Final Review Information Flashcards

1
Q

these are the three categories of membrane proteins

A

peripheral, integral, glycoproteins

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2
Q

these are the three types of membrane proteins

A

receptor, carrier, and ion channels

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3
Q

these are the three types of filaments in the cytoskeleton

A

microfilaments, microtubules, and intermediate filaments

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4
Q

these are the three types of cellular projections

A

microvilli, cilia, and flagellum

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5
Q

peripheral membrane proteins are

A

NOT the entire width of the membrane

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6
Q

integral membrane proteins line

A

the entire width of the membrane and are partially inside and partially outside the membrane.

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7
Q

The receptor membrane proteins

A

trigger vesicles when bound to molecules, usually when attach to the ligands

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8
Q

the carrier membrane proteins function to

A

diffuse, active transport, and aid passive transport

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9
Q

what do ion channels do

A

allow molecules, ions, and water solute in and out, deal with cell to cell communication

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10
Q

what are microfilaments made of

A

actin

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11
Q

what do microfilaments do

A

allow mechanical support

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12
Q

what do microtubles do

A

aid organelles in movement

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13
Q

what are microtubules made of

A

tubulin

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14
Q

what do intermediate filaments do

A

stabilize organelle position, resist extracellular forces, and anchor the cells together.

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15
Q

what are microvilli made of

A

microfilaments

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16
Q

what do microvilli do

A

increase surface area for absorption

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17
Q

what are cilia made of

A

microtubules

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18
Q

what do cilia do

A

move substances across the membrane surface

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19
Q

what are flagellum made of

A

microtubules

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20
Q

what do flagellum do

A

move whole cell

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21
Q

These are the three types of tissues

A

epithelial, connective, muscular, and nervous

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22
Q

where is epithelial found

A

hallow organs, body cavities, basement tissue

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23
Q

what is function of epithelial

A

protection, absorption, diffusion, secretion

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24
Q

blood and nerve supply for epithelial tissue?

A

yes nerve, no blood

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25
Q

function of simple squamous epithelial

A

diffusion

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26
Q

function for stratified squamous epithelial

A

wear, tear, protection

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27
Q

function of columnar epithelial

A

secretion and absorption

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28
Q

function of transitional epithelial

A

volume changes (squamous to cuboidal)

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29
Q

what are the three junctions

A

tight, gap, desmosomes (hemidesmosomes)

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30
Q

what do tight junctions do

A

barrier that isolates intercellular space

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31
Q

what do gap junctions do

A

allow cell to cell communication

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32
Q

what do desmosomes do

A

anchored deep inside the cell by adhesion proteins/ intermediate filaments for support

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33
Q

what is connective tissue made of

A

protein fibers and ground substastance

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34
Q

what does connective tissue do

A

support and protect

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35
Q

what are the five types of connective tissue

A

loose, dense, cartilage, osseous, and liquid

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36
Q

these are the three types of loose

A

areolar, adipose, reticular

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37
Q

areolar loose connective tissue is

A

the basement to epithelial

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38
Q

adipose loose connective tissue is

A

energy storage

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39
Q

reticular loose connective tissue

A

aids organ framework

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40
Q

regular dense connective tissue is

A

strong and makes tendons and ligaments

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41
Q

irregular dense connective tissue

A

create capsule for organs and dermis of cells

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42
Q

elastic dense connective tissue

A

lines the wall of blood vessels

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43
Q

this is the make up of cartilage

A

ground substance of chondroitin sulfate and collagen and elastic fibers (condrocytes and condroblast)

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44
Q

blood and nerve supply for cartilage?

A

none

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45
Q

hyaline cartilage connective tissue

A

reduces friction

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46
Q

fibrocartilage connective tissue

A

has lots of collegen and makes up menisci and intervertebral discs

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47
Q

elastic cartilage connective tissue

A

is flexible, resilient, and can return to original shape

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48
Q

two types of osseous tissue

A

compact and spongy

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49
Q

the ECM of compact osseous connective tissue is

A

in concentric rings

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50
Q

the ECM of spongy osseous connective tissue is

A

in columns called trabeculae

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51
Q

these are the two liquid connective tissue

A

blood and lymph

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52
Q

nervous tissue function is to

A

detect changes in environment and activate changes in the body based on the environment

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53
Q

these are the structures of the long bone

A

diaphysis, epiphysis, periosteum, and epiphyseal plate

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54
Q

what is the diaphysis and what type of bone tissue is it

A

shaft and compact

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55
Q

what is the epiphysis and what type of bone tissue is it

A

the ends of the bone and spongy

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56
Q

what is the periosteum

A

the outside connective tissue membrane of the bone made of collagen fibers

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57
Q

what is the epiphyseal plate

A

commonly known as the “growth plate” it is hyaline cartilage found between the diaphysis and epiphysis that allows for endocondral ossifications

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58
Q

what is the extracellular matrix of bone

A

calcium phosphate and calcium hydroxide make the hydroxyapetite crystals. This along with the collagen fibers make up the bone tissue

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59
Q

what are the four types of bone cells

A

osteoprogenitor, osteoblast, osteocytes, and osteoclast

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60
Q

what are osteoprogenitor cells

A

undifferentiated stem cells that divide

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61
Q

what do osteoblast do

A

synthesize extracellular matrix to line periosteum and endosteum

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62
Q

what do osteocytes do

A

exchange nutrients and waste

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63
Q

what do osteoclast do

A

release lysomal enzymes, reabsorb, maintain & repair

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64
Q

characteristics of compact bone

A

osteons, canals, and lamellae in rings with blood vessels

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65
Q

characteristics of spongy bone

A

no osteons, lamelle in columns called trabecullae

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66
Q

bone tissue blood and nerve supply?

A

have both

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67
Q

what are the cranial bones

A

frontal, parietal, occipital, temporal, sphenoid, ethmoid

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68
Q

what are the facial bones

A

nasal, lacrimal, zygomatic, maxilla, mandible

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69
Q

how many cervical vertebrae

A

8

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70
Q

how many thoracic vertebrae

A

12

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71
Q

how many lumbar vertebrae

A

5

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72
Q

how many sacral vertebrae

A

5 fused

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73
Q

how many coccygeal vertebrae

A

4 fused

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74
Q

how many ribs do we have

A

24

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75
Q

how many rib pairs do we have

A

12

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76
Q

what is the function of synovial joints

A

reduce friction and nourish cartilage cells

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77
Q

where is synovial joints found

A

cartilage, reinforcing ligament, tendon sheths, bursae

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78
Q

moveable joints are (strong/weak)

A

weak

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79
Q

immoveable joints are (strong/weak)

A

strong

80
Q

what influences the stability of joints

A

ligaments, articulating surfaces and muscle tone

81
Q

another name for should joint is

A

glenohumeral joint

82
Q

what is the glenohumeral joint/should joints articulations

A

head of humerus and glenoid fossa of scapula

83
Q

what are the ligaments of the glenohumeral joint

A

glenohumeral lig, coracoacromial lig, acromioclavicular lig, coracoclavicular lig

84
Q

another name for the elbow joint is the

A

humero-ulnar and radio ulnar joints

85
Q

what are the articulations for the elbow joint

A

head of humerus/glenoid fossa and head of radius/radial notch

86
Q

what are the ligaments of the elbow joint

A

ulnar medial/lateral collateral ligament and annular ligament

87
Q

what is another name for the hip joint

A

coxal joint

88
Q

what are the articulations of the hip/coxal joint

A

head of femur with acetabulum of coxal bone

89
Q

what are the ligaments of the head of the femur

A

transverse acetabular lig, illiofemoral lig, pubofemoral lig, ischiofemoral lig

90
Q

where is the knee joint

A

between the femur and patella or between the condyles of the femur and tibia

91
Q

what are the ligaments of the knee joint

A

patellar ligament, tibial medial collateral ligament, fibular lateral collateral ligament, anterior cruciate ligament, posterior cruciate ligament

92
Q

what are the muscle connective tissue layers

A

epimysium, perimysium, and endomysium

93
Q

what is a sarcomere

A

A sarcomere is the basic functional contractile unit of muscle tissue.

94
Q

what is hypertrophy

A

growth of muscles

95
Q

what is atrophy

A

muscle tissue decreasing in strength and size

96
Q

what are the parts of the neurons

A

dendrites, soma, axons, synapse

97
Q

what do dendrites do

A

recieve impulse

98
Q

what is in the soma

A

nucleus, cytoplasm, organelles, microtubules

99
Q

what do axons do

A

carry impulses away from the body

100
Q

what is the synapse

A

the junction between nuerons

101
Q

the clusters of nervous cells inside the central nervous system are

A

nuclei

102
Q

the clusters of the nervous cells inside the peripheral nervous system are

A

ganglia

103
Q

what does myelin do

A

insulate neurons and speed up conduction of nerve impulses

104
Q

when a action potential jumps from node to node it is called

A

saltatory conduction

105
Q

when action potentials travel without the help of myelinated sheaths it is called

A

continuous conduction

106
Q

afferent referes to

A

sensory

107
Q

efferent refers to

A

motor

108
Q

where are interneurons found

A

CNS

109
Q

what do interneurons do

A

integrate sensory information

110
Q

what function does the CNS have

A

integrative functions

111
Q

what is the pheripheral NS

A

pathway for sensory and motor

112
Q

what is the somatic NS

A

voluntary actions in the peripheral NS

113
Q

what is autonomic NS

A

involuntary actions in the peripheral NS

114
Q

what is the sympathetic NS

A

the “fight or flight” part of the autonomic peripheral nervous system

115
Q

what is the parasympathetic NS

A

the “rest and digest” part of the autonomic nervous system

116
Q

Parkinson’s disease is caused by

A

increased basal nuclei

117
Q

Huntington’s disease is caused by

A

decreased basal nuclei

118
Q

what is the function of the thalamus

A

the relay station of information

119
Q

where is the thalams

A

diencephalon, “head of bird”

120
Q

what is the hypothalamus function

A

maintain homeostatsis by controling hunger, temperature, sleep , thirst, and endocrine functions

121
Q

what does the epithalamus do

A

hold the pineal gland

122
Q

where is the epithalams

A

posterior diencephalon

123
Q

where is the midbrain

A

top of the brainstem

124
Q

where is the pons

A

the large circular area of the brainstem

125
Q

where is the medulla oblangata

A

connected to the spinal cord

126
Q

what is the function of the cerebellum

A

blanace and coordination

127
Q

list the order of meninges in the brain from deep to superficial

A

pia mater, arachnoid mater, dural sinus, dura mater

128
Q

where is the CSF located

A

subarachnoid space

129
Q

where is the conus medullaris

A

L1/L2

130
Q

these are nervous roots extending from inferior spinal cord

A

cauda equine

131
Q

list the order of meninges and spaces in the brain from deep to superficial

A

pia mater, subarachnoid space, subarachnoid mater, subdural space, dura space, epidural space

132
Q

the dorsal roots deal with

A

sensory information

133
Q

the ventral roots deal with

A

motor information

134
Q

is spinal nerve sensory, motor or both

A

both

135
Q

spinothalamic tract is

A

sensory/ascending

136
Q

corticospinal tract is

A

motor/descending

137
Q

how many cervical spinal nerves

A

8

138
Q

how many thoracic spinal nerves

A

12

139
Q

how many lumbar spinal nerves

A

5

140
Q

how many sacral spinal nerves

A

5

141
Q

how many coccygeal spinal nerves

A

1

142
Q

where is the phrenic nerve

A

C1-C4

143
Q

what is phrenic nerves motor innervation

A

diaphragm

144
Q

where is the radial nerve

A

brachial plexus

145
Q

what is radial nerves motor innervation

A

posterior upper arm, posterior forearm, posterior hand

146
Q

what compartment is the musculocutaneous nerve

A

brachial plexus

147
Q

what is the motor innervation of the musculocutaneous nerve

A

anterior upper arm

148
Q

what is the median nerve compartment

A

brachial plexus

149
Q

what is the innervation of the median nerve

A

anterior upper arm and anterior and lateral hand

150
Q

what is the compartment of the ulnar nerve

A

brachial plexus

151
Q

what is the innervations of the ulnar nerve

A

anterior forearm and anterior lateral hand

152
Q

what is the compartment of the sciatic nerve

A

sacral plexus

153
Q

what is the innervation of the sciatic nerve

A

posterior thigh

154
Q

what is the compartment of the femoral nerve

A

lumbar plexus

155
Q

what is the innveration of the femoral nerve

A

anterior hip and thigh

156
Q

what is the compartment of the tibial nerve

A

sacral plexus

157
Q

what is the innervation of the tibial nerve

A

posterior lower thigh

158
Q

CNII Name, S, M, or Both

A

Optic Nerve, S

159
Q

CNV Name, S, M, or Both

A

Trigeminal Nerve, muscles of mastication and facial sensation M

160
Q

CNVII name, S, M, or Both

A

Facial, M, taste, muscles of facial expression, lacrimal gland, and salivary gland

161
Q

CNX Name, S, M, or Both

A

Vagus, Mixed, Larynx, Trachea, Viscera, Aorta, Speech, Breathing, Swallowing

162
Q

CNXII Name, S, M, or Both

A

Hypoglossal Nerve, M, Muscles of Tongue

163
Q

how do hormones travel

A

secreted by cells into interstitial fluid, where they enter the bloodstream and bind to receptor on target cells

164
Q

what are the endocrine glands

A

hypothalamus, pituitary gland, thyroid gland, parathyroid gland, adrenal gland, pancreas, pineal, gonads

165
Q

where is the pituitary gland

A

in the sella turcica of the sphenoid bone

166
Q

where is the pineal gland

A

inferior to posterior corpus collosum

167
Q

where is the hypothalamus

A

inferior to thalamus in diencephalon

168
Q

what is the structural difference between anterior and posterior hypothalamus

A

anterior is larger and produces hormones where posterior is small and only secretes and stores hormones

169
Q

what is blood made of

A

plasma and formed elements

170
Q

what percent of blood is plasma

A

55%

171
Q

what pecent of blood is formed elements

A

45%

172
Q

what is the name for total blood volume of red blood cells in blood

A

hematocrit

173
Q

what is the average hematocrit

A

35-50%

174
Q

what are red blood made of

A

plasma membrane, cytosol, and hemaglobin

175
Q

what are the three types of granular luekocytes

A

basophils, eosinophils, neutrophils

176
Q

what do basophils do

A

inflammation and allergic reactions

177
Q

what do eosinophils do

A

combat allergic reaction and attack parasites

178
Q

what do neutrophils do

A

phagocytize bacteria

179
Q

what are the two types of agranular leukocytes

A

lymphocytes and monocytes

180
Q

what are lymphocytes

A

antibodies

181
Q

what are monocytes

A

they leave blood to become macrophages

182
Q

what are platelets

A

pieces of cells called megakaryocytes

183
Q

what happens if your blood is Rh(+) and you are exposed to the Rh(-)

A

produce the anti-Rh antibodies

184
Q

what happens if your blood is Rh(+) and you are exposed twice

A

anti-Rh antibodies will attack your blood cells

185
Q

The left coronary artery has these two branches

A

anterior interventricular and circumflex

186
Q

the right coronary arteries have these two branches

A

posterior interventricular and marginal

187
Q

what are the two tunics of the blood bessels

A

internal, media and externa

188
Q

what is tunica interna made of

A

simple squamous epithelial

189
Q

what is the tunica media composed of

A

smooth muscle and elastic fibers

190
Q

what is the tunic externa composed of

A

connective tissues

191
Q

these are the two types of anastomoses

A

arterial and atriovenous

192
Q

what is arterior anastomoses

A

2 arteries to 1 Capillary

193
Q

what is the atriovenous anastomoses

A

skipping the metarteriole and going straight to the venule

194
Q

what is a portal system

A

1 capillary network to another before going to the heart

195
Q

what are two examples of the portal systems

A

hyphyseal and hepatic