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Physiology > Final: Exam 1 Review > Flashcards

Final: Exam 1 Review Flashcards

1
Q

increases and decreases activity of the effectors

A

integrating center

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2
Q

which is not included in the negative feedback loop?

a. blood sugar
b. temperature
c. most common feedback loop
d. blood clotting

A

d. blood clotting

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3
Q

which is the healthier fatty acid, saturated or unsaturated?

A

unsaturated

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4
Q

what is in between two amino acid/proteins?

amino acids are linked by?

A

peptide bonds

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5
Q

what is the secondary structure of amino acids

A
  • aa shaped by hydrogen bond

- alpha helices and beta pleated sheets

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6
Q

What is not in DNA bases? that is used in RNA

A

uracil

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7
Q

what is ketosis

A

increased blood ketones

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8
Q

what is the basis/building blocks of nucleic acids?

A

nucleotides

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9
Q

what is prostaglandin

A

cyclic carbon with fat chains

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10
Q

rate of diffusion does not include?

A

ATP

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11
Q

The resting membrane potential is -70mV, Na+ is 65 mV. Na+ contributes more than K+…

A

False

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12
Q

What is the non-coding region in genes in pre-mRNA

A

introns

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13
Q

Growth by increase in number of cells

A

hyperplasia

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14
Q

Transamination/deamination can be converted to by…acetyl coa

A

all of the above?

krebs yes, pyruvic acid yes

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15
Q

what will inhibity glycolysis

A

excess of ATP

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16
Q

What is Na+/K+ pump

A
  • 3 Na+ out and 2 K+ in

- primary active transport

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17
Q

What does secondary transport often uses?

A

symport

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18
Q

Secondary active transport uses energy from

A

uses energy from downhill movement of Na+ to drive “uphill” movement of another molecule

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19
Q

What does glycolysis uses and end product

A

uses glucoses with end product of water

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20
Q

what is telomeres

A

the non coding of genes in end of chromosomes end cap

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21
Q

when does sister chormatids separate

A

anaphase

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22
Q

What is trapped inside cell/charge?

A

anions

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23
Q

Positive feedback loop does what?

A

amplifies initial change

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24
Q

Homeostasis does what

A

maintain constant internal condition

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25
Q

Detect deviation from set point and send information to integrating centers

A

a. Sensors

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26
Q

Receive information from sensors and will cause the increase or decrease of activity of effectors; determines a response

A

a. Integrating center

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27
Q

Usually muscle or gland; will respond to messages from integrating centers to bring back homeostasis; produces the response

A

a. Effectors

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28
Q

When the action of the effectors is in the opposite direction of the initial change

A

a. Negative feedback loop

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29
Q

When the action of the effectors is in the same direction of the initial change; initial change is amplified

A

a. Positive feedback loop

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30
Q

control is built into organ being regulated

A

a. intrinsic

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31
Q

Control comes from outside of organ; by nervous or endocrine systems

A

a. Extrinsic

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32
Q

4 major subcategories of lipids

A

a. Triglycerides
b. phospholipids
c. steroids
d. prostaglandins

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33
Q

Which one is the healthier fatty acid that contains double bonds within hydrocarbon chains

A

a. Unsaturated

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34
Q

Increase blood ketones

A

a. Ketosis

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35
Q

Increase blood ketones too high and causes decrease ph

A

a. Ketoacidosis

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36
Q

Cyclic hydrocarbon group with fatty acid chains

A

a. Prostaglandins

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37
Q

Differences between amino acids are due to

A

a. Differences in functional group

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38
Q

Amino acids are linked by

A

a. Peptide bonds

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39
Q

Sequence of amino acids aa coded by genes (genetic code)…not functional

A

a. Primary structure of protein

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40
Q

Shape of aa caused by hydrogen bonding. Alpha and beta pleated sheets

A

a. Secondary structure of protein

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41
Q

Contains genetic code include DNA and RNA and made of long chains of nucleotides

A

a. Nucleic acids

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42
Q

Basic building blocks of nucleic acids

A

a. Nucleotides

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43
Q

Basis for ______ include guanine, thymine, cytosine, and adenine

A

a. DNA

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44
Q

Basis for _____ include guanine, uracil, cytosine, and adenine

A

a. RNA

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45
Q

2 strands of DNA to form ________ …law of complementary base pairing: A with T, C with G

A

a. Double Helix

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46
Q

A meshwork of protein fibers (collagen and elastin fibers) linked to molecules of gel-like ground substances

A

a. Extracellular matrix

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47
Q

Involves specific protein transporters (facilitated diffusion and active transport)

A

a. Carrier-mediated transport

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48
Q

Transport that Occurs by diffusion through membranes

A

a. Non-carrier mediated transport

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49
Q
  1. Moves compounds down concentration gradient (from areas of higher concentration to areas of lower concentration); require no energy and includes simple diffusion (osmosis and facilitated diffusion)
A

a. Passive transport

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50
Q

Moves compounds up a concentration gradient (from areas of lower concentration to areas of higher concentration). Requires energy and specific concentration

A

a. Active transport

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51
Q

Random motion of molecules due to heat energy (random molecular collision

A

a. Diffusion

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52
Q

Rate of diffusion depends on

A

a. Magnitude of its concentration gradient which creates driving force
b. Permeability of membrane to it
c. Temperature
d. Surface area of membrane

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53
Q

Net diffusion of H2O across a selective permeable membrane…h2o diffuses down its concentration gradient

A

a. Osmosis

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54
Q

Solutes have to be _____ = cannot freely move across membrane for osmosis to occur

A

a. Osmotically active

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55
Q

Some cells have _______ to facilitate osmosis in special membranes

A

a. Aquaporins (water channels)

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56
Q

Measure of the tendency for a soln. to gain H2O by osmosis

A

a. Osmotic pressure

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57
Q

Solution have same osmotic pressure; has an equal concentration of solute; no osmosis

A

a. Isotonic

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58
Q

Solutions have higher osmotic pressure and are osmotically active; has a higher concentration of solute and causes cells to shrivel.

A

a. Hypertonic

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59
Q

If dehydrated, osmoreceptors in hypothalamus stimulate

A

a. ADH release

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60
Q

Protein carriers exhibit

A

a. Specificity
b. Competition
c. Saturation

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61
Q

Facilitated diffusion example; passive transport, no energy required. Down concentration gradient, by carrier proteins

A

a. Glucose transporter (Glut4 in skeletal muscle)

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62
Q

Transport of molecules against a concentration gradient requires ATP

A

a. Primary active transport

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63
Q

Uses ATP to move 3 Na+ out and 2 K+ in against their gradient

A

a. Active transport: Na+/K+ pump

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64
Q

Uses energy from “downhill transport of Na* to drive “uphill” movement of another molecules

A

a. Secondary active transport (coupled transport)

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65
Q

Secondary transport often uses that is in same direction as Na+ ex. Glucose

A

a. Cotransport; symport

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66
Q

Moves molecules in opposite direction of Na+ ex Ca2+

A

a. Countertransport (antiport)

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67
Q
  1. Transport of digestion products across intestinal epithelium into blood
A

a. Absorption

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68
Q

Transport molecules out of urinary filtrate back into blood

A

a. Reabsorption

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69
Q

T or False 67% of body H2O is intracellular and 33% is extracellular

A

a. True

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70
Q

T or False intracellular consist of 80% interstitial tissue fluid and 20% blood ECF

A

a. False extracellular fluid

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71
Q

Filtration is determined by ______ which is pressure exerted by fluid (blood pressure)

A

a. Hydrostatic pressure

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72
Q

Colloid osmotic pressure is exerted by

A

a. Proteins in fluid

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73
Q

85% of fluid filtered from capillaries is returned directly to_______. The other 15% is returned to circulation via lymphatic system.

A

a. Capillaries

74
Q

Excessive accumulation of tissue fluid

A

a. Edema

75
Q

All reactions in body that involve energy transformation

A

a. Metabolism

76
Q
  1. Breaks down molecules and releases energy and is primary source of energy for making ATP
A

a. Catabolism

77
Q

Makes larger molecules and requires energy and source of body’s large energy-storage compounds

A

a. Anabolism

78
Q

Glucose and oxygen are converted into CO2 and water in process of making ATP

A

a. Aerobic cellular respiration

79
Q

Glucose is converted into CO2 and water in process of making ATP

A

a. Anaerobic cellular respiration

80
Q

Metabolic pathway by which glucose is converted to 2 pyruvates; occurs in cytoplasm and doesn’t require oxygen

A

a. Glycolysis

81
Q

What is NAD

A

a. Electron carrier

82
Q

Both aerobic and anaerobic respiration begin with

A

a. Glycolysis

83
Q

In order for glycolysis to continue there must be sufficient

A

a. NAD available to accept hydrogen from glucose

84
Q

In absence of O2 (anaerobic respiration = lactic acid fermentation, NADH gives its Hs to pyruvate creating ______ which makes muscles feel fatigued and can cause cell death in excessively high concentration

A

a. Lactic acid

85
Q

Process of polymerizing glucose into glycogen

A

a. Glycogenesis

86
Q

2-way traffic between skeletal muscle and the liver

A

a. Cori cycle

87
Q

Aerobic respiration has end products of

A

a. CO2, H2O and ATP

88
Q

Aerobic respiration begins when pyruvate enters

A

a. Mitochondria

89
Q

Point of Krebs cycle

A

a. Carry electrons to electron transport chain ETC

90
Q

_______ is a link series of protein embedded in the cristae of the mitochondria which creates proton concentration gradient that atp synthase uses as energy to make ATP

A

a. Electron transport chain

91
Q

What serves as the last electron acceptor for the electron transport chain

A

a. O2

92
Q

T or F Proteins can be broken down to amino acids, which can be deaminated, converted into pyruvate and run thru Krebs and be used to interconvert carb, fats and proteins into cellular energy

A

a. True

93
Q

When more energy is taken in that consumed, what is inhibited

A

a. Atp synthesis

94
Q

_____ is a common substrate for energy and synthetic pathways because it can be sent to Krebs cycle (to make ATP) or made into cholesterol, bile salts, steroid hormones, ketone bodies, and fatty acids

A

a. Acetyl CoA

95
Q

Breakdown of fat into free fatty acids and glycerol via hydrolysis by lipase

A

a. Lipolysis

96
Q

Major site for thermogenesis in the newborn and amount of brown fat greatest at time of birth

A

a. Brown fat

97
Q

Formation of glucose from non-carbohydrates

A

a. Gluconeogenesis

98
Q

How DNA controls production of proteins (transcription and translation)

A

a. Gene expression

99
Q

Lengths of DNA that code for polypeptides via synthesis of RNA

A

a. Genes

100
Q

Occurs when DNA sequence in a gene is copied to make an mRNA sequence; occurs in nucleus

A

a. Transcription

101
Q

Occurs when mRNA sequence is used to make a protein; occurs in cytoplasm

A

a. Translation

102
Q

Each nucleus contains 1 or more dark areas that contain genes actively making mRNA

A

a. Nucleoli

103
Q

Refers to all genes in an individual or in a species

A

a. Genome

104
Q

Refers to all proteins produced by a genome

A

a. Proteome

105
Q

DNA and its associated proteins (histones); threadlike material that makes up chromosomes

A

a. Chromatin

106
Q

Part of chromosomes active in transcription; light in color

A

a. Euchromatin

107
Q

For transcription to occur ______ binds to a start sequence on DNA and unzips strands

A

a. RNA polymerase

108
Q

Regulates levels of transcription

A

a. Promoter region

109
Q

Regulatory molecules that must bind to promoter region of a gene to initiate transcription

A

a. Transcription factors

110
Q

Contains code for synthesis of a protein

A

a. mRNA messenger RNA

111
Q

decodes info contained mRNA

A

a. tRNA

112
Q

pre-mRNA contains non-coding regions within the gene called ____, which are spliced out of the sequence

A

a. introns

113
Q

coding regions that are expressed are called

A

a. exons

114
Q

Each triplet in mRNA is a _____ which specifies an amino acid

A

a. Codon

115
Q

tRNA reads codon as

A

a. anticodons

116
Q

____ break hydrogen bonds of double helices to produce 2 free strands of DNA

A

a. Helicases

117
Q

_____ binds to each strand and makes new complementary copy of old strand using using A-T, C-G pairing rules

A

a. DNA polymerase

118
Q

Each copy of DNA is composed of 1 new strand and 1 old strand is called

A

a. Semiconservative replication

119
Q

Most cells of body are in ____ the non-dividing stage of life cycle

A

a. Interphase

120
Q

In what phase is DNA replicated in preparation of division

A

a. S Phase

121
Q

Group of proteins that promote different phases of cell cycle

A

a. Cyclins

122
Q

Genes whose mutations are associated with cancer

A

a. Oncogenes

123
Q

Tumor suppressor genes inhibit cancer development. Gene ___ inhibits cyclin activity and mutation in this gene are associated with 50% of cancers

A

a. Gene p53

124
Q

Cell death occurs in 2 ways

A

a. Necrosis

b. apoptosis

125
Q

Occurs when pathological changes kill a cell and thus tissue

A

a. Necrosis

126
Q

Programmed cell death occurs as a normal physiological response controlled by proteins; tissue repair (immunity) and remodeling (stomach and skin)

A

a. Apoptosis

127
Q

The sister chromatids separate in what phase

A

a. Anaphase

128
Q

Microtubule organizing center; forms spindle fibers

A

a. Centrosome

129
Q

Non-coding regions of DNA at ends of chromosomes

A

a. Telomeres

130
Q

Growth due to an increase in the size of cells

A

a. Hypertrophy

131
Q

Decrease in cell size, opposite of hypertrophy

A

a. Atrophy

132
Q

Growth due to an increase in the number of cells

A

a. Hyperplasia

133
Q

Gametes (oocytes and sperm cells) each carry 23 chromosomes, which are structurally identical to each other

A

a. Homologous chromosomes

134
Q

Process of making gametes (ova and sperm) containing ½ genetic material

A

a. Meiosis

135
Q

In Meiosis 2nd division each daughter divides and contains 23 chromosomes rather than 46 like parent cell that why it is called

A

a. Reduction division

136
Q

Brain and Spinal cord of the nervous system

A

a. Central nervous system

137
Q

Network of nerves and ganglia carrying signals into and out of the CNS: cranial and spinal nerves

A

a. Peripheral nervous system

138
Q

What are the functional units of nervous system

A

a. Neurons

139
Q

Group of cell bodies in CNS are called ___; In PNS are called ____

A

a. Nuclei; ganglia

140
Q

Branched processes extending from the cell body’s cytoplasm; receive information, convey it to cell body

A

a. Dendrites

141
Q

Conducts impulses away from cell body

A

a. Axons

142
Q

Neurons conduct impulses into CNS

A

a. Sensory/afferent

143
Q

Neurons carry impulses out of CNS

A

a. Motor/efferent

144
Q

Responsible for reflexive and voluntary muscle control

A

a. Somatic motor neurons

145
Q

Responsible for smooth and cardiac muscle control and glands

A

a. Autonomic motor neurons

146
Q

In PNS each sheath of Schwann cells

A

a. Electrically insulates axon

147
Q

In CNS each oligodendrocyte myelinates several CNS axons causing axons of CNS to appear white called

A

a. White matter

148
Q

High concentration of cell bodies and dendrocytes without myelin sheaths in CNS

A

a. Gray matter

149
Q

Uninsulated gap between adjacent Schwann cells is called

A

a. Node of Ranvier

150
Q

Chemicals that promote fetal nerve growth, are required for survival of many adult neurons, and are important in regeneration

A

a. Neurotrophins

151
Q

Occurs much more readily in PNS than CNS because oligodendrocytes produce proteins that inhibit regrowth and glial scars in CNS

A

a. Nerve regeneration

152
Q

The most common glial cell; involve in inducing capillaries to form blood-brain barrier, buffering K+ levels, recycling NTs, regulating adult neurogenesis, taking up of glucose from blood, synapse formation

A

a. Astrocytes

153
Q

At rest, all cells have a negative internal charge, neurons have an RMP of ~ 70 mv

A

a. Resting membrane potentials

154
Q

Occurs when MP becomes more positive; excitatory (excites nerve impulses)

A

a. Depolarization

155
Q

Is a wave of MP change that sweeps along the axon from soma to synapse

A

a. Action potential

156
Q

Depolarization and repolarization occur via

A

a. Diffusion

157
Q

Stimulus intensity is coded by

A

a. Frequency

158
Q

Membrane cannot produce another AP because Na+ channels are inactivated

A

a. Absolute refractory period

159
Q

Occurs when VG K+ channels are open, making it harder to depolarize to threshold

A

a. Relative refractory period

160
Q
  1. Because cytoplasm has high resistance and current leaks out through ion channels axon cable properties are
A

a. Poor

161
Q
  1. Conduction in an unmyelinated axon is
A

a. Slow

162
Q

Gaps in myelin are called nodes of Ranvier; Conduction in myelinated axon is fast because Aps skip node from node which is called

A

a. Saltatory conduction

163
Q

Depolarization flows from presynaptic into postsynaptic cell through channels called ___ which is formed by connexin proteins

A

a. Gap junction

164
Q

Depolarizing channels cause ____ (on), while hyperpolarizing channels cause ____ (off)

A

a. EPSP, IPSP

165
Q

What is the most widely used NT; at all neuromuscular junctions and used in brain; can be excitatory or inhibitory depending on receptor subtype; nicotinic or muscarinic

A

a. Acetylcholine

166
Q

Produces excitatory postsynaptic potentials, permits diffusion of Na+ into and K+ out of postsynaptic cell; inward flow of Na+ dominates

A

a. Nicotinic Ach channel

167
Q

Synapse between somatic motor neuron and skeletal muscle cells; use Ach

A

a. End plates or neuromuscular junctions

168
Q

Involved in regulation of mood, behavior, appetite, and cerebral circulation

A

a. Serotonin

169
Q

Involved in motor control and emotional reward (reward system is involved in addiction)

A

a. Dopamine

170
Q

Takes place when EPSP from different synapses occur in postsynaptic cell at same time

A

a. Spatial summation

171
Q
  1. Occurs because EPSPs that occur closely in time can sum before they fade
A

a. Temporal summation

172
Q

Difference in charge across membrane; results in part from presence of large anions being trapped inside cell and actions of Na+/K+ pumps

A

a. Membrane potential

173
Q

T or F K+ is attracted inside by trapped anions but also driven out by its [gradient]

A

a. True

174
Q

Theoretical voltage across cell membrane if only 1 ion could diffuse through the membrane

A

a. Equilibrium potential

175
Q

Voltage difference across the membrane

A

a. Potential difference

176
Q

Membrane voltage of cell in unstimulated state; -65 to -85 mV

A

a. Resting membrane potential

177
Q

RMP depends on concentration of ions inside and out and on permeability of each ion and is not affect by ____ because the membrane is most permeable to it

A

a. K+

178
Q

Because 3 Na+ are pumped out for every 2K+ takin in, pump is

A

a. Electrogenic

179
Q

During aerobic respiration after pyruvate enters mitochondria it is converted into

A

Acetyl CoA

180
Q

Energy on acetyl coa is extracted during

A

Aerobic respiration in mitochondria

181
Q

The o2 in co2 is not from breathed o2 it is from

A

Glucose

182
Q

Energy gathered by ETC by the passage of e is used to pump H+ into mitochondria outer chamber; this creates high H+ concentration

A

Chemiosmotic theory

Physiology (27 decks)

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