Na+ out and 2 K+ in against their gradient
a. Active transport: Na+/K+ pump
64
Uses energy from “downhill transport of Na* to drive “uphill” movement of another molecules
a. Secondary active transport (coupled transport)
65
Secondary transport often uses that is in same direction as Na+ ex. Glucose
a. Cotransport; symport
66
Moves molecules in opposite direction of Na+ ex Ca2+
a. Countertransport (antiport)
67
46. Transport of digestion products across intestinal epithelium into blood
a. Absorption
68
Transport molecules out of urinary filtrate back into blood
a. Reabsorption
69
T or False 67% of body H2O is intracellular and 33% is extracellular
a. True
70
T or False intracellular consist of 80% interstitial tissue fluid and 20% blood ECF
a. False extracellular fluid
71
Filtration is determined by ______ which is pressure exerted by fluid (blood pressure)
a. Hydrostatic pressure
72
Colloid osmotic pressure is exerted by
a. Proteins in fluid
73
85% of fluid filtered from capillaries is returned directly to_______. The other 15% is returned to circulation via lymphatic system.
a. Capillaries
74
Excessive accumulation of tissue fluid
a. Edema
75
All reactions in body that involve energy transformation
a. Metabolism
76
55. Breaks down molecules and releases energy and is primary source of energy for making ATP
a. Catabolism
77
Makes larger molecules and requires energy and source of body’s large energy-storage compounds
a. Anabolism
78
Glucose and oxygen are converted into CO2 and water in process of making ATP
a. Aerobic cellular respiration
79
Glucose is converted into CO2 and water in process of making ATP
a. Anaerobic cellular respiration
80
Metabolic pathway by which glucose is converted to 2 pyruvates; occurs in cytoplasm and doesn’t require oxygen
a. Glycolysis
81
What is NAD
a. Electron carrier
82
Both aerobic and anaerobic respiration begin with
a. Glycolysis
83
In order for glycolysis to continue there must be sufficient
a. NAD available to accept hydrogen from glucose
84
In absence of O2 (anaerobic respiration = lactic acid fermentation, NADH gives its Hs to pyruvate creating ______ which makes muscles feel fatigued and can cause cell death in excessively high concentration
a. Lactic acid
85
Process of polymerizing glucose into glycogen
a. Glycogenesis
86
2-way traffic between skeletal muscle and the liver
a. Cori cycle
87
Aerobic respiration has end products of
a. CO2, H2O and ATP
88
Aerobic respiration begins when pyruvate enters
a. Mitochondria
89
Point of Krebs cycle
a. Carry electrons to electron transport chain ETC
90
_______ is a link series of protein embedded in the cristae of the mitochondria which creates proton concentration gradient that atp synthase uses as energy to make ATP
a. Electron transport chain
91
What serves as the last electron acceptor for the electron transport chain
a. O2
92
T or F Proteins can be broken down to amino acids, which can be deaminated, converted into pyruvate and run thru Krebs and be used to interconvert carb, fats and proteins into cellular energy
a. True
93
When more energy is taken in that consumed, what is inhibited
a. Atp synthesis
94
_____ is a common substrate for energy and synthetic pathways because it can be sent to Krebs cycle (to make ATP) or made into cholesterol, bile salts, steroid hormones, ketone bodies, and fatty acids
a. Acetyl CoA
95
Breakdown of fat into free fatty acids and glycerol via hydrolysis by lipase
a. Lipolysis
96
Major site for thermogenesis in the newborn and amount of brown fat greatest at time of birth
a. Brown fat
97
Formation of glucose from non-carbohydrates
a. Gluconeogenesis
98
How DNA controls production of proteins (transcription and translation)
a. Gene expression
99
Lengths of DNA that code for polypeptides via synthesis of RNA
a. Genes
100
Occurs when DNA sequence in a gene is copied to make an mRNA sequence; occurs in nucleus
a. Transcription
101
Occurs when mRNA sequence is used to make a protein; occurs in cytoplasm
a. Translation
102
Each nucleus contains 1 or more dark areas that contain genes actively making mRNA
a. Nucleoli
103
Refers to all genes in an individual or in a species
a. Genome
104
Refers to all proteins produced by a genome
a. Proteome
105
DNA and its associated proteins (histones); threadlike material that makes up chromosomes
a. Chromatin
106
Part of chromosomes active in transcription; light in color
a. Euchromatin
107
For transcription to occur ______ binds to a start sequence on DNA and unzips strands
a. RNA polymerase
108
Regulates levels of transcription
a. Promoter region
109
Regulatory molecules that must bind to promoter region of a gene to initiate transcription
a. Transcription factors
110
Contains code for synthesis of a protein
a. mRNA messenger RNA
111
decodes info contained mRNA
a. tRNA
112
pre-mRNA contains non-coding regions within the gene called ____, which are spliced out of the sequence
a. introns
113
coding regions that are expressed are called
a. exons
114
Each triplet in mRNA is a _____ which specifies an amino acid
a. Codon
115
tRNA reads codon as
a. anticodons
116
____ break hydrogen bonds of double helices to produce 2 free strands of DNA
a. Helicases
117
_____ binds to each strand and makes new complementary copy of old strand using using A-T, C-G pairing rules
a. DNA polymerase
118
Each copy of DNA is composed of 1 new strand and 1 old strand is called
a. Semiconservative replication
119
Most cells of body are in ____ the non-dividing stage of life cycle
a. Interphase
120
In what phase is DNA replicated in preparation of division
a. S Phase
121
Group of proteins that promote different phases of cell cycle
a. Cyclins
122
Genes whose mutations are associated with cancer
a. Oncogenes
123
Tumor suppressor genes inhibit cancer development. Gene ___ inhibits cyclin activity and mutation in this gene are associated with 50% of cancers
a. Gene p53
124
Cell death occurs in 2 ways
a. Necrosis
| b. apoptosis
125
Occurs when pathological changes kill a cell and thus tissue
a. Necrosis
126
Programmed cell death occurs as a normal physiological response controlled by proteins; tissue repair (immunity) and remodeling (stomach and skin)
a. Apoptosis
127
The sister chromatids separate in what phase
a. Anaphase
128
Microtubule organizing center; forms spindle fibers
a. Centrosome
129
Non-coding regions of DNA at ends of chromosomes
a. Telomeres
130
Growth due to an increase in the size of cells
a. Hypertrophy
131
Decrease in cell size, opposite of hypertrophy
a. Atrophy
132
Growth due to an increase in the number of cells
a. Hyperplasia
133
Gametes (oocytes and sperm cells) each carry 23 chromosomes, which are structurally identical to each other
a. Homologous chromosomes
134
Process of making gametes (ova and sperm) containing ½ genetic material
a. Meiosis
135
In Meiosis 2nd division each daughter divides and contains 23 chromosomes rather than 46 like parent cell that why it is called
a. Reduction division
136
Brain and Spinal cord of the nervous system
a. Central nervous system
137
Network of nerves and ganglia carrying signals into and out of the CNS: cranial and spinal nerves
a. Peripheral nervous system
138
What are the functional units of nervous system
a. Neurons
139
Group of cell bodies in CNS are called ___; In PNS are called ____
a. Nuclei; ganglia
140
Branched processes extending from the cell body’s cytoplasm; receive information, convey it to cell body
a. Dendrites
141
Conducts impulses away from cell body
a. Axons
142
Neurons conduct impulses into CNS
a. Sensory/afferent
143
Neurons carry impulses out of CNS
a. Motor/efferent
144
Responsible for reflexive and voluntary muscle control
a. Somatic motor neurons
145
Responsible for smooth and cardiac muscle control and glands
a. Autonomic motor neurons
146
In PNS each sheath of Schwann cells
a. Electrically insulates axon
147
In CNS each oligodendrocyte myelinates several CNS axons causing axons of CNS to appear white called
a. White matter
148
High concentration of cell bodies and dendrocytes without myelin sheaths in CNS
a. Gray matter
149
Uninsulated gap between adjacent Schwann cells is called
a. Node of Ranvier
150
Chemicals that promote fetal nerve growth, are required for survival of many adult neurons, and are important in regeneration
a. Neurotrophins
151
Occurs much more readily in PNS than CNS because oligodendrocytes produce proteins that inhibit regrowth and glial scars in CNS
a. Nerve regeneration
152
The most common glial cell; involve in inducing capillaries to form blood-brain barrier, buffering K+ levels, recycling NTs, regulating adult neurogenesis, taking up of glucose from blood, synapse formation
a. Astrocytes
153
At rest, all cells have a negative internal charge, neurons have an RMP of ~ 70 mv
a. Resting membrane potentials
154
Occurs when MP becomes more positive; excitatory (excites nerve impulses)
a. Depolarization
155
Is a wave of MP change that sweeps along the axon from soma to synapse
a. Action potential
156
Depolarization and repolarization occur via
a. Diffusion
157
Stimulus intensity is coded by
a. Frequency
158
Membrane cannot produce another AP because Na+ channels are inactivated
a. Absolute refractory period
159
Occurs when VG K+ channels are open, making it harder to depolarize to threshold
a. Relative refractory period
160
142. Because cytoplasm has high resistance and current leaks out through ion channels axon cable properties are
a. Poor
161
143. Conduction in an unmyelinated axon is
a. Slow
162
Gaps in myelin are called nodes of Ranvier; Conduction in myelinated axon is fast because Aps skip node from node which is called
a. Saltatory conduction
163
Depolarization flows from presynaptic into postsynaptic cell through channels called ___ which is formed by connexin proteins
a. Gap junction
164
Depolarizing channels cause ____ (on), while hyperpolarizing channels cause ____ (off)
a. EPSP, IPSP
165
What is the most widely used NT; at all neuromuscular junctions and used in brain; can be excitatory or inhibitory depending on receptor subtype; nicotinic or muscarinic
a. Acetylcholine
166
Produces excitatory postsynaptic potentials, permits diffusion of Na+ into and K+ out of postsynaptic cell; inward flow of Na+ dominates
a. Nicotinic Ach channel
167
Synapse between somatic motor neuron and skeletal muscle cells; use Ach
a. End plates or neuromuscular junctions
168
Involved in regulation of mood, behavior, appetite, and cerebral circulation
a. Serotonin
169
Involved in motor control and emotional reward (reward system is involved in addiction)
a. Dopamine
170
Takes place when EPSP from different synapses occur in postsynaptic cell at same time
a. Spatial summation
171
153. Occurs because EPSPs that occur closely in time can sum before they fade
a. Temporal summation
172
Difference in charge across membrane; results in part from presence of large anions being trapped inside cell and actions of Na+/K+ pumps
a. Membrane potential
173
T or F K+ is attracted inside by trapped anions but also driven out by its [gradient]
a. True
174
Theoretical voltage across cell membrane if only 1 ion could diffuse through the membrane
a. Equilibrium potential
175
Voltage difference across the membrane
a. Potential difference
176
Membrane voltage of cell in unstimulated state; -65 to -85 mV
a. Resting membrane potential
177
RMP depends on concentration of ions inside and out and on permeability of each ion and is not affect by ____ because the membrane is most permeable to it
a. K+
178
Because 3 Na+ are pumped out for every 2K+ takin in, pump is
a. Electrogenic
179
During aerobic respiration after pyruvate enters mitochondria it is converted into
Acetyl CoA
180
Energy on acetyl coa is extracted during
Aerobic respiration in mitochondria
181
The o2 in co2 is not from breathed o2 it is from
Glucose
182
Energy gathered by ETC by the passage of e is used to pump H+ into mitochondria outer chamber; this creates high H+ concentration
Chemiosmotic theory
