EXAM 22

Question 1

Question 1:
In order to prepare and obtain supplies and equipment for the upcoming Hurricane season, company officers shall start the requisitioning process when?

A:March 1st

B: April 1st

C: May 1st

D: June 1st

Answer 1

A Explanation:
Requisitioning starts March 1st
Items not received by May 1st shall be called to the attention of the Division Storm Operations Coordinator
Hurricane season starts June 1st.
AUC 159 sec 4.7.1

Question 2

Question 2:
You’re the 3rd arriving engine company officer at a fire on the 3rd floor of a 4-story rowframe building. The 2nd ladder officer reports that fire has extended to exposure 2. The IC orders you to stretch a second line. You’d be correct to stretch this line to which of the following locations?

A: This line must always be stretched to backup the first hoseline and stay there.

B: If not needed as a backup line, this line must be stretched to the floor above the fire.

C: If not needed as a backup line, this line must be stretched to the top floor of the fire building.

D:This line was immediately stretched to exposure 2, with an additional hoseline stretched to backup the first line.

Answer 2

D Explanation:
The second hoseline, if not needed to back up the first hoseline, should be stretched to the top floor or to the floor above.
IF FIRE IS REPORTED IN THE EXPOSURE the second hoseline may be more effective being stretched to the exposure, with the third or fourth hoseline stretched to back up hoseline #1. This hoseline will need to have sufficient length to cover the entire building.

Rowframes 6.4

Question 3

Question 3:

Occasionally, units respond to BARS alarm boxes. Which action below is incorrect at these responses?

A: The officer responsible for transmitting the 10-84 shall be responsible for rewinding and resetting the alarm box. Other boxes shall be rewound and reset as directed by the dispatcher.

B: Boxes shall be rewound after each transmission. In addition, the door mechanism of spade handle boxes shall be reset, and the bell mechanism (if so equipped) rewound.

C:The dispatcher shall be notified as soon as possible via the speaker in the BARS when each box has been rewound and reset.

D:If the mechanism of a box is activated and a signal is unintentionally transmitted when rewinding, the dispatcher shall immediately be notified by radio. After the mechanism ceases, the box shall be rewound.

Answer 3

C Explanation:
The dispatcher shall be notified as soon as possible via RADIO when each box has been rewound and reset. Unlike an ERS box, you cannot communicate through BARS.
Comm 1 1.1.3

Question 4

Question 4:
When operating at a sub-surface transformer vault, which procedure is incorrectly stated?

A: This type of incident can escalate very easily and unexpectedly therefore; the full use of Personal Protective Clothing (PPC) and SCBA shall be adhered to

B: Stretch a precautionary handline. Due to the amount of flammable liquid contained in these transformers, Engine Companies shall also be prepared to initiate a foam operation if the need arises

C:Ladder Company officers shall send individual FFs to examine an exposure with full PPC, SCBA and HT. In addition, the FF shall take a C.O. meter and shall take readings in the Meter Room, surrounding rooms, and on the first floor, if necessary.

D: Cordon off and secure an area a safe distance from the vault for members and apparatus. It is not necessary for members to closely examine these vaults

Answer 4

C Explanation:
Teams of two members shall do this (NOT INDIVIDUAL FFs)
Also: Members are not to enter vaults until con-ed has made their determination
Con-ed will make the determination that the vault is safe for entry, if necessary by FD personnel
FD personnel receiving this authorization will conduct a CURSORY search of the vault for victims
AUC 180 3.3 and reference 1 sec 2

Question 5

Company officers shall collect house assessments from members. All members shall pay house assessments bi-weekly. Who is responsible to determine the amount of house assessment to be paid by each member?

A: Senior assigned firefighter

B:Company Commander

C: Battalion Commander

D: Division Commander

Answer 5

B Explanation:
UPDATED INFORMATION MAY 2018

Regulations Ch 15: 15.1.14

Question 6

Question 6:

All fire vehicles in the City of New York, when responding to or returning from alarms, must follow certain regulations when encountering school buses. Which choice below contains incorrect information?

A: You must stop when a school bus is stopped with its red lights flashing or if it is showing a visual signal indicating stop.

B: You must stop when children are being loaded on or discharged from a school bus.

C: You must stop when approaching a stopped school bus from any direction.

D:Fire vehicles shall remain stopped until the school bus resumes motion or a civilian or police officer signals you to proceed.

Answer 6

D Explanation:
Fire vehicles shall remain stopped until the school bus resumes motion or the BUS DRIVER or a POLICE OFFICER signals you to proceed.
SB 6 Ref 1

Question 7

Question 7:
When operating at a Foreign Embassy, the incorrect procedure can be found in which choice?

A: If fire is suspected or verified and entry is denied, stretch a handline to the front of the building and/or bring rollups, if necessary

B:If fire is suspected or verified and entry is denied, protect exposures and set up an Aerial Ladder in front of building for exterior operations and any rescue of embassy personnel that request it

C: All progress or denial of entry shall be immediately transmitted to the dispatcher

D: If entry is gained, expect storage of ammunition and explosives. If explosives and ammunition are involved, evacuation immediately and notify the NYPD and Fire Marshals

Answer 7

B Explanation:
Tower Ladder in front of building
AUC 196 sec 4 and 5

Question 8

Question 8:
Maneuvering portable ladders at brownstone buildings can often be challenging. Which of the following statements below is correct regarding the use of portable ladders at a brownstone?

A: At a brownstone, it is recommended that straight ladders be used in lieu of extension ladders because they are easier to transport.

B: In most cases, taking the ladder through the first floor of an adjoining brownstone and passing it out the rear window to another member in the yard is faster than using the fire building.

C:In a brownstone, it is important to take the ladder through with the butt facing the rear of the building.

D: Most often, all floors in the rear of a brownstone cannot be reached with portable ladders.

Answer 8

C xplanation:
A. At a brownstone, it is recommended that EXTENSION ladders be used in lieu of STRAIGHT ladders because they are easier to transport DUE TO THEIR SHORTER NESTED LENGTH.

B. In most cases, taking the ladder through the SECOND FLOOR (PARLOR FLOOR) of an adjoining brownstone and passing it out the rear window to another member in the yard is faster than using the fire building.

D. Most often, all floors in the rear of a brownstone CAN BE reached with portable ladders.

NOTE C: B = B (BROWNSTONE = BUTT END)

Portable Ladders 10.2

Question 9

Question 9:

While working in Engine 200 (assigned to a double house which also quarters L200), you return to the firehouse from an incident, and since your unit is “available”, you direct the housewatch member to update your unit’s status by bringing the unit “in service” on the PC/ATS. In how many choices below can the housewatch member make Engine 200 “AQ” simultaneously with another unit?

1. Both E200 and L200 are 10-8 from different Boxes and return to quarters to go AQ at the same time.
2. Both E200 and L200 return to quarters to go AQ from the same Box. E200 is 10-8 and L200 did not yet go 10-8.
3. Both E200 and “L201 acting L200” are 10-8 from the same Box and return to quarters to go AQ.
4. Both E200 and L200 are 10-8 from the same Box and return to quarters to go AQ.

A: Four

B: Three

C:Two

D:One

Answer 9

D Explanation:
Only Choice #4
All units in the same quarters can make themselves AQ simultaneously unless:
Units responded to different boxes.
Units did not go 10-8.
One unit is a relocated unit.
Comm 2.2.2

Question 10

Requisitioning supplies for winter operations shall commence on which date?

A:July 1st

B: August 1st

C: September 1st

D: October 1st

Answer 10

A equisitioning shall commence July 1st to permit sufficient time for various Bureaus to obtain and deliver materials. Items on requisition not received by October 1st shall be called to the attention of Division Coordinators
Also: when snow or ice emergency is imminent or Phase A or B is established:
1- at least 6 extra lengths of 2 1/2 hose, rolled or folded, on each Engine and Ladder apparatus
2- 2 shovels
3- Containers of salt and/or sand
4- Vehicle recovery strap with shackle
5- Tire chains, spare links and link tool
6- Specialized hydrant connection set-up as determined by individual commanding officers
AUC 200 sec 3.3.3 and 3.3.7

Question 11

Question 11:
When positioning and placing an aerial ladder into operation certain guidelines must be followed. Which one mentioned below is incorrect?

A:The officer or OV can assist the chauffer with the initial placement of the apparatus.

B:When rescuing an occupant at a window place the tip of the aerial 6-inches from the window sill.

C: At a narrow frontage building (30 feet or less in width) with no people showing on arrival, position the turntable in the center of the building.

D: When all ladder company operations can be performed efficiently with portable ladders (e.g. where involved and exposed structures are three stories or less in height) or street conditions allow for apparatus to pass another piece of apparatus, officers of ladder companies shall make every effort to maintain accessibility of nearby hydrants and to allow for in line pumping.

Answer 11

B Explanation:
B. When rescuing an occupant at a window place the tip of the aerial 2-inches from the window sill.

NOTE “C”: NARROW=THIRTY (BOTH 6 LETTERS)

Aerial Ladders 3.1.1, 3.1.5, 3.4

Question 12

Question 12:

Members operating at a fire must have a proper understanding of the flow path and its affect on the fire. Of the following choices, which contains incorrect information?

A: The “Neutral Plane” is the boundary layer in a structure fire where below it, air will be drawn into the structure, and above it, combustion gasses will be exhausted.

B:The “Neutral Plane” can be an indicator of the stage the fire is in, and will drop down towards the floor as the fire decreases in intensity.

C: “Unidirectional Flow Path” is a flow path where hot gasses from the fire area (higher pressure) flow towards a ventilation point or an air entrainment back towards the seat of the fire. All gas movement is in one direction .

D: “Bidirectional Flow Path” is a flow path where hot gasses from the fire area (higher pressure) flow towards a ventilation point (lower pressure) and an entrainment of fresh air in the opposite direction back to the seat of the fire.

Answer 12

B Explanation:
The “Neutral Plane” can be an indicator of the stage the fire is in, and will drop down towards the floor as the fire GROWS in intensity.
Vent Glossary

Question 13

Question 13:
Which statement in regards to the portable Honda generator is incorrect?

A: Operations requiring maximum power output should be limited to 30 minutes

B: Fuel tank vent levers and engine switch should be left in the OFF position when not in use. The practice of leaving all switches in the on position (ready to go) should not be followed

C:Technical Services should perform all maintenance and/or repairs. Generators should be forwarded by Division messenger

D:Bulb replacement may be done by units in the field. Bulbs must be replaced by a member using an ungloved hand.

Answer 13

D Explanation:
WITH A GLOVED HAND
Failure to follow this procedure will lead to premature failure of the new bulb. Bulbs may be procured from Technical Services.
Also: the Eco-throttle switch should not be used
Training Bulletins Tools 4 DS 1 p-3

Question 14

Question 14:
When overhauling in an apartment of an old law tenement, officers must not permit any material to be thrown out of windows unnecessarily. If members ordered to throw items out the window certain precautions must be followed. Which one is incorrect?

A: A member should always be posted in the yard or street below to prevent injuries to anyone from falling material.

B: Examination of the yard must be made before discarding any material into the yard to ensure that no occupants have jumped into the yard prior to the arrival of FD units.

C: No material shall be thrown onto roof of buildings or into narrow shafts or setbacks.

D:The removal of involved materials to any shafts or roofs of setbacks is not to be permitted.

Answer 14

D Explanation:
D. The removal of involved materials to NARROW shafts or roofs of setbacks is not to be permitted.

CODE: THE SHAFT MUST BE “WIDE OPEN”

Ladders 3: 8.13, 9.9

Question 15

Question 15:

Fighting a fire in a taxpayer with open web steel joists is a great concern to operating members. Which of the following choices regarding this type of construction is incorrect?

A:Open web steel joists, found in modern taxpayer construction, have very little fire resistance rating. Fire rating depends upon the the spacing and thickness of the joists.

B: Open web steel joists come in standardized lengths, depths and carrying capacities. They are used to span long distances up to 60 feet.

C: Open web steel joists may be covered with various roof decks: solid wood; steel deck; cementitious roof plank, precast concrete or gypsum plank; gypsum concrete poured over form boards and steel wire mesh; usually 2” minimum thickness.

D: Unprotected open web steel joists are particularly vulnerable to elevated temperatures of a fire and may collapse after only 5 or 10 minutes.

Answer 15

A Explanation:
Open web steel joists, found in modern taxpayer construction, have NO fire resistance rating. Fire rating depends upon the CEILING FINISH and FINISH ROOFING.
Txpyr 3.3.3 A-D

Question 16

Question 16:
Which choice contains incorrect information about the cockloft nozzle?

A:The cockloft nozzle is carried by all Rescues and Squad companies

B: The cockloft nozzle is designed to extinguish fires in the confined space of any building with a cockloft

C: The cockloft nozzle should never be the primary attack line and is only to be used when supported and protected by an additional conventional handline

D: When using a cockloft nozzle in a NFP MD, the preferred location for operation is immediately inside the apartment door. A hole 3’x3’ is needed in the ceiling in order for the cockloft nozzle to fit

Answer 16

A Explanation:
The cockloft nozzle is carried by all Squad companies and Division vehicles
Training Bulletins Tools 7 DS 18 sec 2 and 3

Question 17

Question 17:
When operating at a private dwelling constructed of lightweight materials it is critical that all firefighting units are made aware that a lightweight support system is present. Which general operating procedure at these types of buildings is incorrect?

A: When lightweight construction is suspected, an immediate examination of the ceiling voids shall be conducted as soon as conditions permit.

B:Once lightweight construction is discovered, this information shall be transmitted to the borough dispatcher.

C:When fire enters a confined space containing lightweight trusses or joists, it can rapidly travel to remote locations especially when dealing with metal c-joists and laminated wood I-beams.

D: When heated gases build up in the concealed spaces of a trussloft and attic/cockloft, there is a much greater potential for backdraft to occur.

Answer 17

C Explanation:
C. When fire enters a confined space containing lightweight trusses or joists, it can rapidly travel to remote locations especially when dealing with THE OPEN-WEB DESIGN OF LIGHTWEIGHT PARALLEL CHORD WOOD AND COMPOSITE TRUSSES.

Private Dwellings Ch 6: 4.1.2, 4.1.3, 4.1.4
***Wording is a bit different for 4.1.2 and 4.3.1. One says as soon as conditions permit and the other says immediately upon arrival.
When lightweight construction is suspected, the first arriving ladder company shall make an inspection hole in the ceiling from a safe area in order to determine the type of support system present. This critical task shall be done immediately upon arrival.

Question 18

Question 18:

When encountering a United States Postal Service (USPS) facility equipped with a Bio-Detection System (BDS) you should be cognizant of all of the following except?

A:The USPS Bio-Detection System (BDS) analysis process may take as long as 90 minutes to complete. The letter will continue through the facility during this 90 minute period.

B: Postal Workers will proceed to the Safe Refuge Area (SRA) within the facility and await establishment of decontamination areas by the FDNY. USPS refers to a SRA as “In-Plant Refuge.”

C:U.S. Postal Inspectors will retrieve the PCR sample canister, which will then be transported to the DOH for confirmation of an anthrax event. FDNY members shall provide decontamination and back-up for the USPS Inspectors.

D: A CIDS card is mandatory for any USPS facility with a Bio-Detection System. The transmitted data area shall indicate the presence of a “USPS Bio-Detection System.”

Answer 18

C Explanation:
U.S. Postal Inspectors will retrieve the PCR sample canister, which will then be transported to the DOH for confirmation of an anthrax event. The NYPD will provide decontamination and back-up for the USPS Inspectors.
HM 14 2, 5

Question 19

BACK LIST NEXT

Question 19:
The only correct statement made in reference to the “Glow Stick” can be found in which choice?

A: When activated, glow sticks will provide up to 5 hours of illumination

B: Glow sticks cannot tolerate high pressures, such as those found underwater

C: Glow sticks are not safe for use in explosive environments

D:Each unit shall carry at least 10 glow sticks on their apparatus

Answer 19

D Explanation:
A- up to 12 hours
B- Are waterproof, do not use batteries, generate no heat or noise, and are disposable. They can tolerate high pressures, such as those found underwater
C- Because they do not require batteries or contain electrified filaments like normal flashlights they are safe for use in explosive environments
Training Bulletins Tools 30

Question 20

Question 20:
Dive operations are complex incidents that require flexibility of units. Units shall be prepared to operate as the scene dictates. You’re the engine company officer operating at the scene of a dive rescue operation. You have the following thoughts. Which one is incorrect?

A:The assistance of at least one member will be dedicated to assisting Rescue divers with transporting any needed equipment to the entry point.

B: An engine company on the scene shall be dedicated to CFR duties and members should be staged as near as practical to the exit point of the victims/rescuers.

C: An engine company on the scene shall hookup to a hydrant and have a hoseline stretched and charged which may be used to cool back-up divers on a very hot day.

D:An available member can be used by the Rescue officer to assist in keeping track of his/her members’ in-water times and on-air times.

Answer 20

A Explanation:
A. The assistance of at least one COMPANY will be dedicated to assisting Rescue divers with transporting any needed equipment to the entry point.

NOTE “C”: OTHER USES FOR HOSELINE IS DECONTAMINATION OF DIVERS AND/OR VICTIMS

Water Rescue 5: 3.2, 3.4, 3.5, 3.6

Question 21

Question 21:

What code is used by any unit to indicate it is on the air outside its response area?

A: 10-9

B: 10-8

C: 10-8 Code 1

D:10-8 Code 2

Answer 21

Explanation:
10-9: A unit will be out of radio contact. (State the reason: entering tunnel; visiting quarters; at a fire or emergency, etc.). A 10-8 is to be transmitted, with code if necessary, when radio contact is re-established.
10-8: A unit leaving the scene of an incident where it had either operated or stood fast is on the air and available. This signal is also used when the AT/SP or PC/ATS is not in service and a unit is leaving quarters. This signal is not used when unit is leaving quarters for non-emergency response.
10-8 Code 1: Used only by a Division or Battalion to indicate it is in-service by radio when leaving a quarters other than its own at which it had been off the air and to which its alarms had been routed.
10-8 Code 2: Used by any unit to indicate it is on the air outside its response area. When the unit returns to its response area, the dispatcher must be notified again using 10-8.
Comm 8 p 7

Question 22

BACK LIST NEXT

Question 22:
In a recent study group, a FF made several testable points about the Pak Tracker. He was incorrect in which point?

A: The Pak Tracker system serves a dual purpose: the first is its monitoring/identification capability, and the second is its tracking capability

B: The maximum range from the SCBA’s transmitter to a Pak Tracker handheld receiver is approximately 900 feet line of sight

C: The Pak Tracker can receive and store up to 36 SCBA identities, but the LCD display screen is only large enough to display 2 lines of information

D:The Pak Tracker handheld receiver is intrinsically safe. It can be used in potentially flammable or explosive atmospheres

Answer 22

D Explanation:
Not suitable for use in potentially flammable or explosive atmospheres
Training Bulletins SCBA add 8 p 1-5

Question 23

Question 23:
At all major natural gas leaks, the dispatcher shall be notified to have the appropriate electric utility company respond. Power cannot be removed from the potential blast zone without introducing the risk of ignition. When considering power removal at a major gas leak which of the following comments is correct?

A: FDNY members can remove power from the area of the leak only when gas readings are 10% LEL or less.

B: In order to determine if it’s safe to remove power, explosive readings must be taken wherever the lowest concentration of natural gas has accumulated in the building.

C:Under certain conditions, after evacuation and upon consultation with the utility company, the IC may consider allowing the utility to cut power remotely from a utility pole or manhole, even if natural gas levels are in the explosive range.

D: If any readings display levels of 10% LEL or greater, the opportunity to cut power has expired.

Answer 23

C Explanation:
A. FDNY members can remove power from the area of the leak only when gas readings are 80% LEL or less.

B. In order to determine if it’s safe to remove power, explosive readings must be taken wherever the HIGHEST concentration of natural gas has accumulated in the building.

D. If any readings display levels of 80% LEL or greater, the opportunity to cut power has expired.

NOTE “C”: THE CONDITIONS ARE:

All persons (including FDNY and Utility Company personnel) remain withdrawn from the potential blast zone. It is important to remain aware that even remote power removal may trigger an explosion.

The location from which the Utility Company is cutting power (utility pole or manhole) is not located within the potential blast zone.

Natural Gas 9.2.2

Question 24

BACK LIST NEXT

Question 24:

Of the following choices, which contains incorrect information regarding the EFAS?

A: If a vehicle with EFAS capability is within HT range of a member activating their Emergency Alert button, the MDT will automatically switch from Starfire to EFAS.

B: If a member transmits a MAYDAY message on their HT, and does not activate their Emergency Alert Button, the member monitoring EFAS shall highlight that member by utilizing the MDT touch screen and manually assign them a MAYDAY.

C:EFAS has the capability to convert the digital data designated by the spare radios. As a result, members who are assigned a spare radio from the HT Depot will be identified by their Company, Riding Position and Name.

D:EFAS defaults to Tactical Channel 1. It has the capability of monitoring any of the 16 Channels, with the exception of UTAC and NYMAC channels. It can only monitor one channel at a time.

Answer 24

D Explanation:
EFAS defaults to Tactical Channel 1. It has the capability of monitoring any of the 16 Channels according to Comm 9 Add 3 sec 6.1 including UTAC and NYMAC channels. However, it can only monitor one channel at a time, therefore, a separate Battalion/Division/EFAS equipped vehicle in conjunction with an EFAS trained member is required for each channel in use e.g., primary tactical, secondary tactical, primary command.
***Conflict Comm ch 11 add 3 sec 2.3 Note: Encrypted Channels can ONLY be monitored on the portable EFAS (as of 05-01-2018)
Channels 9 and 10 are encrypted.
B Note: Once a MAYDAY is assigned, a hard copy will print showing the members company, position and time MAYDAY was assigned.
Comm 9 Add 3 4.1, 5.1.1, 5.2, 6.1

Question 25

Question 25:

Following possible fentanyl exposure, proper decontamination is indicated in all choices below except?

A: Areas of direct skin contact with any residue suspected of containing synthetic opioids should be immediately washed with copious amounts of water. As soon as possible, skin surfaces must be additionally washed with soap and water.

B:If no soap or water is available, members may use alcohol-based hand disinfectants or hypochlorite bleach solutions for rapid decontamination.

C: Take care not to break the skin during the decontamination process and to cover all open wounds.

D: Shower immediately after a potential exposure.

Answer 25

B Explanation:
Use of alcohol-based hand disinfectants or hypochlorite bleach solutions must be AVOIDED as they may enhance skin absorption of fentanyl analogues.
HM 18 5.1

Question 26

Question 26:
During a Collapse Operation, 1st alarm Engine Officers have pre-determined responsibilities such as: 1- Extinguish active fire in the affected building and surrounding debris; 2- Protect exposures; 3- Extinguish burning vehicles within the vicinity of the collapse. From the choices listed below, choose the most correct priority order for these responsibilities to unfold (In order of highest to least priority)

A:1,2,3

B: 2,1,3

C: 3,2,1

D: 1,3,2

Answer 26

A

Question 27

Question 27:
Members of your unit are discussing Tower Ladder positioning at taxpayers during roll call. They make the following comments. Which one is incorrect?

A: When the fire is located at the end of a row of stores, high compartments in the rear of the apparatus can impeded the scrub area and may necessitate remaining parallel to the building line and/or angling in.

B:Direct the monitor at the cockloft area from the roof level.

C: The Tower ladder can be used to overhaul a façade to gain access into the cockloft.

D: The Tower Ladder can be used as an observation point at a roof level when lightweight construction, gypsum, and bowstring truss roofs are encountered.

Answer 27

B Explanation:
B. Direct the monitor at the cockloft area from the STREET LEVEL.

Tower Ladder Ch 2 2.1.5

Question 28

Question 28:

When accomplishing firefighter removal using the large D-ring on the distressed member’s bunker coat, each of the following choices would be considered correct except?

A: The large D-ring is the second coat buckle from the top and is connected to the Drag Rescue Device (DRD.)

B:Place the distressed member in a sitting position and rotate them so that their feet are facing toward the direction of the removal prior to packaging.

C: When the DRD handle is pulled, the device is designed to tighten around the member’s shoulders and chest, securing the member in their bunker coat.

D: At no time shall items be carried on the large D-ring of the bunker coat (e.g. carabineers, keys). These items will interfere with this connection.

Answer 28

B Explanation:
Place the distressed member in a sitting position and rotate them so that their BACK is facing toward the direction of the removal prior to packaging.
MMID Ch 3 Add 4

Question 29

BACK LIST NEXT

Question 29:

Which choice below contains incorrect information regarding Potassium Iodide (KI) tablets?

A: Engines, Ladders, Squads, Rescues, Battalions, Divisions, Borough Commanders and Command Chiefs shall all carry 130 mg Potassium Iodide (KI) tablets in the in the glovebox of their apparatus/vehicle.

B: Members shall only take Potassium Iodide (KI) tablets when directed by the Chief of Department.

C:KI tablets can be stored for at least 15 years without losing their potency. Refrigeration not required.

D: Using KI will only protect the thyroid gland from radioactive iodine. It will not protect other parts of the body from radioactive iodine and it will not protect a person from the effects of exposure to other radioactive materials that may be released.

Answer 29

C Explanation:
KI tablets can be stored for at least 5 years without losing their potency. Refrigeration is NOT required.
ERP Add 4C 1.2, 5.1, 5.2, 5.4C

Question 30

Question 30:
During a Collapse Operation, which Engine Company may assist in the removal of lightly buried victims?

A: 1st arriving Engine

B: 2nd arriving Engine

C:3rd arriving Engine

D: None of the 1st alarm Engines

Answer 30

C Explanation:
3rd and subsequent arriving engines
Collapse Operations sec 7.4

Question 31

Question 31:
You’re a company officer discussing engine company tactics at private dwellings built using lightweight construction materials. You make the following comments. Which one is incorrect?

A: The positioning of the 1st hoseline for a quick knock-down of a contents fire that has not extended to the structural components is of paramount importance.

B:The 2nd hoseline must be positioned on the floor above.

C: The IC shall special call an additional engine company for a structural fire in a building constructed of lightweight materials.

D: When the fire is of such magnitude that it cannot be knocked down with two hoselines, then an outside operation must be considered.

Answer 31

B Explanation:
B. A 2nd hoseline must be positioned to back up the 1st line. WHEN THE 2ND LINE IS NEEDED TO ADDRESS A POTENTIAL LIFE HAZARD OR IS DIRECTED BY THE IC TO A LOCATION REMOTE FROM THE 1ST HOSELINE, A 3RD HOSELINE MUST BE POSITIONED AS A BACK-UP LINE.

Private Dwellings Ch 6: 4.2

Question 32

Question 32:

Which tactical consideration below is not in accordance with Department policy for fires in High Rise Office Buildings?

A: A hoseline shall not be operated from a stairway until it has been cleared of building occupants.

B: A stairway shall be selected for evacuation of building occupants (evacuation stairway); preferably a fire tower, if available.

C:The fire floor and all floors above are initially all that are required to be evacuated.

D: It is mandated that all stairways are searched, especially the attack stairway, before and during fire operations.

Answer 32

C Explanation:
The FIRE SECTOR (FIRE FLOOR and THE FLOOR ABOVE) are initially all that are required to be evacuated. However, occupants of many other floors may self-initiate evacuation, utilizing any or all stairways until instructed otherwise.
HROB 5.4.1 C

Question 33

Question 33:

Which housewatch rule is incorrectly described below?

A: Members returning from alarms during their assigned housewatch tour shall record their return as “RESUMING HOUSEWATCH”.

B:If return is beyond their assigned housewatch tour, the relieving housewatch shall record their return as “ASSUMING HOUSEWATCH”.

C: At the beginning of each calendar day, immediately following 2400 hours and before taking over of housewatch duties, the day and date shall be written across the page on the line directly below the last entry of the previous calendar day. Also, on the same line in the “Time Column,” 0001 shall be wr

Answer 33

D Civilian employees of the Department SHALL make entries in their own handwriting in the company journal when entering and leaving quarters.
CJ 2.7, 2.11, 2.12

Question 34

BACK LIST NEXT

Question 34:
An incorrect “Burst Length” procedure can be found in which choice?

A: A burst length constitutes a water loss when it is severe enough to reduce the extinguishment capabilities of the hoseline

B:Once a water loss due to a burst length is confirmed by any member, a “Mayday” message shall be transmitted

C: An indication of a burst length is when the engine officer reports there is little or no water and the ECC sees an adequate pressure reading and an increased flow showing on the outlet flowmeter with the pumps RPMs increasing automatically

D: All engine companies are required to store an extra 1 3/4” hose, with a controlling nozzle attached on the apparatus in an easily accessible location. This hose or the 2 1/2” hose folds on the apparatus for standpipe operations can be used to replace a burst length or added to a short stretch as necessary

Answer 34

B Explanation:
an “Urgent” message shall be transmitted
Engine Operations ch 12 sec 3

Question 35

Question 35:
The removal of major structural elements from a building is a very serious matter. Which provision below is not in accordance with FDNY procedures?

A:Lintels in brick walls over exterior doorways and windows should not be removed unless deeply charred.

B: Floor joists or roof joists should not be removed if complete extinguishment can be accomplished in any other manner.

C: Wooden structural members that are deeply charred may be removed from the building.

D: Wooden structural members that have merely been scorched or on which the paint has been blistered shall be left in the apartment for possible reuse.

Answer 35

A Explanation:
A. Lintels in brick walls over exterior doorways and windows should not be removed REGARDLESS OF CHARRING.

Ladders 3: 9.3, 9.8

Question 36

Question 36:

A close eye should be kept on the condition of exterior walls during an advanced fire in a taxpayer. Of the following choices, which contains incorrect information?

A: Exterior bearing walls are constructed of brick, stone, concrete block and mortar. In some cases brick walls are only two courses wide in taxpayers.

B: Differential thermal expansion may cause a wall to bulge. Additionally, stone or block may spall due to heat or subsequent stream application, thus reducing the effective load bearing area of the wall.

C: The stability of masonry walls is very much dependent on the integrity of the roof. The roof acts as a monolithic brace which ties the walls together.

D:Brick walls usually hinge at ground level and an entire side or rear wall may remain intact and fall out flat. Concrete block walls will crumble or break as they fall, and large sections can be projected a good distance due to the impact as the wall hits the ground.

Answer 36

D Explanation:
CONCRETE BLOCK WALLS sometimes hinge at ground level and an entire side or rear wall may remain intact and fall out flat. BRICK WALLS usually crumble or break as they fall, but large sections can be projected a good distance due to the impact as the wall hits the ground.
Txpyr 3.4.1, 3.4.2

Question 37

Question 37:

Two firefighters discussing safe operations during vacant building fires were able to identify which incorrect statement made earlier during the tour?

A: Members should be reminded that a slower, more cautious risk assessment shall be performed when sizing-up vacant buildings.

B: When operating at vacant building fires, members should establish a collapse zone during the early stages of fire operations and the IC shall ensure that the ICP is outside of the collapse zone.

C:An aggressive interior attack is the cornerstone of a safe operation at vacant building fires. This strategy is the most effective way of ensuring members’ safety.

D: Members should use available lighting equipment to illuminate the fireground surrounding the fire building.

Answer 37

C A DEFENSIVE EXTERIOR ATTACK is the cornerstone of a safe operation at vacant building fires. This strategy is the most effective way of ensuring members’ safety.
Vacant 7.1

Question 38

When documenting a patient’s level of consciousness on a PCR utilizing the acronym “AVPU”, a patient responding to verbal stimuli would be most correctly defined as ____

A: Alert

B:Voice

C: Pain

D: Unresponsive

Answer 38

Explanation:
CFR-D Manual Chapter 5
A. Alert - patients responsive and oriented to person, place and time
B. Voice - patients responding to verbal stimuli
C. Pain - patients responsive to painful stimuli
D. Unresponsive - patients non-responsive to verbal or painful stimuli
4.13.5

Question 39

BACK LIST NEXT

Question 39:
Fires in places of worship present unique challenges to firefighting forces. When the fire is not brought under early control, a heavy loss to the structure and contents may be expected. Which of the following points about fires at places of worship is incorrect?

A: The first arriving officer should locate and size-up the fire and determine if the fire can be extinguished by a handline.

B:Tower ladders are the only apparatus allowed to be positioned inside the collapse zone, provided that they are located in a “corner safe” area.

C: There are many terms used to describe features and locations unique to places of worship. Firefighters should use these terms when communicating on the fire ground.

D: When the initial attack is delayed, the fire may force an exterior fire attack, virtually conceding loss of the building and contents.

Answer 39

Explanation:
B. Tower Ladders should be placed near the front of the structure, in a “corner safe” area outside of the collapse danger zone.

CROSS REF TOWER LADDER CH 2 SECTION 2.1.8: AT FIRES IN PLACES OF WORSHIP, THE TOWER LADDER SHOULD BE POSITIONED TO COVER TWO SIDES OF THE BUILDING AND PROVIDE VENTILATION OF THE ROOF AND ROSE WINDOW.

NEW BULLETIN AS OF 8/15/19 FFP Places of Worship Fires 5.1.2; 5.1.7; 5.2.4; 5.3.1

Question 40

Question 40:
In order to decontaminate non-disposable equipment, tech services distributes packets of bleach and one gallon bleach solution spray bottles. These packets will produce a mixture of one part bleach to ninety-nine parts water. Mixtures remaining after _____ hours shall be disposed of in the slop sink.

A: 9

B: 12

C: 15

D:24

Answer 40

D Explanation:
CFR-D Manual Chapter 3 Infection Control Program
D. 15.2.2 C
Officers shall ensure that the solution is prepared daily and the old solution discarded. 15.2.3