exam 14 Flashcards

1
Q

Question 1:

At the top of the main display screen on the HT, you notice a “H”. What does this indicate?

A: Heat detected

B:You are operating at 5 watts

C: Hot battery

D: You are operating at 2 watts

A

b Explanation:
High wattage (5 watts)
TX Power: An H or L on the display indicates high (5 Watt) and low (2 Watt) power level.
Comm 11 2.2.2 D

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2
Q

Question 2:
You have just arrive 1st due to a Con-Edison substation. You exit the apparatus and notice smoke emanating from the substation. You employ the following tactics and take the following precautions. Choose the incorrect tactic/precaution.

A:Forced entry to retrieve information from the “Lockbox” located inside the substation

B: Avoid bringing metal tools into substation and do not allow any tools to project above your shoulder

C: Set up handlines to protect exposed buildings

D: Stretched a 3 1/2 supply line to the sprinkler Siamese for the electrical transformers, however, you did not charge the line, unless requested to do so by Con-Ed white hat

A

a Explanation:
AUC 338 add 2
A- Lockbox is inside the substation, BUT WE DO NOT FORCE ENTRY. Respond to muster site to meet con-ed white hat. Con-ed white hat will retrieve information from the Lockbox located inside the substation. sec 4.1, 6
B- sec 6
C- sec 5.1
D- sec 5.2

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3
Q

Question 3:
Units are operating at the scene of a 2nd alarm cellar fire in a cast-iron loft building. First alarm ladder companies are performing primary searches in the fire building. There are four hoselines stretched at this fire. Which hoseline was deployed incorrectly?

A:The first line was stretched to the interior of the first floor to the top of the interior cellar stairs. This line must remain on the first floor to prevent upward extension of fire.

B: Depending on conditions, the second hoseline may need to gain an alternate access point to the fire in the cellar.

C: The IC ordered the third hoseline into exposure 2 which was interconnected to the fire building below grade.

D: The IC ordered the fourth hoseline to supply a cellar pipe.

A

a Explanation:
The first engine company should stretch the initial hoseline via the interior to the fire area. If conditions prevent initial hoseline from advancing down the interior stairs, notify the IC and remain at this position to prevent upward extension.

If the first hoseline is unable to advance into the fire area, the second hoseline may need to gain an alternate access point into the fire area.

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4
Q

Question 4:

A taxpayer erected in 1975 should have concealed spaces in ceilings, unless sprinklered, firestopped into areas not exceeding?

A: 1,000 square feet

B:2,500 square feet

C:3,000 square feet

D: 5,000 square feet

A

c Explanation:
BUILDING LAWS - 1968 CODE: Only structures erected after the enactment of these sections of the law would be affected.
Txpyr Appx A 2.5

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5
Q

Question 5:
The correct color of the First Responder’s Bridge Manual/Field Guide can be found in which choice?

A: Red

B: White

C: Blue

D:Green

A

d Explanation:
AUC 344
Look at picture on page 2
Company Commanders shall ensure the Field Guides are accounted for and stored in a secure location on the apparatus with the Emergency Response Guidebook for Hazardous Material Incidents (Orange Book). Report lost or stolen manuals forthwith to the PTSU by phone and email PTSU. Forward a FS-112

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6
Q

Question 6:
Operational units will conduct familiarization drills at public, private and charter schools K-12. After the initial familiarization drill, the unit will continue to conduct such drills within every ___ from the most recent familiarization drill.

A: school year

B: calendar year

C:two years

D: three years

A

c Explanation:
Regulations 12: 12.1.12

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7
Q

Question 7:

Any member planning to perform “Ventilation for Search” at a structural fire should comply with each of the following except?

A: Once a decision has been made and approval has been granted to enter, the member should clear out the window for access and, before entering, reassess the smoke and heat conditions to determine if the area is tenable.

B: Upon reassessment after the window is cleared, if conditions now prevent access, immediately notify the Ladder Company Officer of this situation. However, if conditions are tenable, the member should reach in and probe the immediate area for potential victims.

C: After venting and entering, the priority action for the member is to isolate the area by closing a door before conducting the search (VEIS). Then search the room and locate any victim; if a victim is found, immediately transmit a 10-45, include your location and planned exit route.

D:If a victim is found prior to isolating the room, immediately remove the victim to a safe area and then isolate the room before proceeding with the rescue effort.

A

d Explanation:
If a victim is found prior to isolating the room, the member shall isolate the room and proceed with the rescue effort.
Vent 12.6

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8
Q

Question 8:
Any building which has a Pre-Incident Guideline must be included in the CIDS program. The correct FD designation for the Pre-Incident Guideline that must be included at the beginning of the transmitted data section (CIDS) can be found in which choice?

A: PIG

B:PG

C: PI

D: IG

A

b Explanation:
AUC 345 sec 3.1
Also: Pre-Incident Guidelines shall be prepared by the administrative company and emailed to the administrative Battalion for verification and approval as a candidate for a Pre-Incident Guideline…..sec 2.1
Once approved, company shall establish two Pre-Incident Guideline binders for their respective administrative as well as necessary response districts. One binder shall be carried in an accessible location on the apparatus and the other shall be kept in the company office for necessary reference….sec 4.1

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9
Q

Question 9:
Portable ladders may be used in many ways and with different tools to perform a variety of functions at fires and emergencies. The most innovative uses of ladders have resulted from quick responses to unusual situations. When using portable ladders to bridge a fence which statement is incorrect?

A:One ladder is placed against the fence and one member ascends the ladder to the point where the top of the fence is at waist level.

B: The butt end of the second ladder is passed to the member on the first ladder.

C:He/she then places both beams of the second ladder on top of the fence, slides it out a sufficient distance, pivots the ladder down from the fence, and lowers it to the ground.

D: The adjacent beams of the two ladders are tied together securely where they intersect, to prevent ladder movement during use.

A

c Explanation:
C. He/she places ONE BEAM of the second ladder on top of the fence…

Portable Ladders 9.2.1

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10
Q

Question 10:

A knowledgeable company officer would be correct to know that, on the HT, the “Transmit/Receive LED” illuminates?

A: Solid Red when transmitting and Solid Green when receiving.

B: Blinking Red (while not transmitting) - HT transmitting at low battery condition.

C: Blinking Red (while transmitting) - HT is in Emergency Mode.

D:Blinking Amber - HT is receiving a secured transmission.

A

d Explanation:
Solid Red when transmitting and Solid Amber when receiving.
Blinking Red (while transmitting) - HT transmitting at low battery condition.
Blinking Red (while not transmitting) - HT is in Emergency Mode.
Comm 11 2.2.5 E

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11
Q

Question 11:
While working in a Ventilation Support Unit, you gave safety tips when using the Positive Pressure Fans (PPF). From the following tips you gave, you were incorrect in which choice?

A:PPF can be transported only when dialed down to idle

B: PPF should be lifted by two members whenever the fans need to come off the ground

C: PPF shall never be fueled inside a structure

D: PPF should be inspected and started daily at the beginning of the 9x6 tour, and weekly at MUD. Fans shall be started and allowed to run at full RPM for 5 minutes

A

a Explanation:
AUC 349
A- The PPF shall NEVER be transported while in operation….sec 11.2
B- sec 11.5
C- sec 11.6
D- sec 11.7

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12
Q

Question 12:
Members must take certain safety precautions when operating the aerial ladder apparatus. Below is a list of some of those precautions. Which one is incorrect?

A: Stabilizer jack pads shall be placed under the area where the stabilizers come in contact with the ground. Manual safety pins must be placed in the highest hole possible in the stabilizers.

B:When both stabilizers are properly in place, both STABILIZER DOWN green lights will be illuminated.

C: For unobstructed climbing of the aerial ladder, align the rungs. This is accomplished when the “Rung Alignment Indicator Light” is illuminated.

D:Wheel chocks should be placed to prevent movement of the apparatus. Carry two sets of chocks on each side of the apparatus.

A

d Explanation:
D. Carry ONE SET OF CHOCKS on each side of the apparatus.

Aerial Ladders 8.2; 8.3; 8.5

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13
Q

Question 13:

Which choice below includes the most correct answers on when a unit may transmit a 10-91?

  1. Fire Unit is canceled enroute to a medical emergency due to EMS on scene.
  2. Medical assignment where the Fire Unit is 10-84, has no patient contact and EMS is on-scene.
  3. EMS downgrades the job to a segment that does not require a Fire Unit response, prior to the unit going 10-84 at a medical emergency.
  4. Fire Unit arrives at a stuck elevator response where NYPD has already safely removed passengers.

A:Only 1 and 3

B: All of the above

C: Only 1, 2 and 3

D: Only 2 and 3

A

a Explanation:
2. 10-37 Code 4 - medical assignment where the unit is 10-84, has no patient contact and EMS is on-scene.
4. This signal shall be used only for medical emergency incidents.
Comm 8 10-91

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14
Q

Question 14:
As a newly promoted Lieutenant, with the winter season fast approaching, you must be knowledgeable in the use of snow chains. From the following choices listed below, choose the only correct statement you made during drill on the use of snow chains.

A:As an alternative to installing the snow chains using the “drive over” method, FFs can use the Turtle ramp to assist in installing the snow chains

B: When snow chains are applied, apparatus must not exceed 15 MPH

C: When apparatus is out of quarters for any reason, and cross links of chains break or become loose, the officer shall cause apparatus to stop immediately and have condition corrected by removing loose or broken links with bolt cutters

D: The installation of snow chains are to be applied to the two rear outer drive wheels only, which includes apparatus with dual rear axles

A

a Explanation:
Training Bulletins C2 add 1 sec 2 & 3
A- NEW as of 10/29/2019
B- 30 MPH
C- EXCEPT WHILE RESPONDING TO FIRES OR EMERGENCIES
D- Apparatus with dual rear axles shall have chains mounted on ALL OUTER REAR DRIVE WHEELS
Remember: The use of outriggers or tormentors to lift the apparatus shall NEVER be attempted inside of the firehouse

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15
Q

Question 15:
Top floor fires in old law tenements often times extend to the cockloft. Operating members need to determine if the fire has entered the cockloft as soon as conditions permit and relay this information to the Incident Commander. Which comment below is correct for members to consider when checking the cockloft for fire extension?

A: When fire is burning in a top floor apartment, it is important for members to wait until the fire is “knocked down” before examining the cockloft.

B: An early inspection can be made by going to a room adjacent to the fire (within the fire apartment only) and opening an observation hole in that ceiling.

C: If fire can be seen burning in the cockloft the observation hole should be immediately expanded to define the extent of the fire.

D:It is good practice while waiting for a charged hoseline to ventilate all the windows in the apartment, because once the ceiling is opened the floor will quickly become filled with smoke.

A

d Explanation:
A. When fire is burning in a top floor apartment, it is NOT EFFICIENT to wait until the fire is “knocked down” before examining the cockloft.

B. An early inspection can be made by going to a room adjacent to the fire (IN THE SAME OR ADJOINING APARTMENT) and opening an observation hole in that ceiling.
C. If fire can be seen burning in the cockloft the observation hole should NOT BE EXPANDED UNTIL A CHARGED HOSELINE HAS BEEN POSITIONED.

Ladders 3: 5.9.6 NOTE

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16
Q

Question 16:
When requesting an ambulance, CFR-D Companies must provide certain information to the dispatcher for relay to EMD. Which of the following is not an example of what should be transmitted?

A: Pulse

B: CUPS Status

C: Age

D:Blood Pressure

A

d Explanation:
CFR-D Manual Ch 2 sec 3.11
Acronym: PARCCC
Pulse, Age, Respiratory rate, CUPS status, Chief complaint, CPR initiated

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17
Q

Question 17:

In some cases, HTs receiving transmissions from spare radios may display only numeric IDs due to programming limitations. Which of the “first” numerical digits below indicates a “spare radio”?

A: 3

B: 4

C:6

D:9

A

c

Explanation:
3 - EMS
4 - ARCS
6 - Spare & Communications
9 - Special Units
Comm 11 Add 4 p4 chart

18
Q

Question 18:
During fire operations with a damaged facepiece, the procedure is to leave the facepiece on and conserve as much breathing air as possible by covering the damaged area with one hand. If the leak is more than can be controlled with one hand, all of the following shall be adhered to except which choice?

A: Continue to cover as much of the damaged area as possible

B: Press the manual shut-off switch after each breath to further limit the loss of breathing air

C: If damaged area is too large to allow the regulator shut-off to release, then use the purge valve in an ON and OFF motion for each breath

D:A member experiencing a failure of the facepiece lens, which results in bubbling or a hole, the above procedure shall be followed with a gloved hand

A

d Explanation:
Training Bulletins SCBA 6.5.3 & 6.5.5
MUST NOT touch or attempt to cover the opening. Doing so can cause the hole in the lens to enlarge as the polycarbonate can be wiped away or can stick to a member’s gloved hand as the lens melts
Choice D is new as of 2/15/2018

19
Q

Question 19:
Due to their large size, elaborate construction features (especially the attic and roof area) and unique internal features, Queen Anne type private dwellings present a more complex fire problem than the average private dwelling. Due to the number of firefighters that may be needed for portable ladder rescue and the number of sleeping areas that may have to be entered and searched, it is good practice for the IC to _____ at fires in Queen Anne PDs.

A: Special call an additional engine and ladder company

B: Special call an additional engine company

C:Special call an additional ladder company

D: Transmit a second alarm

A

c nation:
Private Dwellings Ch 4: 8.4

20
Q

Question 20:
CFR-D Units must immediately begin packaging efforts while simultaneously treating a life threat when a patient is determined to be?

A: Critical only

B: Critical or potentially unstable

C:Critical or unstable

D:Critical, unstable or potentially unstable

A

c Explanation:
CFR-D Manual Chapter 2
C. If the patient is critical or unstable, packaging efforts must begin immediately while treating life threats. 3.12

21
Q

Question 21:

SOC Support Ladders are trained to commence operations at confined space incidents within specific limits. Which limitation listed below is incorrect?

A: SOC Support Ladder Companies shall not be permitted to attempt any entry that would require the rescuer to leave the direct line of sight of the officer supervising entry at the entrance to the space.

B: A fully equipped back-up rescuer shall remain on stand-by in the event the primary (entry) rescuer is injured, overcome, or needs assistance in escaping the space.

C: SOC Support Ladders shall only attempt an entry when all necessary precautions to safeguard the rescuer are taken, specifically, a suitable high point anchor shall be positioned to allow a retrieval system to be placed, air monitoring has taken place, and suitable steps are taken to remove hazards or otherwise protect rescuers (e.g., use of the SCBA for asphyxiation hazard).

D:SOC Support Ladders shall not attempt any entry where the hazards are atmospheric or controllable, or are not readily identifiable and controllable.

A

d Explanation:
SOC Support Ladders shall NOT attempt any entry where the hazards are OTHER THAN atmospheric and controllable, or are not readily identifiable and controllable.
For example, a rescue of a person trapped in a cesspool is a permissible entry, since the hazards are oxygen depletion and immersion. These hazards will be controlled by the rescuer wearing an SCBA at all times during entry, by remaining attached to their retrieval line at all times, and by having a suitable hauling system in place to effect their removal in case of an emergency. Entry into a chemical tank at a tank farm, where the product and hazards are not readily known, is not a permissible entry.
HM 10 7.2

22
Q

Question 22:
When it comes to the SCBA/FAST Pak, the incorrect statement can be found in which choice?

A: While on air, you feel 4 distinct blows on the shoulder and then pulled in a specific direction indicates that an emergency exists and you should promptly follow in that direction

B: For trapped members, utilize the nearest available FAST Pak

C:Under no circumstances shall a FAST Pak be used for civilians

D: Utilize a spare SCBA to provide air strictly to the trapped member or civilian

A

c

Explanation:
Training Bulletins SCBA sec 6.6.3 & 7.4.1
For civilians, utilize a FAST Pak OTHER than the one assigned to the FAST Unit

23
Q

Question 23:
In addition to firefighting positions given out at roll call, every water safety unit will designate positions in the case of a water rescue emergency. Which position below is described correctly?

A: The LCC/ECC usually assumes the position of rescue coordinator and shall be located where they can observe and direct the whole operation.

B: A Tower Ladder may be raised to facilitate spotter positioning and set up lights if needed. An aerial ladder shall not be used for this purpose.

C:Both the primary and secondary rescuer will don a PFD and be tended by a member controlling a tether line.

D: The primary objective of the secondary rescue team is to enter the water for a second victim.

A

c Explanation:
A. The COMPANY OFFICER…

B. An AERIAL OR TOWER LADDER may be raised…

D. The primary objective of the secondary rescue team is to ENSURE THE SAFETY OF THE PRIMARY RESCUE TEAM, ALTHOUGH THEY ARE PERMITTED TO ENTER THE WATER FOR A SECOND VICTIM.

Water Rescue 2: 3.7

24
Q

Question 24:

If members encounter aggressive deadly behavior in the form of active shooters prior to the arrival of NYPD, they should communicate their unit identity and location via the Borough Dispatcher to the NYPD. Also, if possible, provide all of following information to the NYPD except?

A: Number, location(s), and description of perpetrator(s).

B: Number & location(s) of victims and hostages, if any.

C:Number & location(s) of witnesses, if any.

D: Types of weapons in use (e.g., semiautomatic rifles, hand guns, explosives, knives).

A

c Explanation:
Communication method used by perpetrator(s), if apparent (cell phones, etc.)
ERP Add 3A 4.2

25
Q

Question 25:

A newly trained chauffeur made which incorrect comment regarding the use of sirens and warning lights?

A: Sirens and warning lights may only be used responding to or operating at an alarm, or relocating to the quarters of another unit. Sirens and warning lights shall not be used when returning from alarms.

B:In general the siren should be operated in the “Yelp” mode, except when encountering heavy traffic or upon approach to an intersection. Upon approaching an intersection, the siren should be switched from “Yelp” to “Wail”.

C: When operating at an incident, particularly when located in or near the path of traffic, all warning lights shall be in the “ON” position to warn oncoming traffic of the presence of lane obstructions.

D: Upon return to quarters, warning lights shall be switched on in preparation for and while backing into quarters.

A

Explanation:
In general the siren should be operated in the “Wail” mode, except when encountering heavy traffic or upon approach to an intersection. Upon approaching an intersection, the siren should be switched from “Wail” to “Yelp”. After all traffic has yielded the right of way and the apparatus proceeds through the intersection, the “Yelp” should be turned off or switched to “Wail”, depending on conditions.
SB 1 1.2 - 1.6, 5.1

26
Q

Question 26:
When responding to, and operating at a fire in a HRFPMD, size-up will play a key role in the overall outcome of the fire, especially when it comes to wind. Select the choice that would be considered an incorrect size-up.

A:The direction and speed at the street level is a reliable indicator of wind

B: Wind behavior is not consistent or predictable. Wind impacted fires have occurred on upper and lower floors. Building height, size, shape and location of adjoining or adjacent buildings add to the unpredictability of the effects of wind on fire conditions

C: Members operating in the fire area must be aware that when the fire and smoke pulse outward from the window, the condition in the interior will temporarily subside, giving a false sense that the interior conditions improved. When the wind gusts back into the window the interior conditions will dramatically deteriorate

D: The firefighter performing the outside survey may be the first member to observe this wind impacted fire condition

A

a Explanation:
The direction and speed at the street level is NOT a reliable indicator of wind
Multiple Dwellings add 3 sec 3.2

27
Q

Question 27:
You’re a company officer discussing metering at natural gas emergencies with your members at roll call. You relay the following information to your members but you’re incorrect in which statement?

A:The natural gas detector is used to determine the amount of gas present in an area.

B: The natural gas detector detects natural gas at low levels and is the superior tool for locating leaks in appliances, supply piping, and points of entry into the building.

C: The natural gas meter is a superior tool for identifying areas which are no longer safe to operate.

D: When metering, the best practice is to measure readings at a location high and in the middle of the room of the suspected leak; this is the % LEL to be reported to the IC.

A

a Explanation:
A. The natural gas METER is used to determine the amount of gas present in the area.

**BE CAREFUL WITH THE TERMS DETECTOR AND METER. THE BULLETIN MAKE A POINT TO DISTINGUISH BETWEEN THE TWO**

Natural Gas 6.4

28
Q

Question 28:

At a CO response, the Incident Commander shall request the utility company to respond in each of the following cases except?

A:A CO level 1 PPM or higher is recorded by a meter.

B: Units on the scene shut off a gas appliance.

C: An individual(s) is exhibiting symptoms of CO poisoning.

D: The IC feels a response by the utility company is required.

A

a

Explanation:
A CO level “over 9 PPM” is recorded by a meter.
Acronym: SICO
Symptoms
IC feels it is necessary
CO over 9ppm
Off - appliance shut
HM 4 4.1.

29
Q

Question 29:

A taxpayer erected in 1939 should have concealed roof space areas cut into areas of ________ or less by fire stops.

A: 1,000 square feet

B: 2,500 square feet

C:3,000 square feet

D:5,000 square feet

A

c Explanation:
BUILDING LAWS - 1938 CODE: Only structures erected after the enactment of these sections of the law would be affected.
Txpyr Appx A 1.2

30
Q

Question 30:
In order to effectively supervise the deployment of the K.O. Curtain or the Window Blanket during a wind impacted fire in a HRFPMD, supervisors need to know the effects of these wind control devices (WCD). Choose the incorrect effect the WCDs will have once deployed.

A:Will dramatically increase visibility in the fire area due to a decrease in smoke production

B: Fire may periodically vent around the sides and top of the deployed WCD with the potential for auto-exposure to the floor(s) above. The deployment window must be closed after deployment of the device

C: Advancing a hoseline into the fire apartment after a WCD is deployed, may increase steam and/or heat production

A

a Explanation:
Possible REDUCTION of visibility in the fire area due to an INCREASE in smoke production
Multiple Dwellings add 3 sec 4.2

31
Q

Question 31:
Fires in places of worship are particularly vulnerable to the quick spread of fire due to their basic design and use of combustible construction material. Which general tactic below is correct regarding fires in places of worship?

A: According to the Places of Worship Fires bulletin, fire conditions discussed are to be considered of such magnitude as to require the use of three hoselines for extinguishment.

B: In most cases when the fire does spread into the attic or bell tower, it can be extinguished by the use of handlines.

C: For a fire in the attic, the ceiling may collapse after the roof trusses which may cause an explosion-like eruption inside the place of worship, which can knock firefighters off ladders and blow out windows.

D:Venting the side windows, sometimes made with stain glass, will not effectively ventilate the upper portions of the structure.

A

d Explanation:
A. TWO HOSELINES

B. …IT CANNOT be extinguished…

C. …the ceiling may collapse BEFORE the roof trusses…
NEW BULLETIN AS OF 8/15/19 Places of Worship Fires 6.1.1; 6.4.1; 6.4.2; 7.2.1

32
Q

Question 32:

High Rise Office Buildings present many challenges during non-fire emergencies. A recently promoted Captain discussed proper Fire Department interaction with building personnel at these operations was incorrect in which statement?

A: At the Fire Command Station will be a Building Information Card (BIC) and a list of special needs occupants and their location in the building, who have requested assistance in the event the Emergency Action Plan (EAP) is implemented.

B: The Fire Safety/Emergency Action Plan Director (FS/EAPD) is responsible for communicating with building occupants during emergencies utilizing the building’s Fire Alarm Communications System; announcements should be made on a regular basis. The IC can also direct the FS/EAPD to make announcements as necessary.

C: First arriving units should request a briefing on any and all actions taken prior to their arrival. Units should be aware that the FS/EAPD is authorized to implement the EAP and take actions to ensure occupant safety.

D:The use of elevators by building personnel is prohibited during fires and non-fire emergencies; these elevators shall be reserved for exclusive use by the Fire Department.

A

d Explanation:
The use of elevators by building personnel to facilitate the movement of occupants is permissible (for non-fire emergencies) and should be anticipated under the EAP.
C Note: The FS/EAPD is authorized to implement the EAP and take actions to ensure occupant safety including elevator recall, public announcements and evacuations.
HROB Add 1 3.1, 4.2, 4.3

33
Q

Question 33:

For a lower floor fire in a cast-iron or mill loft building, which Ladder Company position is listed incorrectly below?

A:The first and second ladder companies will VES the fire floor; the floors above will be covered by additional arriving units.

B: The Roof FF’s access to the roof will be via an adjoining building, aerial/tower ladder, or a fire escape.

C: The first ladder OV FF’s primary position is the rear of the building to perform coordinated ventilation and report fire conditions. An exception to this would be assisting the chauffeur with an immediate life hazard in the front.

D: The second ladder OV FF will proceed to the rear to reinforce and ensure this position has been covered.

A

a Explanation:
The first ladder company will VES the fire floor and the second ladder company will VES the floors above.
Loft 7.2.1 D1, 7.2.2

34
Q

Question 34:
The ticket reads as follows: E100, E200, E300, E400, L99, TL500, L600F, B150, B200, D2…..All units are 10-84 and in position for a fire on the top floor of a 4 story OLT type rowframe. From the following choices, which unit/position carried out their duties correctly?

A:TL500 split the company and examined exposures for extension in the cockloft. The inside team operated in the most severely threatened exposure

B: L99 Roof FF accessed the roof via L99’s Aerial ladder and brought the Halligan tool and Saw (in place of hook)

C:TL500 LCC went to top floor of an exposure for examination when not needed in front of building

D: TL500 Roof FF accessed the roof via L99 Aerial Ladder with LSR and 6’ Halligan Hook

A

c Explanation:
Firefighting Procedures/RowFrames
A- For Brownstone type. NOT OLT type…For OLT type, TL500 inside team went to top floor adjacent apartment…. p-41, 44
B- L99 OV FF does this (1st due)…..L99 Roof FF access roof via L99’s Aerial and brought Halligan tool, 6’ Halligan hook, and LSR…..p- 36, 38
C- This can be for OLT and Brownstone type when not needed in front of building and directed by officer…. p-41
D- TL500 Roof FF (2nd due) accesses the roof via L99’s Aerial Ladder (order of preference) with a Saw and 6’ Halligan hook….p-`5, 22, 43

35
Q

Question 35:
At a cellar fire in a private dwelling where the quickest access to the cellar is through the main entrance, the first arriving ladder company inside team shall enter through the main dwelling entrance on the first floor to initiate searches and locate the top of the interior cellar stairs. Which additional tactic mentioned below is incorrect?

A: The first ladder company shall maintain door control of the main entrance door until a charged hoseline advances via the main entrance.

B: The first arriving ladder company inside team will perform a primary search of the first floor prior to descending into the cellar to perform the primary search of the cellar.

C:If the engine company requires assistance in order to advance the line through the cellar, the ladder company officer and one member of the interior team will provide assistance.

D: The second ladder company will report to the IC and augment search operations and ventilation efforts on all floors above the cellar.

A

c Explanation:
C. If the engine company requires assistance in order to advance the line through the cellar, ONE MEMBER OF THE INTERIOR TEAM SHALL BE SENT TO PROVIDE ASSISTANCE, WHILE THE LADDER COMPANY OFFICER AND THE OTHER MEMBER COMPLETE THE PRIMARY SEARCH OF THE FIRST FLOOR.

Private Dwellings Ch 4: 10.4

36
Q

Question 36:

At certain times, when the Fire Department has to address a member in distress, the IC shall consider having the FAST Group switch to HT channel 16 prior to the arrival of the 10-66 units. This will allow for more effective communications between units assigned to the FAST Group. All of the following should be on channel 16 except?

A: FAST Group Supervisor

B: FAST Unit

C:FF assigned the FAST Radio

D:Units assigned to the FAST Group

A

c Explanation:
FAST Group Supervisor on Ch-16
FAST Group Supervisor’s Aide on Ch-1
FF Removal Officer- (Rescue Battalion) on Ch-16
FF Removal Officer’s Aide on Ch-1
FF Locator Officer (Battalion Chief) on Ch-16
FF Locator Officer’s Aide on Ch-1
FAST Unit on Ch-16
FF assigned the FAST Radio on Ch-1
Units assigned to the FAST Group on Ch-16
MMID Ch 5 Add 1 2.1

37
Q

Question 37:

In the company journal, which entry/entries should be in blue or black ink?

  1. The house watch records a visit to quarters by a non-member.
  2. The officer records a member taking the remainder of the tour due to an injury.
  3. The house watch records a member entering quarters, reporting for duty (RFD) on MSOT.
  4. A member enters quarters to report for duty (RFD) and the unit is relocated. The members takes a mark, reporting for duty (RFD).

A:1,3

B: 1 only

C: 1,2,4

D:1,3,4

A

a Explanation:
Entries by the “member on housewatch” shall be in blue or black ink. Entries by “other members” shall be in red ink. No line shall be left blank between entries. Each line shall be started at left in a uniform manner.
CJ 2.1

38
Q

Question 38:
The ticket reads as follows: E100, E200, E300, E400, L99, TL500, L600F, B150, B200, D2…..All units are 10-84 and in position for a fire on the top floor of a 4 story OLT type rowframe. From the following choices, which unit/position carried out their duties correctly?

A: E300, who was ordered to take a line to the top floor of an exposure to extinguish fire in the cockloft, decided to take a 1/2” OST with them to use as an overhaul tip

B:Since the building is now considered a fully involved occupied rowframe in the middle of the block of other occupied frames, E100 stretched the first line into the fire building through the front door

C: Since the building is now considered a fully involved vacant rowframe in a row of occupied rowframes, E300 stretched the 2nd line into the most severe exposure because it wasn’t needed to back up the 1st line

D: Since the building is now considered a fully involved occupied rowframe in the middle of the block of other occupied frames with fire in exposures, E100 dropped two 1 3/4” handlines in front of building for rapid deployment

A

b Explanation:
Firefighting Procedures/Rowframes
A- An engine company ordered to stretch a hoseline to the top floor of an exposure for purposes of extinguishing the fire in the cockloft, should take a 6’ hook to pull ceilings…p-47, 49
B- p-49
C- Vacant building in a row of occupied frames….1st line goes to most severe exposure….2nd line if not needed to back up 1st line then goes to the fire building or to opposite exposure…..p- 50
D- When a building is fully involved with fire showing in exposure(s) the first arriving engine should stretch one 3 1/2” supply line for a TL, and a hoseline for entering the building….Remember: when stretching handlines inside a Rowframe all interior hoselines stretched will be considered 1 3/4” p-47, 49

39
Q

Question 39:
Although power saws are used for cutting the roof in modern firefighting, instructions for cutting the roof with an axe are still valid in that total reliance cannot be placed on power equipment. Which method below is described incorrectly?

A: The approximate location of a roof beam may be determined by “sounding’ with the back of the axe.

B:The roof sheathing is placed at right angles to the roof beams and generally run from side to side.

C: Cut through the roof sheathing at opposite sides of the proposed opening close to the beam to lessen the bounce of the axe and the resultant binding action when the axe goes through the springy portion of the sheathing.

D: When there is a tin covering between the asphalt covering and the roof boards, it will require an accurate cut to separate the tin from the roof boards. This frequently requires two cutting operations.

A

b

Explanation:
B. The roof sheathing is placed at right angles to the roof beams and generally run from FRONT TO REAR.

Ladders 3: 5.9.7

40
Q

Question 40:
As a new Lieutenant you would know when forcing a door to an occupancy on an EMS run, you must have the premises safeguarded by members until custodianship is turned over to any of the following except?

A: Owner of the property

B: Police Department

C:EMS supervisor

D: Responsible person

A

c Explanation:
CFR-D Manual Chapter 2
C. The responsibility of safeguarding premises shall not be delegated to EMS personel 4.8 note
* FD must safeguard until turned over to the “POOR”
PD
Owner
Occupant
Responsible person