Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

anatomy > Final Exam Clinical Questions Unit 2 > Flashcards

Final Exam Clinical Questions Unit 2 Flashcards

1
Q

Osteitis deformans is excessive __________ __________ and __________

__________ are larger and contain more nuclei

A

Bone deposition and resorption

Osteoclasts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Excessive bone deposition causes excessive __________ activity

A

Osteoblast

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Excessive bone resorption causes excessive __________ activity

A

Osteoclast

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Anchondroplastic dwarfism

abnormal conversion from __________ to __________

A

Hyaline cartilage to bone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Anchondroplastic dwarfism is an __________ __________ disorder

A

Autosomal genetic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

In anchondroplastic dwarfism, __________ bones stop growing

A

Long

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

In achondroplastic dwarfism, the failure of __________ in 2nd and 3rd zones of __________ __________ to multiply

A

Chondrocytes, epiphyseal plate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

achondroplastic dwarfism causes inadequate__________ __________

A

Endochondral ossification

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Bone scans detect bone pathologies __________ than x rays

A

Faster

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

How much radiation do bone scans use?

A

A little

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

How is the radiation for bone scans delivered?

A

Intravenously

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

In bone scans, normal bone is what color?

A

Gray

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

in bone scans, darker areas indicate what?

A

Increase metabolism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

In bone scans, lighter areas iindicate what?

A

Decreased metabolsim

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Bone scans are also used for __________ and __________

A

Cancer, bone infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Cleft lip is the incomplete fusion of the __________ __________ of embryo

A

Upper jaw

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Cleft lip is more common in __________

A

Males

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What causes cleft lip?

A

Multifactorial, genetic or environment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Cleft palate is __________ __________ in midline of palate

A

Congenital fissure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Cleft palate causes what problems?

A

Swallowing, feeding

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

In cleft palate, food can easily travel from __________ cavity to __________ cavity

A

Oral, nasal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Is cleft lip or cleft palate less common?

A

Cleft palate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

In herniated disc, __________ portrudes through __________

A

Gelatinous nucleus pulposus, analus fibrosus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

In herniated disc, it pinches the __________ __________

A

Spinal cord

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Cervical herniated disc causes what pain?

A

Neck, upper limb

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Lumbar herniated disc causes what pain?

A

Lower back, sciata (entire lower limb)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

non-surgical treatment for herniated disc is

A

NSAIDs, non-steroidal anti inflammatory drugs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Surgical treatment for herniated discs are

A

Microdiscectomy, discectomy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What is removed in a discectomy?

A

Laminae

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Fracture of clavicle occurs at __________ joint

A

Sternoclavicular

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Anterior fracture of clavicle causes stress to __________ of bone

A

Mid-region

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Posterior fracture of clavicle can cause bone sphincters to penetrate __________ artery and vein

A

Subclavian

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Subclavian artery supplies __________ __________

A

Upper limb

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Which fracture of the clavicle is more serious? Anterior or posterior

A

Posterior

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What percent of adults have a sternal foramen?

A

4-10

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

sternal forman is an __________ __________

A

Ossification anomaly, failure of left and right ossification centers to fuse

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

The area of sternal foramen is used as an __________ __________

A

Acupuncture site

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Costal element of C7 elongates and forms rib
- compresses __________ artery

A

Axillary

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Extra pair of rubs form at __________

A

L1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Lacking __________ rub

A

12th rub

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Bifid ribs split into 2 pairs at __________
- __________

A

Sternum
asymptomatic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Colles fracture is fracture of __________. __________

A

distal radius

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

What is a scaphoid fracture?

A

Fracture of scaphoid,
splits into 2 pieces
only ONE piece remains blood supply

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Blood vessels are torn on __________ part of scaphoid
causes __________

A

Proximal
Avascular necrosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Avascular necrosis is death of __________ __________ due to low blood supply

  • can cause __________ disease
A

Bone tissue

Degenerative joint disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

A pott fracture is a fracture of __________ __________ or __________

A

Distal tibia or fibular

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

A pott fracture involves __________

A

Malleoli

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

A poor fracture is a result of __________
- damages __________ ligament
- breaks __________ __________

A

Inversion
Deltoid
Medial malleolus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Inversion in pott fracture causes __________ movement of foot
- damages __________ ligament
- breaks __________ shaft

A

lateral

lateral

fibular

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Bunion is swelling of __________ joint
- wearing shoes that fit too tightly

A

Metatarsophalangeal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

What is pes planus

A

Flat feet

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

What is pes cavus?
joints between __________ and __________ are overly extended

A

High longitudinal arches

Metatarsals and phalanges

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Talipes equinovarus is what?
Feet are __________

A

Congenital clubfoot

inverted

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Talipes equinovarus is due to not enough

A

Room in the womb

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

What is metatarsal stress fracture

A

Small crack on outer surface of bone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

What is polydactyl

A

Extra digits

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

What is ectrodactyl

A

Absence of a digit

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

What is syndactyl

A

Webbing, fusion of digits

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

What is amelia

A

Absence of a limb

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

at is meromelia

A

partial absense of a limb

61
Q

What drug causes limb malformation?

A

Thalidomide

62
Q

Cracking knucles is stretching or pulling __________ joint

A

Synovial

63
Q

Cracking knuckles causes joint volume to __________
pressure on fluid __________
causes __________ __________

A

Expand
Decreases
Partial vacuum

64
Q

__________ forms bubbles
cracking happens with bubbles pop

A

Cavitation

65
Q

Does cracking cause arthritis?

A

No

66
Q

Temporomandibular joint is when there are alterations in ligaments that secure joint, causing a displacement of __________ __________
- __________ noise is heard when person opens or closes mouth

A

Articular disc

popping

67
Q

TMJ disorder causes headaches, sinus pressure, pain in __________ sinuses, tympanic membrane, oral cavity, eyes, mouth

A

Paranasal

68
Q

TMJ is seen in people who __________

A

Chew gum, grind teeth

69
Q

Sublaxation is __________
- conact between bony joint surfaces is altered but they are still in partial contact

A

Incomplete dislocation

70
Q

In sublaxation of head of radius, head is pulled out of __________ ligament.
- pulled elbow
- happens in children because ligament is thin and head of radius is not fully formed

A

Anular

71
Q

Treatment of sublaxation of head of radius

A

“screw” radial head back into anular ligament

72
Q

What injruies to the knee are common?

A

Ligamentous

73
Q

__________ __________ ligament is injured when leg is forcibly abducted
- Turned laterally
- Causes __________ __________ to be injured as well

A

Tibial collateral

medial meniscus

74
Q

__________ __________ ligament is if medial side of knee is struck

A

Fibular collateral ligament

75
Q

Which ligament injury is rare?

A

Fibular collateral

76
Q

Anterior cruciate ligament injury occurs if leg is __________
- ACL is weak ligament

A

Hyperflexed

77
Q

What test is done to test for ACL tear?

A

Anterior drawer test

78
Q

Posterior cruciate ligament occurs if leg is __________ or if tibia is driven posteriorly

A

Hyperflexed

79
Q

Is PCL or ACL tear more common?

A

ACL

80
Q

What test is done to test for PCl tear?

A

Posterior drawer test

81
Q

Tear in meniscus can occur due to blow to the __________ or overuse of ligament

A

Knee

82
Q

Tear in meniscus is treated how?

A

Surgically

83
Q

The unhappy triad is what three injuries combined?

A

ACL, tibial collateral, medial mensicus

84
Q

What is arthroscopy?

A

Surgery where small incision is made in knee and arthroscope is inserted

85
Q

What is a sprain?

A

Stretching or tearing of ligaments without fracture or dislocation of joint

86
Q

Ankle sprain happens when foot is __________

A

Twisted

87
Q

In an ankle sprain, fibers of __________ ligaments are stretched or torn
- produces swelling anteroinferior to lateral __________

A

Lateral
malleolus

88
Q

LIgaments are composed of __________ CT which is __________

A

Dense regular, poorly vascularized

89
Q

What is arthritis?

A

Inflammatory or degenerative diseases of joints

90
Q

Gout arthritis is caused by an increased level of __________ __________ in blood
- Causes __________ __________ to accumulate in blood

A

Uric acid

Urate crystals

91
Q

Gout begins attack on a single joint, often the __________, and progresses

A

Big toe

92
Q

What is treatment of gout?

A

NSAIDs, clochicine to reduce uric acid levels

93
Q

Osteoarthritis is what?

A

Regenerative arthritis, wear and tear

94
Q

Osteoarthritis has prevalence in __________ __________ joints

A

Weight-bearing

95
Q

In Osteoarthritis, the __________ __________ breaks down first

A

Articular cartilage

96
Q

How is osteoarthritis treated?

A

NSAIDs, coricosteroid injections

97
Q

Rheumatoid arthritis is an __________ disorder

A

Autoimmune

98
Q

Rheumatoid arthritis starts with __________ __________ inflammation

A

Synovial membrane

99
Q

What is anklyosis?

A

Synovial membrane thickens, articular cartilage thickens, scar tissue forms, bones fuse together
- leads to immobilizing joint

100
Q

What is treatment for rheumatoid arthritis?

A

NSAIDs, corticosteroids
Methotrexate, hydroxychloroquine

101
Q

Tetanus is a form of __________ __________
- Caused by __________
- Toxin blocks release of inhibitory neurotransmitter called lycine in spinal cord, resulting in overstimulation of muscles

A

Spastic paralysis,
Clostridium tetani (anaerobbic)

102
Q

Tetanus causes __________ __________

A

Muscle contractions

103
Q

Botulism is __________ __________

A

Muscular paralysis

104
Q

Botulism is caused by what bacteria?

A

Clostridium botulinum

105
Q

Rigor mortis is when what?

A

Skeletal muscles lock into contracted position
Deceased person becomes irgid

106
Q

What is rigor mortis used for?

A

Establish time of death

107
Q

Fibromyalgia is chronic severe in __________ and __________

A

Skeleton and muscles

108
Q

Fibromyalgia also causess

A

Depression

109
Q

Muscular dystrophy is when

A

Skeletal muscles degenerate, lose strength

110
Q

In muscular dystrophy, skeletal muscles are replaced by __________ and __________

A

Adipose, fibrous CT

111
Q

Duchenne muscular dystrophy results from __________ alleles

A

Sex-linked

112
Q

DMD only occurs in __________
- Causes __________ of muscules

A

Males
Shortening

113
Q

DMD can cause

A

Scoliosis

114
Q

Is DMD curable?

A

No

115
Q

Gene that may be able to treat DMD

A

Dystrophin

116
Q

Myasthenia gravis is an __________ disorder that affects neuromuscular junctions

A

Autoimmune

117
Q

Myasthenia gravis affects __________ __________

A

Neuromuscular junctions and skeletal muscle function

118
Q

Myofascial pain syndrome is excessive use of __________ muscles

A

Postural

119
Q

MPS pain results when bands od muscles fibers __________ and __________ after overlying skin is stimulted

A

Tighten, twitch

120
Q

Idiopathic nerve paralysis is paralysis of what nerve?

A

Facial nerve CN VII

121
Q

What is facial nerve paralysis called?

A

Bells palsy

122
Q

CN VII paralysis has been asociated with __________ infection

A

Herpes, Lyme disease

123
Q

CN VII paralysis is also caused by

A

Sleeping with a side of head facing window, cold temperatures

124
Q

Treatment of CN VII paralysis

A

Prednisone to releive swelling of nerve

125
Q

Do people recover from CN VII paralysis?

A

Yes, 50% do

126
Q

What is strabismus?

A

When eyes are improperly aligned

127
Q

How does strabismus happen?

A

Eyes don’t work synchronously, one sends different image than other
- one of them gets ignored and gets weaker over time, results in lazy-eye

128
Q

What is strabismic ambylopia

A

When lazy eye loses visual acuity

129
Q

What causes strabismus?

A

Birth injuries, eye diseases, heritary

130
Q

How is strabismus treated?

A

Wear patch over stronger eye to force weaker eye to work harder

131
Q

Congenital muscular torticollis is what?

A

Shortened or tightened sternocleidomastoid muscle

132
Q

What are the treatments for muscular torticollis?

A

Botox, sternocelidomastoid release surgery, stretching affected muscles

133
Q

Paralysis of the diaphragm is caused by what?

A

Injury to critical parts of brain, spinal cold or phrenic nerves
- spinal cord injury at superior to 4th cervical vertebrae
- poliovirus

134
Q

What does paralysis of the diaphragm cause?

A

Cannot breathe

135
Q

What device helps with paralysis of diaphragm?

A

Iron lung

136
Q

A hernia is when a portion of the _________ protrudes through a weakened point of muscular wall of __________ cavity

A

Viscera. abdominopelvic

137
Q

If a hernia in the intestine swells and becomes trapped, __________ is diminished, causing it to die

This is called __________

A

Blood flow

Strangulated intestinal hernia

138
Q

direct Inguinal hernia: loop of __________ protrudes directly through __________
- not through entire length of inguinal canal
- creates a bulge in lower anterior abdominal wall

A

Small intestine, inguinal canal

139
Q

Indirectly inguinal hernia: herniation travels through entire length of __________ __________ and into __________

A

inguinal canal, scrotum

140
Q

Inguinal hernias follow path of __________ __________

A

Spermatic cord

141
Q

Femoral hernia occurs in __________ __________
- women are most commonly likely to develop
- wider femoral triangle

A

Upper thigh

142
Q

What is in epistiotomy?

A

Surgical incision between vagina and anus to prevent tearing

143
Q

What is the con of episiotomy?

A

Causes infection, bleeding, not much better than regular tearing

144
Q

shin splits in soreness or pain along __________

A

Tibia

145
Q

Causes of shin splits

  1. tendonitis involves __________ __________ muscle
  2. inflammation of __________, periostitis
A

Tibialis anterior

periosteum

146
Q

Compartment syndrome is when

A

Blood vessels in a limb becomes compressed due to muscle straight

147
Q

Ischemia

A

Reduced blood flow

148
Q

Ischemia leads to __________

A

Hypoxia

149
Q

what is hypoxia

A

Lack of oxygen within compartment

anatomy (21 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions