Favetta Fuckery Flashcards

1
Q

Describe the basic functional anatomy of the female reproductive tract (7)

A

1) ovaries
2) oviduct
3) uterus
4) cervix
5) vagina
6) clitoris and vulva
7) vascular arrangements

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2
Q

What is the female internal tubular genitalia (4)

A

oviduct, uterus, cervix and vagina

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3
Q

In cows, what is the relationship between productivity (milk production) and fertility (% conception rate)

A

inverse

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4
Q

What is the sequence of reproductive events in the female cow

A

1) puberty
2) cyclicity
3) pregnant
4) puerperium and lactation
5) repeat 2-4
6) reproductive senescence

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5
Q

What determines the macroscopic anatomy and histology of the female reproductive tract

A

age, reproductive status, and history

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6
Q

what part of the female repro tract is involved in gamete and hormone production

A

ovary

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7
Q

what part of the female repro tract is the environment for fertilization and early embryo development

A

oviduct

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8
Q

what part of the female repro tract is involved in transport and fetal development

A

uterus

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9
Q

what is the role of the cervix

A

barrier, stores sperm

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10
Q

what is the role of the female external genitalia

A

protection and sensory

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11
Q

what is the role of the mucosa

A

secretory

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12
Q

what is the role of the submucosa

A

housekeeping and support; nerves, lymphatics and blood vessels

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13
Q

what is the role of the muscularis

A

contraction (transports gametes and parturition)

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14
Q

what is the role of the adventitia/serosa

A

cover and containment

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15
Q

ovulation occurs at how many locations; what is the name for the specific location in the horse

A

one location in each ovary; ovulation fossa

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16
Q

T/F you can palpate the CL in the horse

A

F

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17
Q

what are the 3 regions of the oviduct

A

infundibulum, ampulla, isthmus

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18
Q

what covers the surface of the infundibulum

A

fimbriae

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19
Q

does the ampulla or the isthmus have a smaller diameter

A

isthmus

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20
Q

T/F the ampulla has ciliated and non-ciliated cells

A

T

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21
Q

what is characteristic of the ampulla

A

many mucosal folds

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22
Q

the __________ and __________ are connected via the ________________ junction

A

isthmus; uterus; uterotubal

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23
Q

what are the 4 primary functions of the oviduct

A

1) transport the oocyte and sperm to the ampulla for fertilization
2) maintain environment for unattached, unfertilized oocyte and embryos (hystiotrophe)
3) uterotubal junction prevents polyspermy
4) sustains functions of sperm until oocyte arrives

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24
Q

all domestic veterinary species except rabbits have what type of uterus

A

bicornuate

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25
Q

rabbits have what type of uterus

A

duplex

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26
Q

what are the 3 uterine layers and what do they correspond to

A

endometrium (mucosa and submucosa)
myometrium (muscularis)
perimetrium (serosa)

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27
Q

what is the difference between metritis and endometritis

A

endometritis is inflammation of the endometrium and glandular tissue, whereas metritis is inflammation of those layers plus the myometrium

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28
Q

what are the 5 main functions of the uterus

A

1) transport and store sperm
2) luteolysis and control of cyclicity
3) environment for pre-attachment embryos
4) maternal-fetal interactions via placenta
5) expulsion of the fetus and placenta

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29
Q

what species have cervical rings

A

cow, ewe, sow

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30
Q

the cervix has what type of epithelium

A

columnar

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31
Q

T/F some cervical cells are ciliated whereas others produce mucin-containing protein

A

T

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32
Q

what is unique about the mare cervix

A

longitudinal folds

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33
Q

what is unique about the sow cervix

A

interdigitating prominences

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34
Q

what are the 5 roles of the cervix

A

1) lubricates the vagina during copulation
2) produces a cervical seal of pregnancy
3) reduces the numbers of sperm
4) flushes out foreign material via cervical mucus
5) protects against infection

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35
Q

what species have a fornix

A

cow and mare

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36
Q

where is the clitoris

A

within the ventral commissure

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37
Q

nervous system and hormonal functioning regulates what two emotional processes

A

pleasure and reward

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38
Q

what is a hormone

A

chemical substance produced in one part of the body that diffuses or is transported to another site in the body where it influences activity and tends to integrate components

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39
Q

most reproductive hormones are secreted in a __________ manner

A

pulsatile

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40
Q

female hormones are secreted how

A

periodically in regular cycles

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41
Q

the half-life of reproductive hormones is relatively

A

short

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42
Q

T/F reproductive hormones influence processes in reproductive AND non-reproductive tissue

A

T

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43
Q

positive feedback goes to the ___________ center whereas negative feedback goes to the ________ center; both centers are located in the ___________________

A

surge; tonic; hypothalamus

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44
Q

reproductive hormones can be classified based on (3)

A

source (hypothalamus, pituitary, gonad); mode of action (releasing hormones, neurohormones, gonadotropins, sexual stimulants); biochemical classification

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45
Q

what is the process of formation of the steroid hormones

A

cholesterol -> progesterone -> testosterone -> estradiol

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46
Q

LH stimulates _____ cells to produce ___________ whereas FSH stimulates ___________ cells to produce _________________

A

theca; testosterone; granulosa; estradiol

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47
Q

_______ produces positive feedback whereas _______ and _________ together produce negative feedback on GnRH release

A

estradiol; estradiol and progesterone

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48
Q

what is the enzyme present in granulosa cells that converts testosterone to estradiol

A

aromatase

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49
Q

positive feedback from estradiol has what ultimate function

A

terminal follicular development, ovulation and early CL

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50
Q

how do protein reproductive hormones elicit their function (4)

A

1) bind receptor
2) activate adenylate cyclase
3) activate protein kinase
4) synthesis of new products

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51
Q

how do steroid hormones elicit their function (3)

A

1) transport of steroid through cell membrane and cytoplasm
2) binding to nuclear receptor
3) synthesis of new mRNA and protein

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52
Q

each female cycle starts and ends with

A

estrus

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53
Q

what is estrus characterized by

A

recurrent periods of receptivity to the male and repeated opportunities to become pregnant

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54
Q

long day breeders breed in the

A

spring

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55
Q

short day breeders breed in the

A

fall

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56
Q

bitches are ______________, queens are _______________, mares are ______________, cows are ____________ and ewes are ________

A

monoestrus; polyestrus; seasonal polyestrus (long day); polyestrus; seasonal polyestrus (short day)

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57
Q

the follicular phase consists of ________ and __________

A

proestrus and estrus

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58
Q

the luteal phase consists of ___________

A

diestrus (and metestrus - not in dogs)

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59
Q

the quiescent period of the female repro cycle is

A

anestrus

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60
Q

when does estradiol peak

A

in proestrus just before the onset of estrus

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61
Q

when does LH and FSH peak

A

in early estrus

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62
Q

T/F pregnancy status alters the duration of diestrus

A

F

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63
Q

when does the progesterone peak occur

A

diestrus

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64
Q

when does ovulation and fertilization occur

A

estrus

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65
Q

the dominant ovarian structure in the follicular phase is ___________ and the main hormone is ___________

A

large antral follicles; estrogen

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66
Q

the dominant ovarian structure in the luteal phase is ________ and the main hormone is ___________

A

CL; protesterone

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67
Q

what occurs in proestrus

A

maturation of follicles and estrogen secretion

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68
Q

what occurs in estrus

A

copulation and peak estrogen secretion

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69
Q

what occurs in metestrus

A

CL formation and beginning of progesterone secretion

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70
Q

what occurs in diestrus

A

secretion of progesterone

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71
Q

what are the 3 signs of sexual behaviour at heat

A

standing for mounting by a male; standing for mounting by another female; attempting to mount another female

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72
Q

what behaviour is associated with estrus

A

restless; licking and sniffing; chin pressing; vocalization and urination; winking (mare)

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73
Q

what are 3 visible physical signs of estrus

A

reddening of vaginal mucosa; discharge of cervical mucus from vulva; swelling of vulva

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74
Q

what two structures are we looking for on the ovary on palpation

A

antral follicles; corpus luteum

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75
Q

the cow has (increased/decreased) cervical and uterine tone during estrus and is (increased/decreased) at other times

A

increased; flaccid

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76
Q

the mare has (increased/decreased) cervical and uterine tone during estrus

A

decreased

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77
Q

LH has a single defined peak when

A

a few hours before ovulation

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78
Q

Τ/F FSH and LH are used as indicators of estrus stage very commonly

A

F

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79
Q

T/F FSH has various peaks during ovulation that vary by species

A

T

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80
Q

what are the 3 PHASES of the follicular wave

A

growing phase; static phase; regressing phase

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81
Q

what are the 4 STAGES of the follicular wave

A

recruitment, selection, dominance, atresia

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82
Q

recruitment: _____ FSH, ____ LH, ___ inhibin, _____ estradiol

A

high; low; no; no

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83
Q

selection: ___ FSH, ____ LH, ____ inhibin

A

low; moderate; low

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84
Q

dominance: ___ FSH, ____ LH, ____ inhibin

A

low; high; high

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85
Q

how does menses cycles differ from estrus cycles

A

1) period of menses
2) starts and ends with menses
3) no defined period of sexual receptivity

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86
Q

T/F endometrial sloughing occurs after estrus in unsuccessful animals

A

F

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87
Q

how do reflex ovulators differ from spontaneous ovulators

A

reflex: require stimulation of cervix or vagina for ovulation; usually longer period of copulation or more frequent copulation

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88
Q

the most GnRH release occurs during what stage of ovulation (follicular or luteal)

A

follicular

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89
Q

how is the ovary both endocrine and exocrine

A

exocrine: oocyte; endocrine: progesterone and estrogen production

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90
Q

what type of epithelium does the ovary have

A

simple squamous or cuboidal

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91
Q

where are the blood vessels and nerves in the ovary

A

medulla

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92
Q

starting with primoridial follicles, what stages does a follicle go through until the start of the next cycle

A

1) primoridial follicle
2) primary follicle
3) secondary follicle
4) tertiary/antral/graafian follicle

OVULATION

5) corpus heamorrhagicum
6) corpus luteum
7) corpus albicans
8) luteinized unovulated follicle or cyst

93
Q

before birth a __________ occyte, contained within a ________ follicle, arrested in ____________ of __________ exists in the ovary

A

primary; primoridial; prophase I; mitosis

94
Q

at the time of ovulation, the ovary contains a __________ oocyte, contained within a __________ follicle arrested in ___________ of _____________

A

secondary; mature/antral/graafian/tertiary; metaphase II; meiosis

95
Q

when do you first see a zona pellucida starting to form

A

primary follicle

96
Q

primoridial follicles have what type of granulosa cells

A

simple squamous follicular cells

97
Q

primary follicles have what type of granulosa cells

A

simple cuboidal

98
Q

when does the theca layer first start to form

A

primary follicles

99
Q

secondary follicles have what type of granulosa cells

A

more than 2 layers of cuboidal granulosa cells

100
Q

pre-antral and graafian follicles contain what type of granulosa cells

A

many layers of stratified granulosa cells

101
Q

the corpus luteum is formed from the luteinization of follicular cells: granulosa cells become _________ and theca cells become ________

A

large-granulosa lutein cells (GLC); small-theca lutein cells (TLC)

102
Q

regarding musculature: the infundibulum contains ________; the ampulla contains a ______ muscularis and the isthmus contains a _______ muscularis

A

smooth muscle cells; thin; thick

103
Q

the perimetrium serosa is a continuation of what ligament

A

the broad ligament of the uterus

104
Q

the uterus muscularis consists of inner ________ outer __________ smooth muscle layers; which layer is thicker?

A

circular; longitudinal; inner circular layer is thickest

105
Q

regarding the uterine layers: estrogens promote _____ whereas progesterone promotes __________

A

hyperplasia and growth; hypertrophy and secretion

106
Q

regarding endometrial glands: estrogen promotes _____ and ________ whereas progesterone promotes _______ and _________

A

growth; branching; coiling; secretion

107
Q

does the endometrium of monoestrous or polyestrous animals undergo greater degeneration and regeneration

A

monoestrous

108
Q

what are the two layers of the endometrium from superficial to deep

A

stratum cellulosum; stratum spongiosum

109
Q

what layer of the endometrium contains loose CT and why

A

the stratum spongiosum, allows for edema

110
Q

what separates the two layers of myometrium

A

stratum vasculare

111
Q

what domestic animal has a poorly developed stratum vasculare

A

sow

112
Q

the cervix contains _______ epithelium proximally and ________ epithelium distally

A

simple columnar; stratified squamous

113
Q

T/F the cervix has minimal vascularization

A

T

114
Q

the vagina mostly contains what type of epithelium proximally and what type distalle

A

simple columnar; stratified squamous

115
Q

during estrus, what changes in the vaginal epithelium

A

becomes keratinized

116
Q

during anestrus, what does the ovary look like

A

no ovulatory-sized follicles or corpora lutea present

117
Q

what are 3 ways to eliminate anestrus

A

improve nutrition, remove offspring, remove pathological conditions

118
Q

a freemartin is an example of

A

congenital anestrus

119
Q

why is a freemartin sterile

A

TDF from Y chromosome inhibits ovary development and MIF from male cells inhibits uterus formation

120
Q

what causes ovarian aplasia

A

gonadal ridge does not form correctly

121
Q

what causes ovarian hypoplasia

A

a single autosomal recessive gene

122
Q

what is the best way to ensure early return to cyclicity in beef cows

A

feeding pre-partum and good ante-partum nutrition

123
Q

seasonal anestrus is characterized by

A

hypothalamic dormancy with GnRH secretion

124
Q

how does long daylength cause anestrus in short day breeders

A

more light -> more firing of retinal nerves -> more excitation of SCG -> inhibition of pineal gland -> less melatonin -> less GnRH -> less FSH/LH -> anestrus

125
Q

what domestic animal species does not have lactational anestrus

A

mare

126
Q

suckling sessions of ______ per day promote return to cyclicity whereas __________ per day tend to prolong post-partum anestrus

A

2 or less; more than 2

127
Q

describe cystic endometrial hyperplasia

A

after estrus, progesterone causes the lining of the uterus to thicken; if pregnancy does not occur for several cycles the uterine lining thickens and develops cysts

128
Q

how does cystic endometrial hyperplasia predispose to pyometra

A

cysts secrete fluids that support bacterial growth; the thickened uterine wall cannot contract as easily to expel the bacteria

129
Q

luteolysis takes how many days

A

1-3

130
Q

what is the dominant hormone responsible for luteolysis

A

PGF2α

131
Q

T/F oxytocin and steroids control luteolysis

A

T

132
Q

what part of the uterus produces the majority of the factor required for luteolysis

A

the horn near the ovary with the CL

133
Q

if you remove the uterine horn ipsilateral to the CL, the lifespan of CL _________; if you remove the uterine horn contralateral to the CL, the lifespan of CL _________

A

increases; does not change

134
Q

________, produced by the ________, is carried by the __________ and transferred by passive diffusion to the __________ where it is taken to the ovary to cause luteolysis

A

PGF2α; uterine endometrium; utero-ovarian vein; ovarian artery

135
Q

__ ER and ___ PR = ___ OX-R and increase PGF2α

A

increased; decreased; increased

136
Q

what induced apoptosis of luteal cells

A

cytokines released by macrophages and lymphocytes

137
Q

animals receiving PGF2α during the growing phase will ovulate within ___ days whereas animals receiving PGF2α during the late static or regressing phase will ovulate within _____

A

3-4; 5-7

138
Q

what is the process that sperm goes through from immaturity to maturity in the seminiferous tubules

A

spermatogonia -> spermatocyte -> spermatid -> spermatozoa

139
Q

spermiogenesis begins in what cells in what structure of the testis

A

sertoli cells; seminiferous tubules

140
Q

spermatozoa mature in the

A

epididymis

141
Q

what 3 processes happen to mature spermatozoa

A

1) flagella develops
2) mitochondria concentrate around mid-piece
3) acrosomal cap

142
Q

what animals deposit sperm into the uterus

A

rodents, dog, pig, horse

143
Q

what animals deposit sperm into the cervix

A

cat, pig

144
Q

what animals deposit sperm into the vagina

A

cat, rabbit, sheep, cow, human

145
Q

what prevents sperm from the acidic environment of the vagina

A

buffering capacity of the semen

146
Q

how long does the buffering effect last

A

a few minutes

147
Q

what pH is optimal for sperm motility

A

6-6.5

148
Q

what regulates transport of sperm in the cervix

A

cervical mucus produced during estrus

149
Q

T/F the cervix protects sperm from the hostile environment of the vagina

A

T

150
Q

what are the two types of sperm transport through the cervix

A

1) rapid transport
2) slow release and transport

151
Q

what facilitates rapid transport through the cervix

A

sperm penetrating cervical mucus for quick transport through the cervical canal

152
Q

what is responsible for slow release and transport through the cervix

A

swimming of spermatozoa through the cervical mucus; sequential release of sperm from the cervical crypts

153
Q

where does fertilization occur

A

in the ampulla

154
Q

how many sperm surround the corona radiata

A

approx 12

155
Q

what 2 things help sperm penetrate the corona radiata

A

hyaluronidase and their motility

156
Q

what is the main things that prevents polyspermy

A

the zona pellucida

157
Q

what are all 3 roles of the zona pellucida

A

1) prevent polyspermy
2) allow substances to enter egg during first cleavage divisions
3) prevent premature implantation of embryo

158
Q

the acrosomal reaction is the orderly fusion of the __________ and the _________

A

spermatozoa plasma membrane; outer acrosomal membrane

159
Q

what two enzymes digest the ZP

A

hyaluronidase and acrosin

160
Q

what happens once the sperm reaches the perivitelline space

A

cortical granules are released to digest ZP protein and prevent polyspermy; sperm equatorial segment merges with oocyte PM and the sperm is engulfed

161
Q

what two blocks prevent polyspermy

A

fast block (rapid depolarization of oocyte PM) and slow block (cortical reaction)

162
Q

what happens during the cortical reaction

A

1) Ca++ wave
2) cortical granules release enzymes of polysaccharides
3) granule contents hydrolyze ZP proteins

163
Q

when does cleavage occur

A

24h after fertilization

164
Q

T/F cleavage is non-synchronous

A

T

165
Q

cleavage involves rapid cell divisions that convert the unicellular ________ to a multicellular _________; during this process there is ______ net growth

A

zygote; embryo; no

166
Q

what is the name for the resulting daughter cells formed by cleavage

A

blastomeres

167
Q

blastomeres up to the ___ cell phase are totipotent

A

8

168
Q

once a blastocyst is formed, the cells become arranged into (2)

A

1) embryoblast (inner cell mass)
2) trophoblast (becomes the placenta)

169
Q

blastocyst hatching should occur in what part of the female repro tract

A

uterus

170
Q

how does the embryo hatch

A

release of proteases degrades the ZP

171
Q

all embryos post fertilization should reach at least the __ cell stage

A

8

172
Q

what are the 3 pre-partum steps

A

1) formation of placenta
2) acquisition of the endocrine function of the placenta
3) initiation of parturition

173
Q

in what 2 ways can the placenta be classified

A

1) distribution of chorionic villi
2) number of layers separating the maternal and fetal blood

174
Q

what is the functional unit of the placenta

A

chorionic villus

175
Q

what are the 4 categories of placenta

A

1) diffuse
2) zonary
3) discoid
4) cotyledonary

176
Q

the mare has a _______ placenta, characterized by _____________ from _________ and __________ origin, that produce ____. this placenta develops between days ____ and _____ of pregnany

A

diffuse; endometrial cups; endometrial; trophoblastic; eCG; 35; 60

177
Q

cats and dogs have what type of placenta

A

zonary

178
Q

the zonary placenta consists of a ________ zone and a _______ zone

A

transfer; pigmented

179
Q

how does a zonary placenta look

A

band of chorionic villi

180
Q

primates and rodents have what type of placenta

A

discoid

181
Q

ruminants have what type of placenta

A

convex cotyledonary

182
Q

sheep and goats have what type of placenta

A

concave cotyledonary

183
Q

what are the 3 ways to classify the placenta based on tissue layers

A

epitheliochorial, endothelialchorial, hemochorial

184
Q

what animals have an epitheliochorial placenta

A

sow, mare

185
Q

what animals have an endothelialchorial placenta

A

dogs, cats

186
Q

ruminants have a __________ placenta, characterized by _____ cells, which produce (2)

A

syndesmochorial; binucleate giant cells; placental lactogen and steroids

187
Q

what 4 hormones does the placenta produce

A

placental lactogen, estrogen, progesterone, relaxin

188
Q

what animal placenta does NOT produce relaxin

A

cows

189
Q

what is the main signal to start parturition

A

fetal cortisol

190
Q

T/F progesterone inhibits myometrial contractions throughout pregnancy

A

T

191
Q

in what 2 domestic species is the CL not needed for the entire gestation

A

ewe and mare

192
Q

at what point is the CL no longer needed in cow

A

8 months

193
Q

describe the effects of fetal cortisol on estradiol

A

Fetal cortisol induces placental enzymes that convert progesterone -> estradiol. Estradiol then:

1) causes the placenta to secrete substances for lubrication
2) estradiol causes myometrial contractions that create pressure -> stimulates cervix to release oxytocin -> oxytocin causes maximum pressure

194
Q

what two substances does fetal cortisol increase right before parturition

A

1) estradiol
2) PGF2α

195
Q

what is the effect of PGF2α

A

1) luteolysis
2) stimulation of PGE2 and relaxin -> cervical dilation and stretching of pelvic ligament

196
Q

what is the effect of converting progesterone to estradiol

A

removes progesterone block -> myometrial contractions

197
Q

what 3 enzymes convert progesterone to estradiol

A

hydroxylase, aromatase, desmolase

198
Q

what 5 functions does fetal cortisol have on the fetus

A

1) increases surfactant production in lung
2) converts fetal to adult hemoglobin
3) increases deposition of glycogen
4) increases pancreas response to glucose
5) activates T3 generating enzymes

199
Q

what 3 hormones cause the udder to swell and fill with first milk

A

estrogens, glucocorticoids and prolactin

200
Q

what are the 3 stages of pregnancy

A

1) dilation of cervix
2) expulsion of fetus
3) expulsion of placenta

201
Q

what hormone is mainly responsible for contractions during parturition

A

oxytocin

202
Q

during the first stage of parturition, the __________ ruptures, resulting in the first water bag; during the second stage of parturition, the ______ ruptures, resulting in the second water bag

A

chorioallantois; amnion

203
Q

What is puerperium? When does it start and when does it end

A

Period when uterus returns to its non-pregnant condition. Starts after parturition and continues until the next pregnancy

204
Q

what is the process by which the uterus reduces to its non-pregnant size and state

A

involution

205
Q

___________ is the normal discharge of _______, ________ and _______ from the vagina after birth

A

lochia; blood, mucus and tissue

206
Q

when is the most lochia produced in cows

A

first 48 hours after calving

207
Q

on day ___, lochia changes colour to __________; by day _____, lochia changes to _________________

A

dark yellow or brown; 10 red-grey

208
Q

what are 3 characteristics of abnormal discharge after pregnancy

A

continues after 20 days; smells; contains purulent material

209
Q

uterine involution ranges from ________ weeks, with an average of _______ weeks

A

2-8; 5-6

210
Q

what are the processes occuring during uterine involution

A

endometrial sloughing; contractions; tissue reorganization and regrowth

211
Q

describe post-partum uterine contractions

A

within first 24h: occur every 3-5 min; barely noticable after 3-5 dats

212
Q

in ruminants, what area of the endometrium is first to undergo regeneration

A

intercaruncular areas

213
Q

complete restoration of the intercaruncular area takes

A

up to 35 days

214
Q

most restoration of the uterine lining occurs by _____ to ____ days after calving; regression to the normal size is complete by ____ to ____ days postpartum

A

20-30; 50-60

215
Q

what 3 conditions predispose to uterine infections

A

1) retained placenta
2) delayed lochial expulsion
3) dystocia

216
Q

T/F pharmaceutical treatment is the best cure for uterine infection

A

F

217
Q

what are the functional secretory units of the mammary gland

A

alveoli

218
Q

_____________ growth of mammary glands occurs between birth and puberty whereas _____________ growth of mammary glands occurs between puberty and pregnancy

A

isometric; allometric

219
Q

what does estrogen do to the mammary gland

A

cause ductal branching and increase in duct diameter

219
Q

what does progesterone do to the mammary gland

A

causes the formation of alveoli

220
Q

what 3 hormones are involved in mammary duct development

A

estrogen; prolactin; growth hormone

221
Q

describe the milk ejection reflex

A

suckling -> afferent neurons -> hypothalamus PVN -> posterior pituitary -> oxytocin -> myoepithelial cells of alveolus -> contraction

222
Q

what causes secretory cells to become less functional? what is the consequence?

A

less suckling = buildup of pressure; mammary involution

223
Q

T/F in 50% of cows, behavioral estrus is not expressed with the first post-partum ovulation

A

T

224
Q

___ of cows have ovulated by 25 days and ____ by 50 days postpartum

A

75%; 95%

225
Q

the placenta is usually expelled within the first ___ hours after calving

A

6

226
Q

anestrus may be observed when the level of body fat is (high/low) due to the effects of ________

A

low; leptin

227
Q

you have a canine patient with persistent discharge; what do you suspect?

A

subinvolution of placental sites