Favetta Fuckery Flashcards
Describe the basic functional anatomy of the female reproductive tract (7)
1) ovaries
2) oviduct
3) uterus
4) cervix
5) vagina
6) clitoris and vulva
7) vascular arrangements
What is the female internal tubular genitalia (4)
oviduct, uterus, cervix and vagina
In cows, what is the relationship between productivity (milk production) and fertility (% conception rate)
inverse
What is the sequence of reproductive events in the female cow
1) puberty
2) cyclicity
3) pregnant
4) puerperium and lactation
5) repeat 2-4
6) reproductive senescence
What determines the macroscopic anatomy and histology of the female reproductive tract
age, reproductive status, and history
what part of the female repro tract is involved in gamete and hormone production
ovary
what part of the female repro tract is the environment for fertilization and early embryo development
oviduct
what part of the female repro tract is involved in transport and fetal development
uterus
what is the role of the cervix
barrier, stores sperm
what is the role of the female external genitalia
protection and sensory
what is the role of the mucosa
secretory
what is the role of the submucosa
housekeeping and support; nerves, lymphatics and blood vessels
what is the role of the muscularis
contraction (transports gametes and parturition)
what is the role of the adventitia/serosa
cover and containment
ovulation occurs at how many locations; what is the name for the specific location in the horse
one location in each ovary; ovulation fossa
T/F you can palpate the CL in the horse
F
what are the 3 regions of the oviduct
infundibulum, ampulla, isthmus
what covers the surface of the infundibulum
fimbriae
does the ampulla or the isthmus have a smaller diameter
isthmus
T/F the ampulla has ciliated and non-ciliated cells
T
what is characteristic of the ampulla
many mucosal folds
the __________ and __________ are connected via the ________________ junction
isthmus; uterus; uterotubal
what are the 4 primary functions of the oviduct
1) transport the oocyte and sperm to the ampulla for fertilization
2) maintain environment for unattached, unfertilized oocyte and embryos (hystiotrophe)
3) uterotubal junction prevents polyspermy
4) sustains functions of sperm until oocyte arrives
all domestic veterinary species except rabbits have what type of uterus
bicornuate
rabbits have what type of uterus
duplex
what are the 3 uterine layers and what do they correspond to
endometrium (mucosa and submucosa)
myometrium (muscularis)
perimetrium (serosa)
what is the difference between metritis and endometritis
endometritis is inflammation of the endometrium and glandular tissue, whereas metritis is inflammation of those layers plus the myometrium
what are the 5 main functions of the uterus
1) transport and store sperm
2) luteolysis and control of cyclicity
3) environment for pre-attachment embryos
4) maternal-fetal interactions via placenta
5) expulsion of the fetus and placenta
what species have cervical rings
cow, ewe, sow
the cervix has what type of epithelium
columnar
T/F some cervical cells are ciliated whereas others produce mucin-containing protein
T
what is unique about the mare cervix
longitudinal folds
what is unique about the sow cervix
interdigitating prominences
what are the 5 roles of the cervix
1) lubricates the vagina during copulation
2) produces a cervical seal of pregnancy
3) reduces the numbers of sperm
4) flushes out foreign material via cervical mucus
5) protects against infection
what species have a fornix
cow and mare
where is the clitoris
within the ventral commissure
nervous system and hormonal functioning regulates what two emotional processes
pleasure and reward
what is a hormone
chemical substance produced in one part of the body that diffuses or is transported to another site in the body where it influences activity and tends to integrate components
most reproductive hormones are secreted in a __________ manner
pulsatile
female hormones are secreted how
periodically in regular cycles
the half-life of reproductive hormones is relatively
short
T/F reproductive hormones influence processes in reproductive AND non-reproductive tissue
T
positive feedback goes to the ___________ center whereas negative feedback goes to the ________ center; both centers are located in the ___________________
surge; tonic; hypothalamus
reproductive hormones can be classified based on (3)
source (hypothalamus, pituitary, gonad); mode of action (releasing hormones, neurohormones, gonadotropins, sexual stimulants); biochemical classification
what is the process of formation of the steroid hormones
cholesterol -> progesterone -> testosterone -> estradiol
LH stimulates _____ cells to produce ___________ whereas FSH stimulates ___________ cells to produce _________________
theca; testosterone; granulosa; estradiol
_______ produces positive feedback whereas _______ and _________ together produce negative feedback on GnRH release
estradiol; estradiol and progesterone
what is the enzyme present in granulosa cells that converts testosterone to estradiol
aromatase
positive feedback from estradiol has what ultimate function
terminal follicular development, ovulation and early CL
how do protein reproductive hormones elicit their function (4)
1) bind receptor
2) activate adenylate cyclase
3) activate protein kinase
4) synthesis of new products
how do steroid hormones elicit their function (3)
1) transport of steroid through cell membrane and cytoplasm
2) binding to nuclear receptor
3) synthesis of new mRNA and protein
each female cycle starts and ends with
estrus
what is estrus characterized by
recurrent periods of receptivity to the male and repeated opportunities to become pregnant
long day breeders breed in the
spring
short day breeders breed in the
fall
bitches are ______________, queens are _______________, mares are ______________, cows are ____________ and ewes are ________
monoestrus; polyestrus; seasonal polyestrus (long day); polyestrus; seasonal polyestrus (short day)
the follicular phase consists of ________ and __________
proestrus and estrus
the luteal phase consists of ___________
diestrus (and metestrus - not in dogs)
the quiescent period of the female repro cycle is
anestrus
when does estradiol peak
in proestrus just before the onset of estrus
when does LH and FSH peak
in early estrus
T/F pregnancy status alters the duration of diestrus
F
when does the progesterone peak occur
diestrus
when does ovulation and fertilization occur
estrus
the dominant ovarian structure in the follicular phase is ___________ and the main hormone is ___________
large antral follicles; estrogen
the dominant ovarian structure in the luteal phase is ________ and the main hormone is ___________
CL; protesterone
what occurs in proestrus
maturation of follicles and estrogen secretion
what occurs in estrus
copulation and peak estrogen secretion
what occurs in metestrus
CL formation and beginning of progesterone secretion
what occurs in diestrus
secretion of progesterone
what are the 3 signs of sexual behaviour at heat
standing for mounting by a male; standing for mounting by another female; attempting to mount another female
what behaviour is associated with estrus
restless; licking and sniffing; chin pressing; vocalization and urination; winking (mare)
what are 3 visible physical signs of estrus
reddening of vaginal mucosa; discharge of cervical mucus from vulva; swelling of vulva
what two structures are we looking for on the ovary on palpation
antral follicles; corpus luteum
the cow has (increased/decreased) cervical and uterine tone during estrus and is (increased/decreased) at other times
increased; flaccid
the mare has (increased/decreased) cervical and uterine tone during estrus
decreased
LH has a single defined peak when
a few hours before ovulation
Τ/F FSH and LH are used as indicators of estrus stage very commonly
F
T/F FSH has various peaks during ovulation that vary by species
T
what are the 3 PHASES of the follicular wave
growing phase; static phase; regressing phase
what are the 4 STAGES of the follicular wave
recruitment, selection, dominance, atresia
recruitment: _____ FSH, ____ LH, ___ inhibin, _____ estradiol
high; low; no; no
selection: ___ FSH, ____ LH, ____ inhibin
low; moderate; low
dominance: ___ FSH, ____ LH, ____ inhibin
low; high; high
how does menses cycles differ from estrus cycles
1) period of menses
2) starts and ends with menses
3) no defined period of sexual receptivity
T/F endometrial sloughing occurs after estrus in unsuccessful animals
F
how do reflex ovulators differ from spontaneous ovulators
reflex: require stimulation of cervix or vagina for ovulation; usually longer period of copulation or more frequent copulation
the most GnRH release occurs during what stage of ovulation (follicular or luteal)
follicular
how is the ovary both endocrine and exocrine
exocrine: oocyte; endocrine: progesterone and estrogen production
what type of epithelium does the ovary have
simple squamous or cuboidal
where are the blood vessels and nerves in the ovary
medulla
starting with primoridial follicles, what stages does a follicle go through until the start of the next cycle
1) primoridial follicle
2) primary follicle
3) secondary follicle
4) tertiary/antral/graafian follicle
OVULATION
5) corpus heamorrhagicum
6) corpus luteum
7) corpus albicans
8) luteinized unovulated follicle or cyst
before birth a __________ occyte, contained within a ________ follicle, arrested in ____________ of __________ exists in the ovary
primary; primoridial; prophase I; mitosis
at the time of ovulation, the ovary contains a __________ oocyte, contained within a __________ follicle arrested in ___________ of _____________
secondary; mature/antral/graafian/tertiary; metaphase II; meiosis
when do you first see a zona pellucida starting to form
primary follicle
primoridial follicles have what type of granulosa cells
simple squamous follicular cells
primary follicles have what type of granulosa cells
simple cuboidal
when does the theca layer first start to form
primary follicles
secondary follicles have what type of granulosa cells
more than 2 layers of cuboidal granulosa cells
pre-antral and graafian follicles contain what type of granulosa cells
many layers of stratified granulosa cells
the corpus luteum is formed from the luteinization of follicular cells: granulosa cells become _________ and theca cells become ________
large-granulosa lutein cells (GLC); small-theca lutein cells (TLC)
regarding musculature: the infundibulum contains ________; the ampulla contains a ______ muscularis and the isthmus contains a _______ muscularis
smooth muscle cells; thin; thick
the perimetrium serosa is a continuation of what ligament
the broad ligament of the uterus
the uterus muscularis consists of inner ________ outer __________ smooth muscle layers; which layer is thicker?
circular; longitudinal; inner circular layer is thickest
regarding the uterine layers: estrogens promote _____ whereas progesterone promotes __________
hyperplasia and growth; hypertrophy and secretion
regarding endometrial glands: estrogen promotes _____ and ________ whereas progesterone promotes _______ and _________
growth; branching; coiling; secretion
does the endometrium of monoestrous or polyestrous animals undergo greater degeneration and regeneration
monoestrous
what are the two layers of the endometrium from superficial to deep
stratum cellulosum; stratum spongiosum
what layer of the endometrium contains loose CT and why
the stratum spongiosum, allows for edema
what separates the two layers of myometrium
stratum vasculare
what domestic animal has a poorly developed stratum vasculare
sow
the cervix contains _______ epithelium proximally and ________ epithelium distally
simple columnar; stratified squamous
T/F the cervix has minimal vascularization
T
the vagina mostly contains what type of epithelium proximally and what type distalle
simple columnar; stratified squamous
during estrus, what changes in the vaginal epithelium
becomes keratinized
during anestrus, what does the ovary look like
no ovulatory-sized follicles or corpora lutea present
what are 3 ways to eliminate anestrus
improve nutrition, remove offspring, remove pathological conditions
a freemartin is an example of
congenital anestrus
why is a freemartin sterile
TDF from Y chromosome inhibits ovary development and MIF from male cells inhibits uterus formation
what causes ovarian aplasia
gonadal ridge does not form correctly
what causes ovarian hypoplasia
a single autosomal recessive gene
what is the best way to ensure early return to cyclicity in beef cows
feeding pre-partum and good ante-partum nutrition
seasonal anestrus is characterized by
hypothalamic dormancy with GnRH secretion
how does long daylength cause anestrus in short day breeders
more light -> more firing of retinal nerves -> more excitation of SCG -> inhibition of pineal gland -> less melatonin -> less GnRH -> less FSH/LH -> anestrus
what domestic animal species does not have lactational anestrus
mare
suckling sessions of ______ per day promote return to cyclicity whereas __________ per day tend to prolong post-partum anestrus
2 or less; more than 2
describe cystic endometrial hyperplasia
after estrus, progesterone causes the lining of the uterus to thicken; if pregnancy does not occur for several cycles the uterine lining thickens and develops cysts
how does cystic endometrial hyperplasia predispose to pyometra
cysts secrete fluids that support bacterial growth; the thickened uterine wall cannot contract as easily to expel the bacteria
luteolysis takes how many days
1-3
what is the dominant hormone responsible for luteolysis
PGF2α
T/F oxytocin and steroids control luteolysis
T
what part of the uterus produces the majority of the factor required for luteolysis
the horn near the ovary with the CL
if you remove the uterine horn ipsilateral to the CL, the lifespan of CL _________; if you remove the uterine horn contralateral to the CL, the lifespan of CL _________
increases; does not change
________, produced by the ________, is carried by the __________ and transferred by passive diffusion to the __________ where it is taken to the ovary to cause luteolysis
PGF2α; uterine endometrium; utero-ovarian vein; ovarian artery
__ ER and ___ PR = ___ OX-R and increase PGF2α
increased; decreased; increased
what induced apoptosis of luteal cells
cytokines released by macrophages and lymphocytes
animals receiving PGF2α during the growing phase will ovulate within ___ days whereas animals receiving PGF2α during the late static or regressing phase will ovulate within _____
3-4; 5-7
what is the process that sperm goes through from immaturity to maturity in the seminiferous tubules
spermatogonia -> spermatocyte -> spermatid -> spermatozoa
spermiogenesis begins in what cells in what structure of the testis
sertoli cells; seminiferous tubules
spermatozoa mature in the
epididymis
what 3 processes happen to mature spermatozoa
1) flagella develops
2) mitochondria concentrate around mid-piece
3) acrosomal cap
what animals deposit sperm into the uterus
rodents, dog, pig, horse
what animals deposit sperm into the cervix
cat, pig
what animals deposit sperm into the vagina
cat, rabbit, sheep, cow, human
what prevents sperm from the acidic environment of the vagina
buffering capacity of the semen
how long does the buffering effect last
a few minutes
what pH is optimal for sperm motility
6-6.5
what regulates transport of sperm in the cervix
cervical mucus produced during estrus
T/F the cervix protects sperm from the hostile environment of the vagina
T
what are the two types of sperm transport through the cervix
1) rapid transport
2) slow release and transport
what facilitates rapid transport through the cervix
sperm penetrating cervical mucus for quick transport through the cervical canal
what is responsible for slow release and transport through the cervix
swimming of spermatozoa through the cervical mucus; sequential release of sperm from the cervical crypts
where does fertilization occur
in the ampulla
how many sperm surround the corona radiata
approx 12
what 2 things help sperm penetrate the corona radiata
hyaluronidase and their motility
what is the main things that prevents polyspermy
the zona pellucida
what are all 3 roles of the zona pellucida
1) prevent polyspermy
2) allow substances to enter egg during first cleavage divisions
3) prevent premature implantation of embryo
the acrosomal reaction is the orderly fusion of the __________ and the _________
spermatozoa plasma membrane; outer acrosomal membrane
what two enzymes digest the ZP
hyaluronidase and acrosin
what happens once the sperm reaches the perivitelline space
cortical granules are released to digest ZP protein and prevent polyspermy; sperm equatorial segment merges with oocyte PM and the sperm is engulfed
what two blocks prevent polyspermy
fast block (rapid depolarization of oocyte PM) and slow block (cortical reaction)
what happens during the cortical reaction
1) Ca++ wave
2) cortical granules release enzymes of polysaccharides
3) granule contents hydrolyze ZP proteins
when does cleavage occur
24h after fertilization
T/F cleavage is non-synchronous
T
cleavage involves rapid cell divisions that convert the unicellular ________ to a multicellular _________; during this process there is ______ net growth
zygote; embryo; no
what is the name for the resulting daughter cells formed by cleavage
blastomeres
blastomeres up to the ___ cell phase are totipotent
8
once a blastocyst is formed, the cells become arranged into (2)
1) embryoblast (inner cell mass)
2) trophoblast (becomes the placenta)
blastocyst hatching should occur in what part of the female repro tract
uterus
how does the embryo hatch
release of proteases degrades the ZP
all embryos post fertilization should reach at least the __ cell stage
8
what are the 3 pre-partum steps
1) formation of placenta
2) acquisition of the endocrine function of the placenta
3) initiation of parturition
in what 2 ways can the placenta be classified
1) distribution of chorionic villi
2) number of layers separating the maternal and fetal blood
what is the functional unit of the placenta
chorionic villus
what are the 4 categories of placenta
1) diffuse
2) zonary
3) discoid
4) cotyledonary
the mare has a _______ placenta, characterized by _____________ from _________ and __________ origin, that produce ____. this placenta develops between days ____ and _____ of pregnany
diffuse; endometrial cups; endometrial; trophoblastic; eCG; 35; 60
cats and dogs have what type of placenta
zonary
the zonary placenta consists of a ________ zone and a _______ zone
transfer; pigmented
how does a zonary placenta look
band of chorionic villi
primates and rodents have what type of placenta
discoid
ruminants have what type of placenta
convex cotyledonary
sheep and goats have what type of placenta
concave cotyledonary
what are the 3 ways to classify the placenta based on tissue layers
epitheliochorial, endothelialchorial, hemochorial
what animals have an epitheliochorial placenta
sow, mare
what animals have an endothelialchorial placenta
dogs, cats
ruminants have a __________ placenta, characterized by _____ cells, which produce (2)
syndesmochorial; binucleate giant cells; placental lactogen and steroids
what 4 hormones does the placenta produce
placental lactogen, estrogen, progesterone, relaxin
what animal placenta does NOT produce relaxin
cows
what is the main signal to start parturition
fetal cortisol
T/F progesterone inhibits myometrial contractions throughout pregnancy
T
in what 2 domestic species is the CL not needed for the entire gestation
ewe and mare
at what point is the CL no longer needed in cow
8 months
describe the effects of fetal cortisol on estradiol
Fetal cortisol induces placental enzymes that convert progesterone -> estradiol. Estradiol then:
1) causes the placenta to secrete substances for lubrication
2) estradiol causes myometrial contractions that create pressure -> stimulates cervix to release oxytocin -> oxytocin causes maximum pressure
what two substances does fetal cortisol increase right before parturition
1) estradiol
2) PGF2α
what is the effect of PGF2α
1) luteolysis
2) stimulation of PGE2 and relaxin -> cervical dilation and stretching of pelvic ligament
what is the effect of converting progesterone to estradiol
removes progesterone block -> myometrial contractions
what 3 enzymes convert progesterone to estradiol
hydroxylase, aromatase, desmolase
what 5 functions does fetal cortisol have on the fetus
1) increases surfactant production in lung
2) converts fetal to adult hemoglobin
3) increases deposition of glycogen
4) increases pancreas response to glucose
5) activates T3 generating enzymes
what 3 hormones cause the udder to swell and fill with first milk
estrogens, glucocorticoids and prolactin
what are the 3 stages of parturition
1) dilation of cervix
2) expulsion of fetus
3) expulsion of placenta
what hormone is mainly responsible for contractions during parturition
oxytocin
during the first stage of parturition, the __________ ruptures, resulting in the first water bag; during the second stage of parturition, the ______ ruptures, resulting in the second water bag
chorioallantois; amnion
What is puerperium? When does it start and when does it end
Period when uterus returns to its non-pregnant condition. Starts after parturition and continues until the next pregnancy
what is the process by which the uterus reduces to its non-pregnant size and state
involution
___________ is the normal discharge of _______, ________ and _______ from the vagina after birth
lochia; blood, mucus and tissue
when is the most lochia produced in cows
first 48 hours after calving
on day ___, lochia changes colour to __________; by day _____, lochia changes to _________________
dark yellow or brown; 10 red-grey
what are 3 characteristics of abnormal discharge after pregnancy
continues after 20 days; smells; contains purulent material
uterine involution ranges from ________ weeks, with an average of _______ weeks
2-8; 5-6
what are the processes occuring during uterine involution
endometrial sloughing; contractions; tissue reorganization and regrowth
describe post-partum uterine contractions
within first 24h: occur every 3-5 min; barely noticable after 3-5 dats
in ruminants, what area of the endometrium is first to undergo regeneration
intercaruncular areas
complete restoration of the intercaruncular area takes
up to 35 days
most restoration of the uterine lining occurs by _____ to ____ days after calving; regression to the normal size is complete by ____ to ____ days postpartum
20-30; 50-60
what 3 conditions predispose to uterine infections
1) retained placenta
2) delayed lochial expulsion
3) dystocia
T/F pharmaceutical treatment is the best cure for uterine infection
F
what are the functional secretory units of the mammary gland
alveoli
_____________ growth of mammary glands occurs between birth and puberty whereas _____________ growth of mammary glands occurs between puberty and pregnancy
isometric; allometric
what does estrogen do to the mammary gland
cause ductal branching and increase in duct diameter
what does progesterone do to the mammary gland
causes the formation of alveoli
what 3 hormones are involved in mammary duct development
estrogen; prolactin; growth hormone
describe the milk ejection reflex
suckling -> afferent neurons -> hypothalamus PVN -> posterior pituitary -> oxytocin -> myoepithelial cells of alveolus -> contraction
what causes secretory cells within the mammary gland to become less functional? what is the consequence?
less suckling = buildup of pressure; mammary involution
T/F in 50% of cows, behavioral estrus is not expressed with the first post-partum ovulation
T
___ of cows have ovulated by 25 days and ____ by 50 days postpartum
75%; 95%
the placenta is usually expelled within the first ___ hours after calving
6
anestrus may be observed when the level of body fat is (high/low) due to the effects of ________
low; leptin
you have a canine patient with persistent discharge; what do you suspect?
subinvolution of placental sites
