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Theriogenology > Failure of Pregnancy > Flashcards

Failure of Pregnancy Flashcards

1
Q

what should be the general approach to pregnancy failure (3)

A

1) initial discussions
2) clinical investigation
3) treatment or recommendations

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2
Q

What is involved in initial discussions

A

1) zoonoses risk
2) is it really a problem
3) cost-benefit analysis
4) discuss isolation

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3
Q

if there is an outbreak, the probability of finding the cause is (high/low); if there is a sporadic case, the probability of finding the cause is (high/low)

A

high; low

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4
Q

what is the approach to a clinical investigation

A

1) history
2) precautions to prevent zoonoses
3) determine common diseases
4) examine mother, fetus, placenta
5) diagnostic testing
6) final diagnosis

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5
Q

what is the clinical sign of embryonic death

A

return to estrus

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6
Q

infectious causes of embryonic death are usually (early/late) whereas non-infectious causes of embryonic death are usually (early/late)

A

infectious = early
non-infectious = late

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7
Q

what parts of the approach to FOP are key when investigating causes of abortion and stillbirth

A

examination of the mother, fetus and placenta as well as diagnostic testing (whether infectious or not)

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8
Q

what is the chance of NO DIAGNOSIS of the cause of FOP for the following:

  • horse:
  • cow:
  • sheep:
  • goat:
  • pig:
A

horse: 20%
cow: 60%
sheep: 60%
goat: 52%
pig: 53%

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9
Q

when examining the dam to determine maternal causes of FOP, you should investigate what on the group level and what on the individual level

A

group: paired samples for serology
individual: vaginal cytology, vaginal culture, CBC/biochem

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10
Q

when examining fetal causes of FOP, what 4 things are key to determine

A

1) has growth/development been normal
2) time of death
3) signs of fetal distress
4) signs of dystocia

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11
Q

what are signs for indicating time of death occured at:
- up to 12 hours
- up to 24 hours
- up to 72 hours
- up to 7 days (144 hours)

A

12: cornea cloudy
24: bloody fluid in cavities
72: dehydration begins
7 days: mummification

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12
Q

you examine an aborted fetus and see the following (4 scenarios)… what is the time of death prior to expulsion for each scenario:

1) cloudy cornea
2) bloody fluid in cavities
3) dehydration
4) mummification

A

1) cloudy cornea: <12h
2) bloody fluid in cavities: <24h
3) dehydration: <72h
4) mummification: < 1 week

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13
Q

what is meconium staining and what does it indicate?

A

cell debris, bile and keratin; it indicates fetal distress prior to death (it shit itself)

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14
Q

why is it important to determine if a dystocia occurred

A

it would NOT be worthwhile to perform diagnostics if you know it is a dystocia

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15
Q

what is a cause of mummification in the following species:
- horse
- cow
- cat
- dog
- pig

A

horse: twinning
cow: BVDV1 and 2
cat: uterine torsion
dog: canine herpesvirus
pig: porcine parvovirus

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16
Q

what is a requirement for maceration to occur

A

putrefactive bacterial infection

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17
Q

in horses, where does embryo attachment/fixation occur

A

at the bifurcation

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18
Q

why is it better for the umbilical cord to insert on the pregnant horn in horses

A

because if on the non-pregnant horn it has to be longer (and if too long can twist and the horse can die)

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19
Q

what can help you ID that you are looking at the allantoic surface of the placenta

A

vascular supply on this surface

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20
Q

what is the significance of the cervical star in horses (2 main reasons)

A

site of bacterial placentitis; where the placenta should have ruptured at birth

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21
Q

where is the chorioallantoic pouch located in horses

A

beneath the endometrial cups

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22
Q

what does the yolk sac remnant in horses look like

A

bony

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23
Q

where will you find the hippomane in horses and cattle

A

in the allantois

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24
Q

what are signs of shistosomus reflexus

A

1) body split along midline
2) front part of body reflected backwards
3) arthrogryposis of limbs

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25
Q

a mare that has poor feed (nitrate/nitrite) while pregnant would have a foal with what complex

A

musculoskeletal disease and/or thyroid hyperplasia

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26
Q

what is osteopetrosis

A

when the bone medulla is filled with bone (no marrow present)

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27
Q

what are signs of EHV1 (varicellovirus equidalpha1) infection in the aborted fetus (3)

A

1) fibrin cast in trachea
2) interstitial pneumonia
3) focal necrosis on liver

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28
Q

if you see fibrin cast in the trachea of an aborted foal, what was the cause?

A

varicellovirus equidalpha1 (EHV1)

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29
Q

what is the guideline for an umbilical cord that is:

too short:
too long:

in the horse!

A

too short: <36cm
too long: >83cm

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30
Q

what are the risks of a long umbilical cord in horses

A

1) placental infarct
2) strangulation
3) torstion (>3 turns)

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31
Q

if a placental infarct occurs in horses, where will it ALWAYS be

A

in the body

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32
Q

what are 3 causes of avillus regions in the placenta and therefore reduced placental reserve in horses

A

1) twinning
2) body pregnancy
3) premature separation

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33
Q

what is the #1 cause of placentitis in horses

A

Streptococcus equi zooepidemicus

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34
Q

If you see an edematous equine placenta, what disease should you immediately suspect

A

fescue endophyte toxicosis

35
Q

equine causes of FOP are mostly (idiopathic/infectious/non-infectious)

A

non-infectious

36
Q

what causes mare reproductive loss syndrome in 2001/2002

A

Eastern Tent Caterpillars have setae (hairs) that when ingested with feed puncture the intestines, uterus and placenta and cause amnionitis and foal sepsis (endotoxemia and bacteremia)

37
Q

how does the bovine placenta function differ from the equine placenta

A

bovine has a lot of reserve whereas the equine one does not

38
Q

the important causes of bovine FOP are infectious/noninfectious

A

infectious (agents differ regionally)

39
Q

of the infectious cases of bovine FOP, what agents (broad category) cause the most problem

A

bacteria and protozoa

40
Q

how does fetal dermatitis in cows usually present and what is the cause

A

thickening of the neck and ipsilateral shoulder; mycotic (due to fungi)

41
Q

how do all fetal hearts look

A

pale

42
Q

what are 3 causes of fetal heart failure in cows

A

1) BVDV (Pestivirus bovis, tauri)
2) Vit E/Selenium
3) Neospora caninum

43
Q

what are 2 causes of focal liver necrosis in cow fetuses

A

1) BoHV
2) Listeria

44
Q

T/F caruncular sites can be seen in newborn female calves

A

T

45
Q

the cow placentome consists of __ rows of ________ on the maternal side that connect with _________ on the placental side

A

4; caruncles; cotyledons

46
Q

what does placental mineralization indicate

A

nothing, it is normal!

47
Q

what are amniotic plaques and what do they indicate

A

little clumps of fetal epidermis cells on the inner surface of the amnion; artifact

48
Q

what is adventitial placentation and when do we see it

A

placentation outside of cotyledons/caruncles; seen more often with subsequent pregnancies

49
Q

how does placentitis in the cow look (5 descriptive features)

A
  • edema
  • necrosis
  • exudate
  • thickening of the intercotyledon area
  • cupping of cotyledons
50
Q

what is an “itis” that is unique to cattle FOP

A

amnionitis

51
Q

when you see amnionitis, 99% of the time you should think of ________ as the cause

A

ureaplasma

52
Q

name an important abortion agent in cattle from the following categories:
- bacterial
- fungal
- protozoal
- viral

A

bacterial: truperella pyogenes
fungal: aspergillus fumigatus
protozoal: neospora caninum
viral: BVDV, BoHV-1

53
Q

why should you NEVER give a pregnant cow the BoHV-1 vaccine

A

it is a live modified vaccine and will cause abortions and fetal liver necrosis

54
Q

what is a common protozoal cause of abortions in cows that is due to natural breeding (hint: think of venereal diseases)

A

trichomoniasis foetus

55
Q

when we think about small ruminant FOP, we are more concerned about (infectious/non-infectious) agents

A

infectious

56
Q

what are the CCC and T of small ruminant FOP:

A

Coxiella
Campylobacter
Chlamydia
Toxoplasma

57
Q

of the infectious causes of small ruminant FOP, which are airborne zoonotic agents

A

Chlamydia abortus and Coxiella burnetii

58
Q

what virus is a cause of abortion in small ruminants

A

Cache Valley virus

59
Q

are sheep or goats more likely to have coxiella

A

goats

60
Q

what is incredibly important to warn small ruminant farmers about

A

Coxiella burnetii (and Chlamydia abortus) -> 1 infectious particle of Coxiella enough to cause disease in humans

61
Q

what are 4 common fetal lesions in small ruminants and what is the cause

A

1) cyclopia (Veratrum californicum)
2) arthrogryposis (Cache valley)
3) anencephaly (Cache Valley)
4) liver necrosis (Campylobacter; Listeria)

62
Q

Hepatic necrosis in small ruminants can be large multifocal if caused by ____________ infection and small multifocal if caused by ___________ infection

A

Campylobacter; Listeria

63
Q

what are 3 signs of iodine deficiency in small ruminant fetus

A

1) myxedema of skin
2) goiter
3) alopecia

64
Q

of the diseases of the small ruminant placenta, chronic placentitis is typically caused by __________ whereas focal cotyledon necrosis is caused by _____________

A

coxiella, chlamydia, campylobacter; toxoplasmosis

65
Q

how does chronic placentitis in small ruminants appear

A

like pizza
pepperoni = necrosis
cheese = exudate

66
Q

what 8 steps are involved in the pathogenesis of small ruminant placentitis

A

1) exposure of mucous membranes
2) local proliferation
3) bacteremia
4) invasion of uterus/placenta
5) infection (especially of trophoblasts)
6) logarithmic growth
7) necrosis, neutrophilic inflammation
8) abortion

67
Q

what is a consideration for a sheep/goat that got infected with coxiella toward the end of pregnancy

A

she won’t abort this pregnancy, but will abort the next one

coxiella has an incubation period of 50-90 days, and animals are infected for life; they only abort once

68
Q

why is Coxiella such a bitch of a pathogen

A

it is highly resistant to physical and chemical agents due to endospores and is highly infective in a dried state; barns are essentially infected forever and the animals will show no clinical signs besides abortion

69
Q

if you see an aborted placenta from a small ruminant and the cotyledons are covered in tons of teeny little white dots, what do you immediately suspect

A

toxoplasmosis

70
Q

how do small ruminants acquire toxoplasmosis and what is the best way to control the disease

A

from feed contaminated by rodents or cat feces; control rodents and cat populations in the barn

71
Q

how does the canine conceptus appear

A

zonary placenta: has a middle transfer zone aka labyrinth and marginal zones (hematomas)

72
Q

in what area of the canine placenta do we typically find infectious agents

A

marginal zone

73
Q

why do dogs not commonly abort and what happens instead

A

autolysis; CL lasts the entire pregnancy, so the dog will not abort if the fetus dies and autolysis of the fetus occurs in the meantime

74
Q

how should you sample the canine placenta

A

across all 3 zones (zonary, labryinth, zonary)

75
Q

mortality of pregnancy in dogs is approx __%

A

20%

76
Q

in a kitten litter, it is common for what % mortality

A

10%

77
Q

pregnant cats subclinically carry ____________ so we will rarely see ________ and _________ caused by this agent, unlike in _____________

A

coxiella burnetii; abortion; stillbirth; small ruminants

78
Q

what bacterial agent is a common cause of FOP in puppy mills

A

brucella canis

79
Q

what is a common viral cause of FOP in dogs

A

canine herpesvirus 1 (varicellovirus canidalpha1)

80
Q

when does canine herpesvirus 1 usually cause FOP and how can we prevent it

A

usually in neonates up to 4 weeks; prevent by keeping warm as the virus thrives at 32C

81
Q

if you are called to a cat FOP, what should you warn the owners of

A

coxiella burnetti (zoonotic, very very pathogenic)

82
Q

what are 4 viral causes of FOP in cats

A
  • FIV
  • FLV
  • feline calicivirus
  • FeHV1
83
Q

what are 2 bacterial causes of FOP in cats

A

coxiella burnetii and salmonella

Theriogenology (24 decks)

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