exam 11.

Question 1

Question 1:
Walking is an acceptable method of travel when detailed to another quarters , if that quarters is within how many blocks from the member’s assigned quarters?

A:20 blocks

B: 15 blocks

C: 10 blocks

D: 5 blocks

Answer 1

a Explanation:
If members are detailed to a quarters within one mile, or approximately 20 blocks, of their assigned quarters, walking is considered an acceptable method of traveling to the detailed quarters. Members who are detailed to another quarters more than one mile from their assigned quarters DO NOT HAVE THE OPTION OF WALKING. Such members have the option of using their private vehicles if they so choose
AUC 287 sec 6.2

Question 2

Question 2:
First alarm units are operating at a fire in the cellar of 4-story brownstone building. Hoselines are deployed in the following fashion. Which line was stretched to the incorrect location?

A: The first line was stretched through the front door on the first floor and remained there to secure the first floor.

B: The third line was stretched to the parlor floor as per the Incident Commander

C: The second line was stretched via the interior stairs to the cellar.

D:The second line was stretched to the parlor floor, with the third line backing up the first line.

Answer 2

d Explanation:
D. Second hoseline stretched through the front door on the first floor to back up the first hoseline. If the first line was used to secure first floor, second line will be stretched to cellar via interior cellar stair to extinguish the fire.

Brownstones 3.1

Question 3

Question 3:
Engine 199 responds to an EMS run where they discover a child suffering from non life-threatening injuries as a result of suspected child abuse. The parents refuse to allow the company to provide medical care to the minor. Which of the following actions taken next is CORRECT?

A: The officer had the ECC notify the dispatcher to have the fire marshals respond because they suspected child abuse.

B:The officer had the members treat the minor despite the parents’ objections.

C:A phone was available, so the officer contacted FDNY/EMS telemetry directly and implemented their recommendations (if any) while awaiting EMS arrival.

D: Patient care was not provided, but because child abuse was suspected, the officer had a PCR completed for EMS upon their arrival.

Answer 3

d Explanation:
CFRD – CHAPTER 2 SECTION 6
C – 6.1C
A – When a unit suspects child abuse, the circumstances of the suspected abuse shall be reported to EMS PERSONNEL at the scene. 6.1.1D
***This is not a conflict, but good New information…AUC 3 Sec 1.6 - immediately request PD, FDNY EMS supervisor, and an ambulance.
B – Care must be provided for life threatening injury or illness.
D – A PCR is not required when a CFRD unit is on scene at any assignment unless patient care is provided. Section 4 (4.13.1 note)

Question 4

Question 4:
On the apparatus MDT, all of the following are “single action keys” except?

A: 10-4

B: 10-14

C: 10-84

D:10-8

Answer 4

d Explanation:
10-8 is a double action key
10-20 is a single action key
Comm 2 p31

Question 5

Question 5:
When operating at a school in which non-ambulatory students are attending without grade access, the most correct procedure for the first arriving officer can be found in which choice?

A:Look for the removal windows designated for removal, which are painted yellow on the sills, inside and outside, with a sign attached outside, top window pane. This sign shall read “F.D. ACCESS” (Red lettering on a white background)

B: Immediately contact the designated “person in charge” for each floor where non-ambulatory students are being held for action and/or relay to the officer in command upon their arrival

C:Ensure that the exterior evacuation path of ambulatory students avoids the area in the vicinity adjacent to holding areas in which a TL is expected to be positioned

D: If conducting an interior removal, look for the sign on a door of the Holding Area(s) for the non-ambulatory students which reads “Holding Area(s)” (yellow lettering on a white background)

Answer 5

c Explanation:
AUC 277 new as of 6/27/2019
A- Sills are painted Red….4.5
B- NOT EACH FLOOR….Contact the principle or person in charge regarding the status and/or location of ALL non-ambulatory students for action and/or relay to the officer in command upon their arrival….6.1
C- 6.2
D- Red lettering on a white background…..4.7

Question 6

Question 6:
When units operating on elevated highway, road or rail bridge, along with any other location observe a visible roadway separation deemed hazardous to members, the roadway/bridge name, location of separation with approximate size and direction of travel, along with a highway mileage marker designation where applicable, shall be the subject of an immediate letterhead report to ___.

A: the Department of Transportation

B: the BISP Unit

C:the Chief of Operations

D: the Chief of Department

Answer 6

c Explanation:
**NEW UPDATE AS OF 10/9/2019**

THE REPORT SHALL BE ENDORSED AT THE BATTALION, DIVISION, AND BOROUGH LEVELS WITH COMPREHENSIVE COMMENTS AND RECOMMENDATIONS.

Regulations Ch 11: 11.5.2

Question 7

Question 7:
For a taxpayer (Group M-Mercantile) constructed under the 2008 Building Code, when does an occupancy require a sprinkler, even if the full building does not?

A: The area exceeds 12,000 square feet.

B: The combined area on all floors, including mezzanines, exceeds 24,000 square feet.

C:Area of any size is located 3 stories above grade.

D: Storage of merchandise is in high-piled racks or rack storage arrays.

Answer 7

c Explanation:
C) In this case only the “occupancy” requires sprinkler protection; not the full building.
Taxpayer 2.5.1

Question 8

Question 8:
FDNY core competencies include all of the following except?

A: Pre-hospital emergency medical care

B:Area evacuation

C: CBRN/Haz-Mat Life Safety Operations and mass decontamination

D: Arson investigation (cause and origin)

Answer 8

b Explanation:
Structural evacuation
Fire Suppression
Pre-hospital emergency medical care
CBRN/Haz-Mat Life Safety Operations and mass decontamination
Arson investigation (cause and origin)
Search and Rescue
AUC 276 sec 2

Question 9

Question 9:
When working on a portable ladder, a member may perform the leg lock maneuver to ensure his/her safety. This maneuver is described below. Which description is incorrect?

A: The leg performing the locking maneuver is opposite the working side.

B:To perform the leg lock, the locking leg is placed over and under the rung that is one rung above the one on which the member is standing.

C: The instep of the locking leg is placed on the beam of the ladder opposite the member’s working side.

D: The arch of the foot on the rung is placed against the beam on the working side.

Answer 9

b Explanation:
B. …over and under the rung that is TWO RUNGS above…

Portable Ladders 8.2.1

Question 10

Question 10:
The members of Engine 199 were discussing Air Pressurized Standpipe Systems as construction continues all over the city. Which statement below is CORRECT regarding these systems?

A:Air Pressurized Systems are required in buildings under construction reaching a height greater than 75’ or buildings undergoing demolition with an existing standpipe.

B: When the pressure in the system drops below a predetermined pressure or rises above 25psi, an audible alarm will sound, and a signal is sent to the alarm company.

C:When an alarm sounds, all work at the site must immediately cease until the cause for alarm is corrected.

D: Any portion of the standpipe compromised below a closed section valve will not cause activation of the alarm.

Answer 10

a Explanation:
ENGINE OPERATIONS CHAPTER 9 ADDENDUM 2
A - Correct 1.1
B - Incorrect – At the site only 1.2
C - Incorrect – Concrete pouring in progress will be permitted until an orderly termination of such operation can take place 1.3
D - Incorrect – Above a closed section valve. 1.3 note

Question 11

Question 11:
In which choice below should a 10-80 Code 1 be transmitted?

A:Release is of a small or medium quantity.

B: The material and its hazards have been identified.

C:Firefighters’ PPE provides adequate protection against the identified hazards.

D: Special equipment and specialized training are not needed.

Answer 11

a Explanation:
Guidelines for transmitting Signal 10-80 No Code include:
Acronym: SIPS
Small quantity release (e.g., gas leak in a stove).
Identified material and hazards.
PPE provides adequate protection against the identified hazards.
Special equipment and specialized training are not needed.
Comm 8 10-80

Question 12

Question 12:
The incorrect description of the FAST Pak can be found in which choice?

A: Contains a 5 ft. high pressure hose with a Universal Air Coupling (UAC)

B: Contains a 20 ft. low pressure hose attached to a manifold with a Schrader fitting and Hansen fitting

C: Contains a Non-CBRN regulator and face piece

D:Contains a vibra-alert or heads up display indicator

Answer 12

d Explanation:
FAST Pak is not equipped with a with a vibra-alert or heads up display indicator. The only way to monitor the air pressure in the FAST Pak is the cylinder gauge
Training Bulletins add 1 sec 2 and 4.1

Question 13

Question 13:
A search is an orderly and systematic examination of a building or area for the purpose of locating persons, or locating fire and extension of fire. It consists of a primary and secondary search. Which statement below is incorrect?

A: The primary search is an immediate search for life. This primary search is rapid but thorough and systematic.

B:The primary search must also include the entire perimeter of the building and all shafts, basements/cellars, etc.

C:If primary or secondary search is delayed or not completed for any reason, the incident commander must be notified.

D: When searching or examining a number of apartments it may be quicker to enter from the related fire escape then to force numerous doors.

Answer 13

b Explanation:
B. THE SECONDARY SEARCH must also include the entire perimeter of the building and all shafts, basements/cellars, etc.

Ladders 3: 5.5.1; 5.5.2; 5.5.4

Question 14

Question 14:
In your first hour out of FLSTP, one of your firefighters walks into the officer to tell you about a criminal level hazing event that just occurred in quarters. Which of the following actions is MOST CORRECT for the new Lt to take?

A: Any reported hazing/bullying incident that would also be a crime will be reported directly to NYPD for investigation.

B: Alleged violations of this policy will be handled confidentially, however members cannot submit a hazing/bullying report anonymously to BITS or EEO.

C: Hazing or bullying that may also implicate or violate the department’s EEO policy is covered by reporting under the Anti Hazing/Anti Bullying policy.

D:Any incidents or allegations of hazing or bullying shall be reported by supervisory personnel in writing up the chain of command to the Chief of Department.

Answer 14

d Explanation:
PA/ID 1/2013
A – DOI for investigation.
B – Can submit anonymously. Members are encouraged to provide one’s name and contact information. 4.2
C – Hazing/Bullying that violates EEO Policy shall be reported directly to EEO office in accordance with the EEO Policy. 4.6
D – 4.4.

Question 15

Question 15:
Which property of methanol, which may be used to fuel vehicles that may enter NYC, is listed incorrectly?

A:Methanol is a highly volatile flammable liquid which is soluble in water.

B:Methanol vapors are slightly lighter than air and will readily dissipate with the assistance of a fog stream.

C: Methanol has a flash point of 54 F.

D: Methanol burns cleanly (little smoke) and its pale blue flame may be difficult to see in bright sunlight.

Answer 15

b Explanation:
Methanol vapors are slightly heavier than air and will flow along the ground collecting in low areas.
HM 1 4.2

Question 16

Question 16:
The only correct statement you made when drilling on Salvage Operations can be found in which choice?

A: Every Ladder and Engine is a Salvage Unit

B: A FF of the Salvage Unit is responsible for completing a single copy of the SAL-2 form

C: After the fire is placed Probably Will Hold, salvage operations are carried out in the fire area

D:Elevator shafts shall not be used for removal of water

Answer 16

d Explanation:
Training Bulletins Salvage 1
A- Every ladder company is a Salvage Unit….10.1
B- Ladder Company Officer…12.2
C- Under Control….2.1
D- 7.5

Question 17

Question 17:
Members of your unit are conducting MUD at a two family private dwelling. They are discussing operational variations as compared to single family private dwellings. Which comment below is correct regarding ladder company operations at two family private dwellings?

A: Access to the second floor is via an unenclosed stairway.

B:At two family PD’s, there will not be the initial rapid buildup of smoke on the second floor.

C: For a 1st floor fire, if there’s no visible life hazard discovered by the first arriving ladder’s Roof/OV team, they shall VEIS the second floor windows and assist in searches.

D: There are some private dwellings designed with a separate small apartment located at the ground floor or below grade level. These apartments will always have a secondary means of egress.

Answer 17

b Explanation:
A. Access to the second floor is via an ENCLOSED stairway.
C. …VEIS the FIRST FLOOR windows…
D. These apartments may have a separate and distinct entrance AS THE ONLY MEANS OF EGRESS.

Private Dwellings Ch 4: 9.1; 9.2; 9.3

Question 18

Question 18:
CFRD assignments/designations shall be handed out at roll call. If the nozzle firefighter is the Airway, the Officer the Boss, the back-up the Checker, & the Control firefighter operates the Defibrillator, which member is responsible for completing the PCR?

A: Officer

B: Nozzle

C: Back-up

D:Control

Answer 18

d Explanation:
CFRD CHAPTER 2
D is Correct – The Defib/Documentor is responsible for completing the PCR 2.1.4D

Question 19

Question 19:
At lithium ion energy storage system incidents where members must establish an initial Danger Zone (to reduce explosion exposure risks), members should observe?

A: A minimum of 50 ft from container/cabinet exhaust fan opening (usually located on the container’s/cabinet’s side opposite FDC). Cabinets may not have exhaust systems.

B: A minimum of 50 ft from container/cabinet exhaust fan opening (usually located on the container’s/cabinet’s side opposite FDC). Containers may not have exhaust systems.

C:A minimum of 100 ft from container/cabinet exhaust fan opening (usually located on the container’s/cabinet’s side opposite FDC). Cabinets may not have exhaust systems.

D: A minimum of 100 ft from container/cabinet exhaust fan opening (usually located on the container’s/cabinet’s side opposite FDC). Containers may not have exhaust systems.

Answer 19

c Explanation:
Members should observe:
Minimum of 50 ft radius from container(s)/cabinet(s).
Minimum of 100 ft from container/cabinet exhaust fan opening (usually located on the container’s/cabinet’s side opposite FDC). Cabinets may not have exhaust systems.
HM 19 p4

Question 20

Question 20:
With all units in position for a fire in a Brownstone, choose the unit/position that carried out their duties incorrectly.

A: For a top floor fire, the 1st arriving LCC raised and position aerial to roof of exposure for use by Roof and OV FFs

B: For a fire on the 3rd floor of a 4 sty Brownstone with an occupant in need of rescue in the rear, the 1st arriving OV decided to stay in the rear reassuring the victim help is on the way because there was no fire escape, and it was impracticable to get a portable ladder to the rear

C: For a fire on the 3rd floor of a 4 sty Brownstone and no rear rescue needed, and unable to to team up with another member to enter for search, the 1st arriving OV FF shall return to the front of the building to team up with the chauffeur for top floor VEIS

D:When the 1st Ladder is a TL, the 2nd arriving OV FF will team up with the 1st arriving OV FF and operate in the basket of the 1st arriving TL

Answer 20

d Explanation:
Brownstones
A- p-11
B- OR proceed to the roof and assist with LSR rescue. The decision is based on 1) the emotional state of the victim, 2) The fire/smoke condition in the immediate vicinity of the victim, 3) The location and severity of the fire… P-13
C- p-14
D- When 1st arriving ladder is a TL, the OV position in the rear will be covered by the 2nd to arrive OV…..p-18

Question 21

Question 21:
Glass removal is an important part of operating at motor vehicle accidents. Which point below about glass removal is incorrect?

A:There are two predominate types of glass used for vehicle windows, tempered glass which is used for the windshield, and laminated safety glass which is found on the sides and rear of a vehicle.

B: Salvage plastic may be used to protect victims and/or rescuers from airborne glass debris.

C: The axe should be considered as a last resort for removing a windshield.

D: The center-punch or halligan can be used to break tempered glass.

Answer 21

a Explanation:
A. There are two predominate types of glass used for vehicle windows; LAMINATED SAFETY GLASS which is used for the windshields, and TEMPERED GLASS which is found on the sides and rear of a vehicle.

CROSS REF: TOOLS 39 BELUGA AUTO GLASS KNIFE
SECTION 2.3: ALL 2018 AND NEWER AUTOMOBILES AND TRUCKS ARE REQUIRED TO HAVE LAMINATED SAFETY GLASS INSTALLED THROUGHOUT THE VEHICLE, NOT JUST THE WINDSHIELD.

Disentanglement and Extrication Section 11

Question 22

Question 22:
The Engine and Truck Lt’s were discussing the parameters of standpipe systems in High Rise buildings. Which statement below regarding these systems is CORRECT?

A:A High Rise building constructed in 2008 which is 600’ in height will require a standpipe system which has low and high zones.

B: A High Rise building constructed in 2008 which is 800’ in height will require a standpipe system which has low and high zones.

C: A High Rise building constructed in 2008 whose standpipe is 500’ in height will require low and high zones.

D:High Rise building constructed in 2008 whose standpipe is 700’ in height will require low and high zones.

Answer 22

d Explanation:
D is Correct – Buildings constructed under the 2008 building code having a STANDPIPE RISER OVER 600 feet in height shall have separate “Low Zone” and “High Zone” siamese connections. 9.3.13
A building’s height does not determine the height of the standpipe riser (Spire/peak/open space)

Question 23

Question 23:
Unless otherwise directed, Ladder Companies reporting to the Forward Staging Area at a fire in a high rise office building shall bring with them all of the following equipment, except?

A: A SCBA for each member.

B:One set of forcible entry tools and a six-foot hook.

C: Search and utility ropes.

D: A spare SCBA cylinder for each member.

Answer 23

b Explanation:
TWO sets of forcible entry tools and six-foot hooks.
HROB 6.3.6 F

Question 24

Question 24:
The five conditions that must be present for a wind impacted fire to occur can be correctly stated in all of the following except?

A:Failed or opened window anywhere in the fire apartment

B: Wind

C: Fire in the apartment

D: Fire apartment door leading to the public hall left open or not fully closed

E: An area of low pressure such as an opened stairwell door, or an opened apartment door on the opposite side of the public hallway from the fire apartment.

Answer 24

a Explanation:
Failed or opened window IN THE FIRE ROOM
Multiple Dwellings sec 2.2

Question 25

Question 25:
There are times when the dispatcher may have to institute a Telephone Turnout Procedure. This can occur when both the PC/ATS and voice alarm are out of service. Which of the following choices is incorrect regarding this procedure?

A: The telephone is rung in company quarters and is answered by the housewatch.

B: The dispatcher announces the alarm over the telephone when the phone is answered.

C: The housewatch acknowledges the response, hangs up, and the unit responds as directed.

D:If there are any doubts about a telephone message from a dispatcher, the officer on duty should check the validity of the dispatch by calling the on-duty Battalion Chief.

Answer 25

d Explanation:
If there are any doubts about a telephone message from a dispatcher, the officer on duty should check the validity of the dispatch by calling the Borough Communications Office to verify the message.
Comm 3 3.3.1

Question 26

Question 26:
Members must take certain precautions to ensure they safely ascend or descend the aerial ladder. Which precaution below is correct?

A:The hook is the only tool that need not actually be carried on aerial ladders, portable ladders or fire escapes.

B: Rungs are generally used when climbing the ladder with a tool. However, at steep angles greater safety is achieved by using the hand rails.

C: While climbing, the hook is extended arm’s length overhead and hooked on a rung. It is not touched again until the member has climbed to a position where the top of the hook is about waist level.

D: While ascending or descending, the hook should be placed on a rung of the ladder after the member steps on the aerial ladder.

Answer 26

a Explanation:
B. HAND RAILS are generally used when climbing the ladder with a tool. However, at steep angles greater safety is achieved by using the RUNGS.
C. …KNEE LEVEL
D. …BEFORE the member steps on the aerial ladder.

Aerial Ladders 7.15

Question 27

Question 27:
Which choice below CORRECTLY lists the stages of the Collapse Rescue Plan in order?

A: Reconnaissance, Accounting for and removal of the Surface Victims, Selected Debris Removal and Tunneling, Search of the Voids, General Debris Removal.

B:Reconnaissance, Accounting for and Removal of the Surface Victims, Search of the Voids, Selected Debris Removal and Tunneling, General Debris Removal.

C: Reconnaissance, Search of the Voids, Accounting for and Removal of the Surface Victims, General Debris Removal, Selected Debris Removal and Tunneling.

D:Reconnaissance, Accounting for and Removal of the Surface Victims, Search of the Voids, General Debris Removal, Selected Debris Removal and Tunneling.

Answer 27

b

Explanation:
FIREFIGHTING PROCEDURES – COLLAPSE
B is Correct – Reconnaissance, Accounting for and Removal of the Surface Victims, Search of the Voids, Selected Debris Removal and Tunneling, General Debris Removal… 11.1 pg 25

Question 28

Question 28:
Select the incorrect tactic when operating at a HRFPMD.

A: Prior to advancing to the reported fire floor, member must gather information by surveying the floor below or two floors below if scissor stairs are present

B: All members must access the fire floor from the same stairway until the attack stairway has been determined

C:To simulate how the wind will flow through the apartment, the Roof FF shall operate on the floor above, and keep the apartment door closed and open a window

D: When deploying a WCD (K.O. Curtain/Fire Blanket), the deployment window must be closed after deployment of the device

Answer 28

c Explanation:
Multiple Dwellings
A- 3.3.1
B- 3.3.1
C- Open window and open apartment door….3.3.5
D- 4.2.1

Question 29

Question 29:
A master meter valve may control the flow of natural gas to just a few appliances (i.e., in a private dwelling), or to many appliances (i.e., in an apartment house). Which of the following statements is incorrect concerning members shutting down gas at the master meter valve?

A: When possible, prior to shutting a master meter valve notify the Utility Company and inquire as to possible alternatives (i.e., plugging/taping the leak, venting pending arrival of the Utility Company, etc.).

B: A unit may shut the master meter valve without consulting the utility if natural gas levels are still rising despite trying other methods to control the leak.

C: A master meter may have a second master meter adjacent to it. This second meter is used in the event of a malfunction in the primary master meter in use.

D:When shutting down the gas supply to the building via the master meter, members must ensure they only shut the primary master meter.

Answer 29

d Explanation:
D. The valves to BOTH METERS would need to be closed to shut supply to the building.

Natural Gas 4.4.3; 6.7.3

Question 30

BACK LIST NEXT

Question 29:
A master meter valve may control the flow of natural gas to just a few appliances (i.e., in a private dwelling), or to many appliances (i.e., in an apartment house). Which of the following statements is incorrect concerning members shutting down gas at the master meter valve?

A: When possible, prior to shutting a master meter valve notify the Utility Company and inquire as to possible alternatives (i.e., plugging/taping the leak, venting pending arrival of the Utility Company, etc.).

B: A unit may shut the master meter valve without consulting the utility if natural gas levels are still rising despite trying other methods to control the leak.

C: A master meter may have a second master meter adjacent to it. This second meter is used in the event of a malfunction in the primary master meter in use.

D:When shutting down the gas supply to the building via the master meter, members must ensure they only shut the primary master meter.

Answer 30

d Explanation:
D. The valves to BOTH METERS would need to be closed to shut supply to the building.

Natural Gas 4.4.3; 6.7.3

Question 31

Question 30:
What is the 2nd arriving Engine Company responsible for at a haz-mat incident where the Department has activated the “emergency response plan?”

A: Water Supply

B:Site Access Control

C: CFR-D duties

D: Information Resources

Answer 31

b Explanation:
First Arriving Engine Company—Water Supply; if necessary may perform CFR-D.
Second Arriving Engine—Site Access Control; if necessary may perform CFR-D.
Third Arriving Engine Company - should be assigned CFR-D duties. If the First or Second Arriving Engine Company is already assigned CFR-D work, then the Third Arriving Engine should be assigned to water supply and decontamination or site control as needed.
ERP 12.2

Question 32

Question 31:
Which choice below is incorrect regarding entries made in the company journal?

A: In quarters housing two (2) or more companies the officer in command of each unit shall write a separate roll call.

B: Military Time shall be used when making entries except that the terms 9x6 and 6x9 shall be used to designate tours of duty.

C:Civilian employees of the Department shall not make entries when entering and leaving quarters; the member in housewatch is responsible for these entries.

D: Entries of members reporting for duty shall be limited to one such member per line.

Answer 32

c Explanation:
Civilian employees of the Department shall make entries in their own handwriting in company journal when entering and leaving quarters.
CJ 2.6, 2.9, 2.11, 2.13

Question 33

Question 32:
What is the definition of a transition in the development of a compartment fire when surfaces exposed to thermal radiation from fire gases in excess of 1100°F reach ignition temperature more or less simultaneously?

A: Backdraft

B:Flashover

C: Heat Release Rate

D: Rollover

Answer 33

b

Explanation:
This causes the fire to spread rapidly throughout the space, resulting in fire involvement of the entire compartment or enclosed space.
Vent Glossary

Question 34

Question 33:
Two firefighters assigned to a busy Ladder Company in Queens were discussing FAST duties; specifically the removal of an unconscious/downed member. Of the following, which comment made was incorrect?

A:Once supplied with air and packaged, if required, remove the downed member from the IDLH as soon as possible. If the FAST Pak is not at your location, halt the removal procedure until the member assigned the FAST Pak arrives to provide a positive air supply.

B: Once an unconscious member is supplied with air, turn the purge valve half way to allow a constant flow of air.

C: Once clear of the IDLH environment, stop and assess the medical needs of the distressed member. Treatment should be driven by patient condition; address situations that are immediately life threatening such as “No pulse or not breathing,” and “Major bleeding.”

D: Emergency air replenishment of an SCBA from an air supply source is possible while the SCBA is still in use through the Universal Air Coupling (UAC). The UAC is for emergency use only when a member is low or out of air within an IDLH. If the condition of the distressed member’s SCBA is in doubt do not provide air via the high pressure system.

Answer 34

a Explanation:
Once supplied with air and packaged, if required, remove the downed member from the IDLH as soon as possible. If the FAST Pak is not at your location, start the removal procedure and communicate with the member assigned the FAST Pak to determine a suitable location to meet.
MMID 3 7.4, 7.8, 7.9, 8.1

Question 35

Question 34:
The order of preference to the roof of a brownstone for the Roof FF when the 1st arriving ladder is a TL, and the 2nd arriving ladder is an Aerial ladder can be stated correctly in which choice?

A:1)The basket, 2) 2nd arriving Aerial Ladder, 3) adjoining building

B: 1) 2nd arriving Aerial Ladder, the basket, 3) adjoining building

C: 1) The basket, 2) adjoining building, 3) 2nd arriving Aerial Ladder

D: 1) Adjoining building, 2) the basket, 3) 2nd arriving Aerial

Answer 35

a Explanation:
Note: A visible life hazard will negate the initial use of the TL basket for roof access
Brownstones p-22

Question 36

Question 36:
An alternative to roof venting to help mitigate a potential backdraft is by use of a hose stream. Which choice below contains incorrect information regarding this procedure?

A: Before entering a room or area that exhibits signs of an explosive atmosphere, a charged hoseline should be positioned near the entrance.

B: Initially, firefighters should be protected by taking a flanking position or by the reach of the hose stream.

C: The hoseline should be immediately discharged into the fire area when the fire area is opened-up.

D:This is an alternative to roof venting and equally as effective.

Answer 36

d Explanation:
This is an alternative to roof venting, although NOT as effective.
Note: Taking this action before firefighters and outside air enter a burning, confined, potentially explosive fire area, may allow the water stream to break up the explosive atmosphere. The water can cool a potentially explosive atmosphere.
Txpyr 4.4.1 N

Question 37

Question 37:
When it is determined that a fire and/or smoke condition (smoke grenades) is present, in which active shooting is occurring or possible firearms could be used against firefighters, members shall take all of the following actions except?

A: Remain behind hard cover and out of the line-of-sight.

B:If members are in an open area without some type of cover, they should immediately assume a supine position on the ground.

C: Alert on-scene and incoming units of an active shooter. Consider using the emergency alert tone with an urgent message to notify units that this is an active shooter incident and not a routine fire or emergency.

D: Since the alert over the Department Radio is critical to all incoming units; the member transmitting shall not request a “Mixer off”.

Answer 37

b Explanation:
If members are in an open area without some type of cover, they should immediately assume a PRONE position on the ground.
A Note: Cover is not the same as concealment. Cover is any material that can reasonably be expected to stop the travel of a bullet fired from small arms. Concealment simply conceals an individual from view.
SB 89 3.1

Question 38

Question 38:
The proper execution of a “water relay” evolution may be critical at an operation when a 10-70 is transmitted. Of the following choices, which contains incorrect information?

A: Time permitting, a 2½” gate should be attached to the hydrant’s 2½” outlet for possible augmentation, if necessary.

B:For operations where head pressures must be overcome (e.g., standpipe operations) requiring higher pump pressures, the Supply Pumper should be in the pressure position and the Operating Pumper must be in the volume position.

C: If possible, it is better to set up a relay operation before supplying handlines.

D: Officers ordering ECCs to “drop” booster tank water should be aware that in addition to the possibility of running out of water, it also increases the possibility that the pump may loose prime, necessitating the ECC to shut down lines and re-prime the pumps.

Answer 38

b Explanation:
For operations where head pressures must be overcome (e.g., standpipe operations) requiring higher pump pressures, the Supply Pumper should be in the VOLUME position and the Operating Pumper must be in the PRESSURE position. Evol 8 Notes 1,2,5,6

Question 39

Question 39:
You’re the first arriving ladder company arriving at a fire in the cellar of a semi-attached private dwelling. The first line is being stretched to a secondary entrance on the exposure 2 side of the fire building because it provides the quickest access to the cellar. The second ladder company has just pulled up and proceeds according to department SOP’s. Which action taken at this operation is incorrect?

A:The first arriving ladder company proceeded via the main entrance to conduct a primary search of the first floor prior to proceeding down the interior cellar stairs.

B: The first ladder company is responsible for the primary search of the cellar.

C: The interior door that leads to the first floor at the top of the stairs to the cellar was maintained closed.

D: The second ladder company inside team provided VEIS of all floors above the cellar.

Answer 39

a A. The first ladder inside team should proceed to the same entrance as the first hoseline, to provide entry for the engine company.

Private Dwellings Ch 4: 10.1; 10.3.1; 10.3.2

Question 40

Question 40:
When it comes to staffing, choose the most correct statement.

A:While awaiting details, units staffed with an officer and minimum two firefighters (at least one is a chauffeur), shall respond to all alarms

B: While responding with 4 FFs, the Ladder Company officer transmitted to the dispatcher that “we are responding understaffed”

C: While responding with 4 FFs, which normally is staffed with 5 FFs, the Engine Company officer transmitted to the dispatcher that “we are responding with 4 FFs”

D: When an understaffed unit is the only unit on scene, the unit can conduct a standard search as long a safety team is implemented

Answer 40

a Explanation:
AUC 287
A- 8.3.4
B- “we responding with 4 FFs” ….8.2.2
C- “we are responding with 4 FFs” is only for units considered group 1 (Ladders, Rescues, Squads)…..1.1, 8.2.1
D- Shall take a defensive position. However, if a KNOWN life hazard is discovered and immediate action could prevent the loss of life, appropriate action (rescue activity) may be taken by an individual member. This applies only for a known life hazard, NOT FOR STANDARD SEARCH AND RESCUE ACTIVITY…8.3.6