exam 8

Question 1

Question 1:
Establishing a positive water source is essential for a safe fire operation. Whenever possible, certain guidelines shall be followed. Which one regarding Engine Company supply is CORRECT?

A: The receiving pumper in a relay operation should not supply any handlines or large caliber streams.

B: The pumper supplying a large caliber stream should not supply any handlines, but can supply an additional large caliber stream.

C:If an emergency requires, more than two handlines can be operated from a pumper. The operating pumper shall be augmented as soon as possible.

D: Normally, a maximum of three handlines should be operated from a pumper.

Answer 1

c Explanation:
ENGINE OPERATIONS CHAPTER 3
A – The supply pumper 3.7.2
B – pumper supplying a LCS should not supply any handlines or additional large caliber streams. 3.7.2
C – If an emergency requires exceeding the above guidelines (more than 2), the supply or operating pumper shall be augmented as soon as possible to ensure that positive water is maintained, and the incident commander notified. 3.7.2
D – Only 2 handlines should be operated from a pumper. 3.7.2 The exception would be an emergency which requires the pumper be augmented ASAP as in choice C

Question 2

Question 2:
To minimize illegal entry by unauthorized persons into quarters, and to facilitate reporting such occurrences, the following procedures are to be followed. Choose the incorrect procedure.

A: Doors that are easily accessible from street, yard, court or adjoining roof should be kept locked when not in use

B: Windows that are easily accessible from street, yard, court or adjoining roof should be kept locked when not in use

C: When the company is leaving quarters, entrance and apparatus doors are to be closed and locked by assigned member

D:If there is a contractor in quarters, and the company receives a run, the officer on duty shall ensure the windows and doors are locked, and leave a member behind for security during the absence of the unit

Answer 2

d Explanation:
If there is a contractor in quarters, and the doors and windows can be locked or secured, the officer on duty shall notify the contractor that the contractor will be held accountable while his/her personnel are working in quarters during the absence of the unit
Look at 4.1….If windows and doors cannot be secured, a member will be assigned to perform the duties of security
AUC 300 sec 2

Question 3

Question 3:
Units arrive at a fire on the first floor of a 4-story brownstone building. There is a heavy body of fire in the first floor hallway, and it is extending up the stairs to the parlor floor. Hoselines are deployed in the following manner. Which one is correct?

A: The first line was through the front door to the second floor.

B: The second line must be stretched to back up the first line.

C: The second line was immediately stretched to the parlor floor to maintain the integrity of the interior stairs.

D:The third line was stretched to the parlor floor, with the second line backing up the first line on the first floor

Answer 3

dExplanation:
First hoseline stretched through the front door on the FIRST FLOOR to extinguish the fire.

Second hoseline, IF NOT NEEDED TO BACK UP THE FIRST HOSELINE, shall be stretched through the front door on the second (parlor) floor to maintain the integrity of the interior stairs.

If a third hoseline is necessary, it will be stretched as ordered by the Incident Commander.

Brownstones 3.2

Question 4

Question 4:

The responding unit should operate in the 10-20 mode while responding to each of the following call types except?

A: Water leaks

B: Trees down (no wires, buildings or vehicles affected)

C:Lock-ins with possible food on the stove

D: Salvage Truck

Answer 4

c Explanation:
Lock-ins (no reported food on the stove or other associated emergency)
Acronym: WELTS
Note: This is for Group 1 (single unit) call types only.
Water leaks
ERS no contact (2300 to 0800 hours)
Lock-ins (no reported food on the stove or other associated emergency)
Trees down (no wires, buildings or vehicles affected)
Salvage Truck
Comm 6 Add 1 2.1

Question 5

Question 5:
When it comes to the Engine apparatus, all Engine firefighters should be able to perform the following functions. Which one listed below is INCORRECT?

A:Drive to all modified response alarms, but not emergency responses.

B: Transfer the apparatus from road to pump.

C: Connect the apparatus to a hydrant using each of the several connections available and standard hose.

D: Charge and maintain adequate pressure on a hand line using the pump panel controls.

Answer 5

a Explanation:
ENGINE OPERATIONS – CHAPTER 2
A – Not stated
B, C, D, Correct – 2.8.2

Question 6

Question 6:
When it comes to emergency tree cutting and clearance, the most correct procedure can be found in which choice?

A:After cutting hanging tree limbs, members are responsible for the removal of debris from sidewalks

B: Members cut and removed a tree that has fallen on an unoccupied parked vehicle in the parking lot of a nearby restaurant

C: Members can never be used to cut or remove any tree or tree limb blocking entrance to a building

D:Department operations on private property are limited to assisting trapped or injured persons and preventing unauthorized entry into the danger area

Answer 6

d Explanation:
AUC 301
A- Not responsible for the removal of debris from sidewalks or private property….3.1
B- Members are not permitted to remove a tree which has fallen on a vehicle unless such action is required to perform a rescue, administer first aid, or establish an emergency lane…..3.4
C- Members CAN be deployed in the removal of obstructions blocking entrance to a building. This decision is to be based upon the existence of other adequate means of exit and the complexity of the operation….3.3
D- 3.3

Question 7

Question 7:
You’re a company officer who is operating as a single unit at the scene of a CFR response for an injured child. After evaluating the scene, you are suspicious that this may be a case of child abuse. You are aware that the sensitive nature of this incident might make it a noteworthy incident as defined by department regulations. You would be correct to take which action below?

A:Request the response of a Chief Officer.

B: Call the BC on duty upon return to quarters.

C: Call the DC on duty upon return to quarters.

D: Call FDOC upon return to quarters.

Answer 7

a Explanation:
**NEW TO REGULATIONS 11 AS OF 5/23/19 (FORMERLY ABC 3-96)**

Regulations 11: 11.5.26

Question 8

Question 8:

Units responding to alarms for “unknown odors or fumes” have encountered airborne irritants such as pepper spray, mace or a mace-like substance during operations. When these irritants are encountered, all of the following actions would be considered correct with the exception of which choice?

A: Gather, evaluate, and report information prior to entering into or undertaking activities that would place members in a contaminated environment.

B: Full firefighting gear and SCBA will be used at all times as a minimum of protection against exposure.

C:Sheltering in place is always appropriate for exposed individuals, pending arrival of resources for decontamination.

D: Transmit the initial 10-80 signal to alert incoming units to proceed with caution to avoid entering a contaminated area. The Incident Commander should confer with the Haz Mat Battalion Chief to transmit the appropriate code.

Answer 8

c Explanation:
Realize that in the case of airborne irritants, EVACUATION would be appropriate for EXPOSED individuals, however, in some instances, evacuation through a toxic atmosphere may actually cause more harm than good, such as removing occupants from their uncontaminated apartments and transporting them through a contaminated public hallway or staircase. In this type of situation, the decision to shelter in place would be more appropriate.
In addition….Controlled ventilation (mechanical or natural) of the affected areas by fire department personnel will facilitate rapid dissipation of the vapor cloud. Be cognizant of where ventilation will move the product to. Avoid moving the product to occupied areas.
HM 17 2.1, 2.2, 2.3, 2.5

Question 9

Question 9:
You are S/A in Ladder 99 and you are assigned 1st due to a reported train collision in the Manhattan bound tube of the #4 express train. Receiving additional information enroute regarding location and extent, you consider power removal and victim removal options. Which is MOST CORRECT according to under river tunnel operations?

A: Activation of the power removal box will shut power to the tubes in both directions.

B: Delaying power removal may increase the rescue problem at the incident location while allowing the TA to remove operable trains from the tunnel.

C:A rescue train would take some time to put into operation and would be useful to remove victims who are non-ambulatory, or too weak to evacuate on foot.

D: Nolan rail carts require 3rd rail power to operate and are the primary means of removing non ambulatory patients

Answer 9

c Explanation:
UNDER RIVER RAIL OPERATIONS
A – 4.5 Figure 14 – There is a separate set of power removal boxes in each tube
B – Moving trains out of the tube may save lives and lessen the rescue problem, even if it delays power removal. 4.5
C – 7.2.2C
D – Nolan rail carts do not require 3rd rail power to operate. 7.3.3

Question 10

Question 10:
Today is October 25, 2019, and it is your first tour in E-99 in the great borough of the Bronx. It’s two hours into your tour when the HW FF summonses you to the HW area, where you are confronted with a male civilian holding an infant. The unknown male suddenly hands you the infant and begins to walk away. Choose the incorrect procedure you took involving the Abandoned Infant Protection Act.

A:Immediately notified the administrative battalion to have an ambulance respond because the unit is in custody of an abandoned infant

B: You informed the ambulance crew that they are responsible to fill out and file the mandated report for abandoned infants

C: You transmitted signal 10-99 to the dispatcher

D: Since the male civilian did not provide any information on the infant, you accepted custody anyway

Answer 10

a Explanation:
AUC 306 add 2
A-Notify the Borough Communications Office (dispatcher) and request the response of an ambulance, and inform the dispatcher that the unit is in custody of an abandoned infant….2.1.1
B- 1.3.Note
C- 2.1.1.Note

Question 11

Question 11:
What is the maximum load capacity for a 24-foot extension ladder?

A: 300 pounds

B: 400 pounds

C:500 pounds

D:600 pounds

Answer 11

c

Explanation:
Portable Ladder Capacities are as follows:

Collapsible ladders - up to a 300 pound load.

Roof, straight and extension ladders (26’ or less) - up to a 500 pound load.

Extension ladders (27' to 35') - up to a 600 pound load.
Portable Ladders 8.4.2

Question 12

Question 12:
All members should be familiar with the “Transportation Index” of a package or shipment. What is the maximum level of radiation one meter from an intact package with a “Radioactive Yellow - II” label?

A: 0.5 mR/hr

B: 10 mR/hr

C: 50 mR/hr

D:1 mR/hr

Answer 12

Explanation:
ERP Add 4 Appx 2 2.3.2

Question 13

Question 13:
Select debris removal is one of the phases of the Collapse Rescue plan. Which of the choices listed below is INCORRECT about this type of operation?

A: Select Debris Removal is not a useful tactic if we have no idea where the victims are located.

B: Select Debris Removal begins when all voids have been searched and people are still unaccounted for.

C:Select Debris Removal is the phase where heavy construction equipment is used when the location of victims is unknown.

D:Select Debris Removal operations cease when all live victims have been removed from a collapse.

Answer 13

c Explanation:
FIREFIGHTING PROCEDURES - COLLAPSE
A – 11.6
B – 11.6
C – Heavy construction equipment use is forbidden during the select debris removal phase. 11.13.2
D – 11.6 pg32 top

Question 14

Question 14:
With the fire on the 3rd floor of a 4 story Brownstone type Rowframe, the LCC of the first arriving Ladder Company completed his assignment in which correct choice?

A: Raised Aerial to roof of exposure 2

B: After Roof FF has reached the roof, reposition aerial for VEIS of fire apartment if fire is on the 3rd floor or above when teamed up with the 2nd LCC

C:When repositioning Aerial to top floor with fire lapping out of the 3rd floor windows, the LCC will wait until lapping fire has been eliminated, then vent all windows on top floor. Entry into top floor via aerial may then be attempted when the 2nd to arrive Ladder has not already “made” the top floor via interior

D: The LCC must notify the IC of intended destination when leaving the front of the building

Answer 14

Explanation:
Rowframes
A- Raised Aerial to Roof of fire building……p-35
B-To top floor for Brownstone type Rowframe…..To fire floor if fire is on 3rd floor or above for OLT type Rowframe…p-35
C- p-35
D- Their company officer…bottom of p-34

Question 15

Question 15:
Company officers must be alert to certain response considerations in order to facilitate an efficient and coordinated operation. Which of the following response considerations is correct?

A: In order to facilitate an efficient, coordinated operation, the officer of the ladder should strive to enter the block before the 1st engine company and from the same direction.

B: If the second ladder company to arrive is moving into the fire block opposite the first engine company, the LCC must verify that the engine has a hydrant before moving too close.

C: When the first engine company and the first ladder company enter the block from opposite ends, the ladder apparatus shall be stopped just beyond the hydrant that the engine company expects to use.

D:When the first engine company and the first ladder company enter the block from opposite ends, the ladder officer and remaining members shall proceed to the fire building on foot.

Answer 15

d Explanation:
A. …AFTER the 1st engine company…
B. …The LADDER COMPANY OFFICER must verify…
C. …just SHORT of the hydrant…

Aerial Ladders 6.3

Question 16

Question 16:
Of the following choices, which contains incorrect information regarding the “firefighter removal training kit?”

A:Each Company has been issued a Firefighter Removal Training Kit. In quarters housing two or more companies, only one kit will be provided for the house.

B: The kit includes a mannequin outfitted in condemned bunker gear and personal harness, as well as a SCBA harness with cylinder.

C: Units shall make use of the training kits when practicing firefighter removal procedures and shall not use personally assigned equipment when practicing these procedures.

D: When replacement parts or repairs for the Firefighter Removal Training Kit are required, contact the Bureau of Training.

Answer 16

Explanation:
Each BATTALION has been issued a Firefighter Removal Training Kit.
MMID Ch 2 Add 2a

Question 17

Question 17:
The incident commander can special call a communications unit anytime they deem necessary. You are working in Engine 100 and discussing the dispatch policy with the members over roll call. Which choice below is INCORRECT about the response matrix for these units?

A:10-60 transmitted for the collapse of an exterior wall of a private dwelling.

B: 10-66 transmitted for an unconscious member trapped in the cellar of an MD.

C:10-75 transmitted for fire in the sub-cellar of a commercial building

D: 10-76 transmitted for fire on the 40th floor of a 60 story Commercial Building.

Answer 17

c Explanation:
ICS CHAPTER 2 ADDENDUM 3 – COMMUNICATIONS UNIT
A – All 1060’s – 3.1
B – All 1066’s – 3.1
C – 1075’s for below grade incidents in facilities other than buildings. 3.1
D – All 1076’s – 3.1

Question 18

Question 18:
With the 1st alarm assignment in position during a fire at LRFPMD, the FF that was in the correct position can be found in which choice?

A:When ordered, the venting of the attack stairway will be accomplished by the 1st and 2nd arriving Roof FFs

B: If the fire floor can be laddered, then the 1st arriving OV/Roof team will perform VEIS from the exterior. Often the 4th floor can be reached with a 35’ portable ladder

C: 1st arriving Roof FF proceeded to the roof with a Halligan hook, Halligan, KO Curtain, and Life belt

D: 2nd arriving Ladder Company Forcible Entry team carried an Extinguisher, Hook, axe or maul, Halligan, Hydra-Ram, SCBAs, CO meter, TIC, and Window Blanket

Answer 18

a Explanation:
Multiple Dwellings
A- Correct….approval given by the IC…..7.4
B- OV/Chauffeur…..7.7.2.B
C- Halligan hook, Halligan, LSR, and Life belt………Top floor fire, the 2nd arriving Roof FF to bring KO Curtain to Roof in lieu of the LSR….7.7.3
D- KO Curtain…..NOT WINDOW BLANKET…7.8

Question 19

Question 19:
Which of the following tactics is incorrect regarding a dumbwaiter fire in an old law tenement?

A:If heavy smoke is venting out of a dumbwaiter bulkhead, the roof firefighter should vent the dumbwaiter bulkhead.

B: It is important that the top floor, cockloft and cellar are checked as soon as possible.

C: If after venting a dumbwaiter bulkhead, the roof firefighter does not see any appreciable volume of smoke venting, the roof firefighter should notify his/her officer.

D:If it is expected that the dumbwaiter shaft is obstructed, the roof firefighter should not probe the shaft with a hook.

Answer 19

a Explanation:
A. …the roof firefighter should INFORM HIS/HER OFFICER.

Note: If FIRE is reported in the dumbwaiter shaft, the roof firefighter should vent the dumbwaiter bulkhead.

Note D: Ladders 3 Page 19 NOTE: To ensure an unobstructed outlet for shafts OTHER THAN DUMBWAITER SHAFTS, probe with hook to detect possible presence of a glazed sash or other covering and remove it.

Ladders 3: 4.3

Question 20

Question 20:
Of the following choices, which is not in accordance with a single unit investigation of a Class “E” or “J” alarm?

A: On arrival at a Class “E” or “J” alarm, the officer shall enter the building with all firefighters except the chauffeur, who shall remain in the apparatus to monitor both the Department Radio and handie-talkie for additional information.

B: Members entering the building shall be equipped with their personal protective equipment and SCBA. Ladder Companies shall bring their usual compliment of tools and Engine Companies shall bring forcible entry tools into lobby; at this time no rolled up lengths of hose will be required.

C:The officer shall make contact with building personnel, inquire as to the alarm source and personally reset the alarm system. If the alarm panel does reset, the officer shall remain approximately one to two minutes to ensure that the reset holds.

D: The Battalion Chief may either monitor the radio or respond, based on their discretion. If the Battalion Chief responds, the dispatcher shall be notified. If a preliminary report is not received in a reasonable time frame (5-10 minutes), the monitoring Chief will contact the dispatcher and request a preliminary report.

Answer 20

c Explanation:
The officer shall make contact with building personnel, inquire as to the alarm source and DIRECT BUILDING PERSONNEL to reset the alarm system. If the alarm panel does reset, the officer shall remain approximately TWO to THREE minutes to ensure that the reset holds.
Comm 6 Add 2 3.2, 3.3, 3.4, 4.2, 4.3

Question 21

Question 21:
Which of the following is INCORRECT regarding MCI Bags?

A: All units have been issued MCI Bags.

B: MCI bags shall only be used when the highest-ranking officer operating at an MCI determines the number of patients requiring hemorrhage control exceeds the standard hemorrhage control equipment available on the responding units.

C: Once the bag has been opened, the officer must contact the dispatcher for an immediate notification to the OMA on-call medical director.

D:Any company that does not have an MCI Bag will be placed out of service until a replacement is procured.

Answer 21

d Explanation:
CFRD CHAPTER 4 ADDENDUM 1
A – 3.2
B - 3.2
C – 3.3
D – Units do not require an MCI bag to be in service. 3.3 Note

Question 22

Question 22:
A first alarm assignment of three Engines and two Ladders should provide approximately how many minutes of finished firefighting foam when the eductor is set for 3 percent and using the 125 gpm aerating foam nozzle?

A: 20 minutes

B:17 minutes

C: 15 minutes

D: 10 minutes

Answer 22

b Explanation:
Training Bulletins Foam sec 7.2
yes, you might have to do math on test day
125 gpm aerating foam nozzle “X” .03 (3 percent) set at eductor equals 3.75…….. 65 gallons of foam concentrate on scene (3 engines & 2 ladders)…. 65 divided by 3.75 equals 17 minutes of finished firefighting foam

Question 23

Question 23:
Tower Ladder 200 arrived second due to a fire on the first floor of a peaked roof private dwelling. Ladder 100 is already on-scene and operating as per department SOP’s. Members of TL200 took the following actions. Which one was incorrect?

A: The Roof/OV team took a 6’ halligan hook and a halligan for each member.

B:The Roof/OV team vented the roof as directed by their officer.

C: With the Roof/OV team utilizing the bucket for VEIS, the LCC remained on the turntable until the fire was controlled and members inside were not in immediate danger.

D:After determining that the second arriving apparatus would not be used, the LCC contacted the first arriving LCC to determine if assistance was required.

Answer 23

b Explanation:
B. Vent the roof as directed by THE FIRST ARRIVING LADDER COMPANY OFFICER OPERATING INSIDE THE FIRE AREA.

Private Dwellings Ch 4: 5.8

Question 24

Question 24:

Which of the following choices lists features indicative of the most prevalent type of taxpayer built from the 1920’s into the 1960’s?

A:Usually one story in height but there are some that have two stories.

B:Cornices, of the facade type, and signs are often attached to the front of the building outside off the brick walls. Removing the cornice or sign in most cases will not provide access to the cockloft area.

C: The floor and roof may be concrete poured on top of metal decking, which is supported by the metal joists.

D: The the use of combustible construction material has been reduced.

Answer 24

b Explanation:
A - older type built from the turn of the century until the 1920’s.
C - newer type construction built since the 1960’s.
D - newer type construction built since the 1960’s.
Txpyr 2.3.1 - 2.3.3

Question 25

Question 25:
Documentation is one of the most important aspects of a CFRD response. Which of the following choices represents the CORRECT handling of a PCR following a CFRD response?

A:In all cases, the proper page(s) of the form must be forwarded through the bag by the end of the tour.

B: Part three of the form is the Research copy and is forwarded to the Office of Medical Affairs.

C: Part two of the form is the Hospital Patient Record Copy and is to be given to the patient prior to transporting.

D:Part One of the form is the Original and is to be retained at Quarters and must be secured by the company officer in the company files at all times.

Answer 25

a Explanation:
CFRD CHAPTER 5 – DOCUMENTATION
A – 1.1.1 - Must be forwarded through the bag by the end of the tour.
B – 1.1.3 - Part 3 is the Hospital Patient Record Copy which is given to the EMS UNIT operating at the scene.
C – 1.1.2 – Part 2 is the Research Copy retained at Quarters…
D – 1.1.1 – Part 1 is the original and is to be forwarded to the Office of Medical Affairs

Question 26

Question 26:
The most correct statement made in regards to the LSR can be found in which choice

A: The LSR is 5/16” in diameter

B: LSR is 175’ in length

C:Over a period of time, some ropes have shrunk 8 to 10 feet

D: When a kink in the LSR is discovered, it shall immediately be placed OOS

Answer 26

c Explanation:
Training Bulletins Rope 1
A- 9/16”….1.1
B- 150’…..1.1
C- 1.6
D- LSR shall be placed OOS for a HOCKLE…..A kink should be removed from a rope by rotating the rope counter to the direction of the kink….4.13

Question 27

Question 27:
The following conditions are indicative of a major gas emergency and may require changing from a simple mitigation strategy to one that emphasizes all efforts on securing life safety (including utility personnel and first responders). Which one is correct?

A: Minor damage to a major component of the gas infrastructure.

B: A minimum of 20% LEL or greater detected outside.

C:10% LEL in an unvented subsurface structure.

D:5% LEL in two subsurface structures.

Answer 27

d Explanation:
A. SERIOUS damage to a major component…
B. 10% LEL OR GREATER detected outside or inside.
C. 20% LEL OR GREATER in an unvented subsurface structure.

Note D: Gas present in two or more subsurface structures **THIS IS ANY AMOUNT OF GAS**

Natural Gas Section 5

Question 28

Question 28:

The practicality of trenching the roof of a taxpayer will depend on each of the following factors except?

A: The size of the roof - a long trench may take too much time.

B: The volume of fire - it may be no longer possible to get ahead of the fire.

C:The volume of smoke - too much smoke may prohibit the proper cutting and pulling of a trench.

D: Ceilings - height and type. Due to inaccessibility and extensive lighting systems it may be necessary to attack the fire from above.

Answer 28

c Explanation:
Acronym: VCR
Volume of fire
Ceilings height and type
Roof size
Txpyr 8.3.2 D

Question 29

BACK LIST NEXT

Question 29:
The most correct position for the Roof FF during an OLT Rowframe fire, can be found in which choice?

A: When the building has a rear fire escape, after completing roof ventilation duties, the 1st arriving Roof FF shall team up with the inside team on the fire floor for assistance

B: The 1st arriving Roof FF descended the scuttle ladder after the fire was placed “Probably Will Hold”

C: With no ability to vent the interior stairs at roof level (tarred over roof skylights), the 1st arriving Roof FF communicated to his officer that he wasn’t able to provide ventilation

D:When there is no fire escape, after completing their roof responsibilities, the 1st arriving Roof FF will descend the Aerial ladder, when it is still in position at the roof, and team up with the LCC for VEIS of the top floor

Answer 29

d Explanation:
Rowframes
A- Roof FF shall team up with the 1st arriving OV to VEIS the fire floor (other than a top floor fire)..p-40
B- Under Control…..p-40
C- No skylight or tarred over roof skylights, a saw must be called for in these instances…p-41
D- P-40

Question 30

Question 30:
Places of worship have some unique architectural features and when coupled the large amount of wood used in their construction can result in early collapse as fire weakens the structure. Which of the following collapse considerations at places of worship is incorrect?

A: The exposure side of the steeple or bell tower (front of the building) is one of the most dangerous areas during a fire.

B:The exposure 1 and 3 walls are also a collapse danger. The roof of a place of worship is supported by the front and rear walls.

C: The older style places of worship are susceptible to early collapse due to the large high timber truss roof.

D: A steeple atop a bell tower is more unstable than a dome above a tower.

Answer 30

b Explanation:
B. The EXPOSURE 2 AND 4 SIDEWALLS are also a collapse danger. The roof of a place of worship is supported by the front and SIDEWALLS.

NEW BULLETIN AS OF 8/15/19
FFP Places of Worship Fires 4.2; 4.4; 4.6; 4.7

Question 31

Question 31:

The Officer on duty within each facility/firehouse shall review the “emergency action plan” with personnel at each of the following times except?

A: Initially, when the plan is developed

B: Whenever the plan is changed

C: When new personnel are assigned

D:Annually, on January 1st of each year

Answer 31

Explanation:
Quarterly, during the first week of January, April, July and October of each year.
Acronym: It’s Called Not Quitting
Initially
Changes
New personnel
Quarterly
SB 61 7.1

Question 32

Question 32:

Two chauffeurs assigned to a busy Manhattan Engine Company were discussing pumping in high rise office buildings. Which comment made was incorrect?

A:Building fire pumps shall be capable of delivering their rated capacity at a pressure of 80 psi at the highest floor hose outlet.

B: A relief valve is required at the fire pump limiting the pressure to 15 psi above that required to deliver its rated capacity to the highest floor outlet.

C: The primary water supply to the standpipe system in many buildings is a gravity tank. In many instances, there will be inadequate head pressures at the uppermost floor hose outlets supplied by that gravity tank; for this reason, the primary water supply for firefighting in most operations shall be Fire Department Engines.

D: When building fire pumps and Fire Department Engines are being used to supply the standpipe system, both systems must be monitored to prevent overheating caused by churning.

Answer 32

a Explanation:
Building fire pumps shall be capable of delivering their rated capacity at a pressure of 50 psi at the highest floor hose outlet.
Note: A good “rule of thumb” is to have a separate engine supply the standpipe system for each handline in operation.
HROB 4.2.1-4.2.5

Question 33

Question 33:
Who carries the KO Curtain during a fire in a HRFPMD?

A: 1st and 2nd arriving Roof FFs

B:1st and 3rd arriving Roof FFs

C: 2nd arriving Roof FF only

D: 2nd arriving LCC only

Answer 33

b Explanation:
Multiple Dwellings
6.14.4, 6.16.4

Question 34

Question 34:
Inflatable Water Rescue Hose may be used during Water/Ice rescue incidents involving one or more conscious victims. Every company, including Battalions, carry the Yellow Water Rescue Fittings. Which comment below about inflatable water rescue hose is incorrect?

A:Water rescue hose can be supplied with air from an SCBA. The FAST Pak shall not be used.

B: Yellow water rescue fittings are made up of one 2 ½” female cap with a shackle and snap bolt and one 2 ½” male fitting with a shackle and check valve.

C: One 45 minute cylinder can fill five lengths of 2 ½” hose in approximately 1 minute.

D: The apparatus air outlet can fill five lengths of hose in approximately 1 minute.

Answer 34

a vxplanation:
A. Supply air from either a SCBA or Fast-Pak using the Hansen fitting.

Question 35

Question 35:

What term describes the transformation of materials into their basic compound when subjected to heat?

A:Pyrolysis

B: Tenability

C: Heat Release Rate

D: Ventilation Profile

Answer 35

Explanation:
With pyrolysis, contents will continue to off-gas and add to the flammable fuel load within the compartment as long as the material is subjected to elevated temperatures.
B - Tenability - An assessment on whether units can operate within the fire area based on the conditions encountered and the impact of these conditions to potential victims and members.
C - Heat Release Rate - The rate at which energy is generated by the burning of a fuel and oxygen mixture. As the heat release rate increases, the heat, smoke production and pressure within the area will increase and spread along available flow paths toward low pressure areas (open doors, windows and roof openings).
D - Ventilation Profile - The appearance of the fire building’s ventilation points showing the flow paths of heat and smoke out of the structure as well as any air movement into the structure.
Vent Glossary - pyrolysis

Question 36

Question 36:
Vacant buildings have many potential hazards and some may even be “booby trapped.” Of the following choices which is correct?

A: Fires in vapors of gasoline develop slowly at the start, but progress rapidly as vapor production intensifies. Heat developed will be for a longer duration than that involving gasoline, producing a fire of rapid spread and greater magnitude.

B: Diesel vapors, immediately upon ignition, burn with lightning rapidity with high heat.

C: All members responding to vacant building fires, (especially the Can and FE Firefighters) are cautioned to note the method used to seal these buildings in their size-up. Access may be gained via the roof or upper floors only to find no means of escape from the lower floors.

D:The structural stability of the vacant building or parts of the building will be the most important aspect determining the initial attack strategy i.e., interior or exterior.

Answer 36

d Explanation:
Fires in vapors of DIESEL FUEL OIL develop slowly at the start, but progress rapidly as vapor production intensifies. Heat developed will be for a longer duration than that involving gasoline, producing a fire of rapid spread and greater magnitude.
GASOLINE vapors, immediately upon ignition, burn with lightning rapidity with high heat.
All members responding to vacant building fires, (especially the ROOF and OV Firefighters) are cautioned to note the method used to seal these buildings in their size-up. Access may be gained via the roof or upper floors only to find no means of escape from the lower floors.
Vacant 1.5.2 A, C, I, 2.2.1

Question 37

Question 37:
While working in E-99 in the great borough of the Bronx, a FF from your unit and tells you that she thinks her PSS might be contaminated from the top floor fire earlier that night. The only correct procedure for decontamination of the PSS can be found in which choice?

A: When only the PSS “bag” is contaminated from fireground contaminates, the bag shall placed OOS

B: When only the PSS “bag” is grossly contaminated, the “bag” shall be spot cleaned in quarters

C:When the bag and rope (PSS) are contaminated from fireground contaminates, the bag and rope shall be decontaminated in quarters using a sponge and water. A mild detergent may be used if necessary

D: If either the rope or bag is placed OOS, the officer on duty is to notify the administrative battalion

Answer 37

c Training Bulletins Rope 4
A- Spot clean in quarters….p-1
B- OOS….p-1
C- p-1
D- Division…p-1

Question 38

Question 38:
Members responding to an incident involving a suspicious package, envelope, or powder, where NYPD is not yet on scene, would be correct to adhere to all of the following guidelines except?

A: Immediately request the response of the NYPD.

B:Transmit the appropriate 10-80 signal, specifying suspected asbestos.

C: A preliminary reconnaissance should be performed by FDNY resources to gather as much information as possible regarding the incident.

D: If ambulatory, have patients walk away from the area of exposure to another room or location that is isolated from other persons.

Answer 38

b Explanation:
Transmit the appropriate 10-80 signal, specifying suspected ANTHRAX.
In addition…
It patient contact is necessary, ensure proper PPE is worn by CFRs, EMTs and Paramedics as required and consistent with their level of haz-mat training (consult with the Haz Mat Battalion for PPE guidance).
Shut down HVAC zones within the incident location if necessary.
Limit the number of responders in the area to decrease the risk of exposure.
HM 16 2.1.2

Question 39

Question 39:
You just return from a run in which you transmitted a 10-35, and discovered that someone illegally entered quarters. Upon this discovery, you make the proper notifications. Choose the incorrect notification.

A:BFI

B: Administrative Battalion and Division

C: NYPD

D:IG (only if there is a theft in which a Department employee is a suspect)

Answer 39

a Explanation:
Notify BFI only if incident involves a false alarm response…..You transmitted a 10-35
AUC 300 sec 3

Question 40

Question 40:
Company Journal entries relating to receipt of alarms may be recorded in succession on a “single line” provided that each of the following is adhered to except?

A:Not more than two (2) such signals are so entered.

B: Such entries are not crowded or rendered indistinct.

C: The standard form of entries is followed precisely.

D:A comma and a space equal to two (2) letters separate such alarm entries on the same line.

Answer 40

a Explanation:
Not more than four (4) such signals are so entered.
Also….No unit “in quarters” is assigned to respond to these alarms, no other event requiring an entry intervenes between the times of these entries, and a new line is used for all entries other than these alarms (i.e. alarms received while out of quarters.)
CJ p12