Final Blueprint Pt. 2 Flashcards

1
Q

what is anemia and RBC disorders anemia?

A

Anemia = the # of RBCs or hemoglobin concentrations are below normal value.

RBC disorders anemia: decreased blood O2 carrying ability (cyanosis is not common in kids). Hemodilution – causes blood to return to the heart (heart murmur, increased cardiac workload (leads to cardiac failure). Slow growth, delayed sexual maturation, decreased RBC production, increased RBC loss, and increased RBC destruction.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

what are the DX, TX, and care for anemia?

A

Diagnosis: physical exam (fatigue, decreased energy, pallor), CBC, and other DX labs and test.

Treatment: treat underlying cause, replace deficiency, RBC transfusion and fluids, O2 and bedrest.

Nursing considerations: detailed history, atraumatic care, education, and monitor for exertion and infection.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

what is iron deficiency anemia and the @ risk population?

A

not enough iron or a loss of iron.

@ Risk population = preterm infants, toddlers (excessive cow’s milk intake and inadequate nutrition), adolescents (poor eating habits, heavy menses, and obesity)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

what is the tx and nursing care for iron deficiency anemia?

A

Treatment: Ferrous iron oral supplements (3-6 mg/kg daily, >60 mg/kg severe toxicity  deferoxamine, polyethylene glycol whole bowl irrigation, gastric lavage, crystalloid infusion, vit K, and FFP), take with vit C, and don’t take with milk products. Parenteral and intramuscular iron (expensive, risk of anaphylaxis, test dose given, common S/E = headache). Packed RBCs (2-3 mL/kg). O2 for severe tissue hypoxia.

Nursing considerations: education = meds (side effects, precautions), diet and nutrition (iron-fortified cereal and high iron foods)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

what is beta thalassemia and its forms?

A

Microcytic anemia non-responsive to iron supplementation associated with people of Mediterranean origin.

Forms:
-Thalassemia minor: asymptomatic silent carrier
-Thalassemia trait: heterozygous and mild microcytic anemia
-Thalassemia intermedia: heterozygous or homozygous, moderate to severe anemia, and manifests as splenomegaly.
-Thalassemia major: AKA Cooley anemia, homozygous, and not compatible with life w/o transfusions.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

what are the CM for beta thalassemia?

A

Anemia (pre-diagnosis): pallor, unexplained fever, poor feeding, splenomegaly or hepatomegaly.

Progressive anemia: signs of chronic hypoxia (headache, precordial and bone pain, decreased exercise tolerance, listlessness, and anorexia).

Other CM: small stature, delayed sexual maturation, bronzed, freckled complexion

Bone changes (older kids): enlarged head, prominent malar eminences, flat or depressed bridge of nose, enlarged maxilla, protrusion of the lip and upper central incisors and eventual malocclusion. Generalized osteoporosis.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

what is the dx, tx, and nursing for beta thalassemia?

A

Diagnosis: HgB electrophoresis

Treatment: blood transfusions, chelation therapy (remove iron from tissues and blood, due to all blood transfusions), and splenectomy (when indicated).

Nursing considerations: promote transfusion and chelation therapy compliance, anxiety coping support for the kid b4 and during treatments and provide emotional support for the kid and family through their treatments.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

what is aplastic anemia (AA) and how is it acquired?

A

rare and life-threatening bone marrow failure

Congenital (Fanconi syndrome (rare, hereditary disorder)

Acquired: most cases are idiopathic, parvovirus, hepatitis, infection, irradiation, immune disorders, meds, chemicals, and leukemia or lymphomas can lead to this.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

what are the dx and S/S of AA?

A

Diagnosis: CBC w/ Diff (anemia, leukopenia, and decreased platelet count), blood smear, and bone marrow biopsy.

S/S: overwhelming infection, pallor and patchy brown or yellow skin, weak, fever, and dyspnea, and uncontrolled bleeding and ecchymosis.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

what is the tx and nursing for AA?

A

Treatment: restore bone marrow function (immunosuppressive therapy (IST)  antilymphocyte globulin (ALG) and antithymocyte globulin (ALG), bone marrow transplant (BMT), and HSCT.

Nursing considerations: education (disease, treatment, and central line access and care) and family and patient support.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

group of bleeding disorders with a deficiency of one or more factors necessary for blood coagulation prolonged bleeding.

A

hemophilia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

what are the types of hemophilia?

A

Factor VII Deficiency (hemophilia A)
-AKA classic hemophilia
-80-85% of all hemophiliacs
-Factor VII (AHF) is produced by the liver
-Longer periods of bleeding but not a faster rate
-Classified as severe, moderate, and mild

Factor IX Deficiency (hemophilia B)
-Produced by the liver
-AKA Christmas disease

Von Willebrand disease (vWD)
-Produced in endothelial cells
-vWD deficiency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

what is the DX and CMs for hemophilia?

A

Dx: prolonged bleed, HX of bleed, know X-linked inheritance, and labs = PTT, factor assays, and genetic test

Most common bleeding episodes

Joints (knees, elbows, and ankles): stiff, tingling, decreased ROM, warm to touch, red, and swell

After procedure or trauma: circumcision, injections, and epistaxis

SubQ and intramuscular hemorrhages

Spontaneous hematuria

Hematoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

what is the TX and nursing for hemophilia?

A

Tx: factor VII concentrates, Desmopressin (DDAVP), corticosteroids, Amicar, PT, home infusion, and high dose of factor for active bleeds.

Nursing: education (treat bleeds early, RICE, safety, gentle oral hygiene, med alert ID, SubQ injections when possible – NO IM, NO ASA OR NSAIDS, maintain healthy wt, and epistaxis treatment) and monitor for bleeding (HA, slurred speech, and LOC).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

what is kawasaki?

A

systemic vasculitis, ectasia (dilation of coronary artery leads to aneurysm (giant)), S/S = high fever, red eyes, ring around iris, strawberry tongue, rash (desquamates), and serious = MI, TX = high dose IVIG and salicylate therapy, and NC: grumpy kids, symptomatic, supportive.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

what are the mixed defects?

A

Transpositional of the great vessels (TGV), total anomalous pulmonary venous return (TAPVR), Truncus arteriosus, and hypoplastic L heart syndrome (HLHS)

Survival depends on mixing of blood from the pulmonary and systemic circulation within the heart, variable S/S depending on defect, cyanosis (although not always visible), CHF, and may require multiple surgeries (many times in the 1st week of life)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

what is TGV?

A

the Aorta exits off the R ventricle and the pulmonary artery off the L ventricle, no communication between the pulmonary and systemic circulations, incompatible with life unless another defect is present that allows the mixing of blood, rapid and sustained cyanosis, surgical repair (immediate), and IV prostaglandin E may be admin to maintain ductal patency until surgery (to force the PDA and ASD to stay open)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

what is TAPVR?

A

R atrium receives all the blood that normally would flow into the L atrium, R side of the heart hypertrophies, is overworked, and may cause a backup of blood in the lungs, L side of the heart, especially the L atrium, may remain small, generally have other defects, such as ASD or PDA, that will help the child by allowing more blood to get from the R side of the heart to the L side and out to the body, and if no other defects, immediate and progressive cyanosis and immediate surgical repair.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

what is truncus arteriosus?

A

during fetal development, failure of the pulmonary artery and aorta to divide, resulting in one single vessel that opens into both R and L ventricles. Resistance is less to pulmonary blood flow than to systemic blood flow, so more blood flow to the lungs. Moderate to severe CHF with variable cyanosis. Surgical repair in the 1st month of life, VSD is usually repaired 1st.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

what is HLHS?

A

second most common CHD, severe underdevelopment of the L side of the heart, aortic valve, aorta, L ventricle, and mitral valve. Pulmonary congestion and edema. Child will be asymptomatic until ductus arteriosus closes, then poor perfusion with cyanosis, tachypnea, and dyspnea. IV prostaglandin E to keep ductus arteriosus open until taken to surgery.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

what are the obstructive defects?

A

Coarctation of the aorta
Aortic stenosis
Pulmonic stenosis

22
Q

what is the normal bld flow through the heart?

A

Body > IVC: or head > SVC > R atrium > tricuspid valve > R ventricle > pulmonic valve > pulmonary veins > L atrium > mitral valve > L ventricle > aortic valve > aorta > body

23
Q

what is rheumatic fever and TX?

A

inflammatory disease of the heart, joints, skin, and CNS

Group B hemolytic strep (+ ASO)

Aschoff bodies: the lesions of rheumatic fever found around blood vessels in the myocardium

Mitral valve carditis, murmur, CHF possible

Polyarthritis

Rash: erythema marginatum (trunk/ext)

SubQ nodules

Chorea

TX: prevention of strep, cardiac damage prevention, recurrence prevention, and PenG

24
Q

what is the increased pulm bld flow?

A

ASD (atrial), VSD (ventricle), PDA, and AV canal

25
Q

what is patent ductus arteriosus?

A

fetal duct between the pulmonary artery and the aorta fails to close. May have no symptoms, but a murmur may be heard, and the child may develop CHF. May close spontaneously, if not, it may be closed medically with the admin of Indomethacin (Indocin), a prostaglandin inhibitor. If med is unsuccessful, surgery may be needed.

26
Q

what is ASD?

A

hole between the atria. May be a foramen ovule that has not closed at birth or a defect unrelated to the fetal duct. Most have no symptoms, but may develop CHF, if the ASD is large. A murmur may be heard. May ASDs close spontaneously. If not, surgery or interventional cardiology may be performed.

27
Q

what is VSD?

A

most common congenital heart defect. Hole between the ventricles. May have no symptoms, but a murmur may be heard, and the child may develop CHF. May close spontaneously, if not, it may be close medically with admin of Indomethacin (Indocin). If med is unsuccessful, surgery may be needed.

28
Q

what is AVC?

A

a large hole in the middle of the heart. S/S of progressively worsening CHF. Surgical repair is required.

29
Q

what are the decreased pulm bld flow?

A

Tetralogy of Fallot (TOF) and Tricuspid Atresia

30
Q

what is TOF?

A

Most common decreased pulmonary blood flow defect. Four defects: VSD, overriding aorta, pulmonary stenosis, R ventricular hypertrophy. R ventricular hypertrophy develops over time because the ventricle is working extra hard to circulate the blood.

31
Q

what are the TOF S/S?

A

TET spells (child becomes cyanotic especially when crying and while eating (infancy), and during play (older kids). Polycythemia (greater than normal # of circulating

32
Q

what is the treatment for TOF?

A

surgical repair (MUST)  don’t have to have it right away, few different surgeries because they cannot repair at the same time. Cyanosis that develops during a TET spell can be relieved when the legs and knees are bent, resulting in reduced blood flow to the lower body and improved blood flow to the vital organs. Infants should be placed in a knee-chest position. If defect has not been repaired, older kids usually squat instinctively.

33
Q

what is tricuspid atresia?

A

a closed tricuspid valve after birth. No movement of blood from the R atrium to the R ventricle. Incompatible with life unless another defect is present that allows mixing of the blood. Rapid and sustained cyanosis. Immediate surgical repair.

34
Q

what is the post cath care?

A

Stop bleeding
Immobilize extremity
Pulses (should increase grad)
VS
Neuro checks of extremities
Dressing checks of extremity
Dressing if bleeding pressure 1” above site
Bedrest 4-6 H
Keep baby’s legs straight for 6 H

35
Q

what is important to know about digoxin?

A
  • Half-life is short -1 ½ days to work
    Increases PRI
    50 mcg/mL, IV, PO
    HIGH TOXICITY
    Preemies more susceptible
    Need therapeutic range (0.8-2.0 mcg/L)
    K+ levels decrease = digoxin effects increase (take apical rate 1M)
    NO GIVE IF HR < 90 (small kid) and NO GIVE IF HR < 70 (older kid)
    NEVER give more than 1mL to an infant/ check 1 H b4, 2 H after meals (Q12H)
    If missed dose, give if within 4 H, if > 4 H give next dose at normal time

SE/Toxicity: Bradycardia, dysthymias, anorexia, N/V (if kid vomits dose, do not give another dose, instead give next dose at scheduled time), and visual disturbances.

36
Q

what is SCD?

A

Hereditary disorder where the RBCs are sickle or crescent-shaped due to the presence of hemoglobin S. (normal blood has HGB A, SCA = HGB S replaced HGB A.

Mostly African American descent (1 in 375 births) and Hispanics (1 in 1,200 births)

37
Q

what are the CM for SCD?

A

Vaso-occlusive crises (VOC): severe pain (might start out as soft pain), priapism, acute chest syndrome (ACS), and stroke (CVA)

Sequestration crises: splenic and hepatic, may cause hypovolemic shock.

Aplastic crises - causes extreme anemia

Hyper-hemolytic crises (anemia, jaundice, etc.)

38
Q

what is the DX, TX, and Nursing care for SCD?

A

Diagnosis: newborn screen, sickledex heel/ finger stick @ birth, and hemoglobin electrophoresis - if + on their sickledex.

Treatment: hydroxyurea (once a day, small dose), penicillin (BID), O2 (ONLY when hypoxic), rest, pain meds, hydration, electrolytes, blood transfusion (can exchange sickle cells with new cells), ABX, and splenectomy.

Nursing considerations: Pain Control. Education: hydration, meds, vaccinations, follow-up visits, associated risks, and fever monitoring. Psychosocial support: child life specialists, psychiatrists/psychologist, social workers, and school counseling.

39
Q

ulna and fibula when there is a fracture in the radius and tibia.

A

bend (plastic deformation)

40
Q

protrusion at the fracture site – usually by the epiphysis

A

buckle (torus fx)

41
Q

compressed side bed and makes the opposite side split – incomplete fracture (common in babies and little kids)

A

greenstick fx

42
Q

bone is completely broken but may be held together with periosteal hinge.

A

complete fx

43
Q

most common fx in kids?

A

growth plate

44
Q

what are the fx lines?

A

transverse-crosswise, oblique-slated but straight, and spiral-circular or twisted.

45
Q

what is traction, skeletal traction, and manual traction?

A

resist the response of the muscle, immobilization, alignment, and prevent contracture

Skeletal traction: cervical, 90-90, external fixators, halo (cage around head and neck, bolter into their head and skull)

Manual traction: cast application and closed reduction performed.

46
Q

hip dysplasia, weights holding straight up, legs held straight up with weights hanging from them.

A

bryant skin traction

47
Q

femoral fractures, weights at the end of bed. 90-90 – bucky boot, hip and knee at 90-degree angles.

A

bucks skin traction

48
Q

femoral fracture, knee in sling and weight on foot, uses a bucky boot.

A

russells skin traction

49
Q

what is coarctation of the aorta?

A

narrowed aorta, decreased cardiac output to low extremities and increased cardiac output to the upper extremities. Upper extremities (increased BP and bounding pulses). Lower extremities (cooler, low BP, and decreased pulses). Untreated = nose bleeds and leg pain.

50
Q

what is aortic stenosis?

A

listen for a bruit (in the neck), blood flow in body decreased and backed up in the L ventricle and lungs. Balloon angioplasty.

51
Q

what is pulmonic stenosis?

A

blood not flowing from the heart to the lungs, pressure on right side of heart, cyanosis during activity. Balloon angioplasty.