bronx 28

Question 1

Question 1:

While working in L100, the dispatcher calls you and states your unit is going to be assigned as a “Rescue Collapse Transport” Unit. What will be your designation on the response ticket?

A:L100R

B: L100C

C:L100T

D: L100B

Answer 1

a Explanation:
C - CPC Unit
T - Transport Backup Unit
Comm 2 p37

Question 2

Question 2:
When an engine company is operating at a CFR call, which of the following guidelines is stated incorrectly?

A: Companies are instructed to use the signal 10-99 when they expect to be operating for more than 30 minutes.

B:Upon arrival of the company at a CFR call, the officer will transmit a 10-84 via MDT. The company is also required to notify the fire dispatcher whether EMS is on scene.

C: When the CFR-D unit arrives, the fire officer will confer with the EMS unit to ensure both units have responded to the same incident.

D:A PCR is not required when a CFR-D company is on-scene (10-84) at any CFR-D assignment unless patient care is provided.

Answer 2

b Explanation:
B. Upon arrival of the company at a CFR call, the officer will transmit a 10-84 via MDT. The company IS NOT REQUIRED to notify the fire dispatcher whether EMS is on scene, SINCE THE LINK WILL DISPLAY THAT INFORMATION ELECTRONICALLY FOR THE FIRE DISPATCHER.

CFR CH 2: 3.3.3, 3.6, 3.8.1, 3.10.1

Question 3

Question 3:
Companies being relocated to another quarters will normally receive a response ticket indicating so. If the quarters the company is responding to has an entrance door combination lock, the combination will be printed on the response ticket. If a unit does not receive a teleprinter response ticket (on air at the time of response), the lock combination can be obtained through the dispatcher. From the following choices listed below, choose the first method of reaching the dispatcher.

A:Use nearby ERS box

B: Use cell phone

C: Use the Department radio

D: Use outside public telephone

Answer 3

a Explanation:
The methods of obtaining the combination are listed in order of preference:
1- Use nearby ERS box
2- Outside public telephone
*****The officer on duty in a unit having an entrance door combination lock is to notify the Supervising Dispatcher of their respective borough, by telephone, of any change in units combination AUC 300 sec 2.1.4
They went to areas on DC exam that we don’t do anymore. So don’t count this out

Question 4

Question 4:

If you need the dispatcher to repeat a message over the Department Radio because you could not hear it clearly, which code would you transmit?

A: 10-3

B:10-5

C: 10-6

D: 10-9

Answer 4

b

Question 5

Question 5:
Elevator operations at High Rise MD’s can be critical to the success of an operation. Which choice below is CORRECT regarding these operations?

A: The first officer to enter the lobby shall place the elevators in firefighter service and recall the elevators.

B:When outside operations are indicated, the elevator cars will be operated by a member from the second ladder company and/or other members designated by the IC.

C:A service elevator shall not be used until it has been evaluated and declared safe for use by the IC.

D: After the line is advancing into the fire apartment and the main body of fire is extinguished, the elevator machinery room located at the roof level, can be vented by opening doors to the exterior as long as wind will not force smoke back into the building

Answer 5

b Explanation:
FIREFIGHTING PROCEDURES – MULTIPLE DWELLINGS
B IS CORRECT – 6.4.6 B
A – The first ladder officer shall recall the elevators 6.4.2
C – Evaluated and declared safe for use by the company officer. 6.4.7
D – Until the fire is UNDER CONTROL. 6.4.3.

Question 6

Question 6:
Members of a water rescue unit are discussing line rescue operations for a surf rescue during drill. They make the following comments. Which one is incorrect?

A: The primary rescuer will enter the water upstream and swim out to the victim letting the torpedo drag behind.

B: The secondary rescuer shall remain on shore unless needed.

C:When necessary, the primary rescuer shall swim perpendicular to the shoreline removing themselves and the victim from the rip current.

D: When ready, the primary rescuer shall give the signal to be pulled in (one hand on top of rescuers head).

Answer 6

c Explanation:
C. When necessary, the primary rescuers shall swim PARALLEL to the shoreline removing themselves and the victim from the rip current.

**NOTE B: THIS WAS CHANGED TO SAY THIS WHEN THE BULLETIN WAS REWRITTEN IN 2018**

WATER RESCUE 4 3.1

Question 7

Question 7:
When responding to and operating at a “Tree Down,” units carry out policies set fourth by the FDNY. Choose the incorrect policy.

A: Units are not responsible for the removal of debris from sidewalks or private property

B: Unit operations on private property are limited to assisting trapped or injured persons and preventing unauthorized entry into the danger area

C: Units can remove obstructions blocking a entrance to a building. This decision is to be based upon the existence of other adequate means of exit and the complexity of the operation

D:Units can attempt to remove a tree which has fallen on an unoccupied vehicle at the owners request

Answer 7

d Explanation:
Members are not to attempt to remove a tree which has fallen on a vehicle unless such action is required to perform a rescue, administer first aid, or establish an emergency lane
AUC 301 sec 3

Question 8

Question 8:

Two members discussing Taxpayer operations identified an incorrect statement made by the covering Lieutenant. Indicate the incorrect statement.

A:Most taxpayer fires originate in the cellar; most often where the utilities are located.

B: All areas must be searched for removal of the occupants with particular attention given to the rear and main selling areas. The cellar, rear or mezzanine areas may contain accommodations for the employees of the store to rest.

C: Units equipped with smoke ejectors shall consider their use where conditions warrant. Ejectors can be of particular value in venting below grade areas where heavier than air gases can accumulate.

D: Portable lights shall be used where operations will be facilitated. They should not be thought of as just an overhauling tool.

Answer 8

a

Explanation:
Most taxpayer fires originate in the STORE OCCUPANCY at STREET LEVEL. The occupancy usually consists of a sales area, a storage area and a utility area. Fires in these premises generally originate in the STORAGE or UTILITY AREA, which in most occupancies are in the REARMOST portion of the building.
Txpyr 8.3.1 A, B, 8.4.5, 8.4.6

Question 9

Question 9:
Tower Ladder 99 arrives first due to heavy fire showing from the parlor floor windows of a four-story attached brownstone. Which choice below is CORRECT regarding the company operations at this fire?

A: The Roof firefighter chose the least exposed adjoining building as the primary means to gain access to the roof.

B: The OV & LCC teamed up to provide VEIS of the fire floor as coordinated with the Ladder Officer.

C: After waiting for a report on the roof level size-up, the OV repositioned the Ladder Bucket to the top floor for VEIS.

D:Following the roof level size-up, the OV repositioned the Ladder Bucket to the fire floor for ventilation.

Answer 9

d Explanation:
FIREFIGHTING PROCEDURES – BROWNSTONES
D IS CORRECT 2.8#1
A – The primary means for the first arriving tower ladder is via the TL Bucket.
B – The LCC remains at the pedestal for overall control.
C – Following the roof level size-up, the OV positions the bucket to the fire floor for Ventilation.

Question 10

Question 10:
At a cellar fire in an attached private dwelling the main entrance door is generally the quickest access to the cellar. When using the main entrance for a cellar fire, which ladder company tactic below is incorrect?

A:The ladder company shall maintain door control of the main entrance door until a hoseline advances via a secondary entrance.

B: The first arriving ladder company inside team will perform a primary search of the first floor prior to descending into the cellar to perform the primary search and examination of the cellar.

C: If the first hoseline does not advance down the cellar stairs, the first arriving ladder company inside team will assume responsibility for primary search and examination of the first floor and floors above.

D: An indication of an open interior cellar door is the thermal imaging camera showing heat waves emanating across the first floor ceiling when entering the first floor via the entrance door.

Answer 10

a

Explanation:
A. The ladder company shall maintain door control of the main entrance door until a hoseline advances via THE MAIN ENTRANCE.

Private Dwellings Ch 4: 10.4.1, 10.4.2

Question 11

Question 11:
A hot button issue that members are experiencing lately is the cleaning of bunker gear. This is known as advanced cleaning and is mandatory for all members. In preparation of this cleaning all of the following are correct except which choice?

A: Boots shall be removed from bunker pants. Boots will not be laundered

B:If a member is currently on a long term detail to a different unit his/her gear must be brought back to his/her assigned unit for advanced cleaning

C: Members shall ensure that suspenders and hoods are included as part of the items sent for advanced cleaning

D: Pants shall be folded and placed inside the bunker coat, the clasps of the coat shall be fastened and the sleeves tied across the front of the coat. (Do not use cord or rope–tie the sleeves to one another)

Answer 11

b Explanation:
Gear will be cleaned with the gear of the unit to which the member is detailed. The name of the member shall be added to that units cleaning roster
AUC 310 add 2 sec 3.2 and 4

Question 12

Question 12:

All officers should be familiar with EFAS. Of the following choices, which is incorrect?

A: EFAS will pick up all HT transmissions within range even if a company is not assigned to the incident. The units will show up in the “Roll Call” screen on the lower half as “Unassigned Units.”

B: If a member transmits a MAYDAY message on their HT, and does not activate their Emergency Alert Button, the member monitoring EFAS shall highlight that member by utilizing the MDT touch screen and manually assign them a MAYDAY.

C:During a roll call using EFAS, when the remote microphone is keyed three times, the member’s riding position will change from red to yellow.

D: EFAS defaults to Tactical Channel 1, though it has the capability of monitoring any of the 16 Channels, including UTAC and NYMAC channels. However, it can only monitor one channel at a time, therefore, a separate Battalion/Division/EFAS equipped vehicle in conjunction with an EFAS trained member is required for each channel in use.

Answer 12

c C. YELLOW to GREEN.
B Note: Once a MAYDAY is assigned, a hard copy will print showing the members company, position and time the MAYDAY was assigned.
Comm 9 Add 3 5.2, 6.1, 7.1.6, 8.1,

Question 13

BACK LIST NEXT

Question 13:
EEO situations often come down to mediation. Which choice below is CORRECT regarding the mediation process?

A:The complainant or respondent may file a written request for mediation.

B: The EEO officer or designee shall attempt to mediate the dispute with the parties and reach an informal resolution within 90 working days of receipt of the request for mediation.

C: Mediation efforts to resolve the complaint shall not exceed 45 working days unless the time period is extended by the complainant and respondent.

D: The Chief of Department will make the final decision regarding the complaint.

Answer 13

a Explanation:
PA/ID 1/77 – EEO COMPLAINT PROCESS
A IS CORRECT – 11.1
B – Within 45 days 11.2
C – Unless the time period is extended by the EEO Officer. 11.3
D – The Fire Commissioner will make the final decision. 12.3

Question 14

Question 14:
Units are responding to a reported suspended scaffold emergency in Manhattan. The officer of the first due ladder company has the following thoughts while responding. Which one is incorrect?

A: In all instances, units should cordon off the are below the scaffold to vehicular and pedestrian traffic.

B: If possible, members should enter the building from an entrance out of the danger area.

C: The anchor points of the scaffolding are usually located on the roof, and they must be evaluated by first arriving units as soon as possible.

D:Upon inspection, if the tie backs and hooks are damaged, members shall secure them with the lifesaving rope.

Answer 14

d Explanation:
D. Upon inspection, if the tie backs and hooks are damaged, members shall secure them with UTILITY ROPE.

Suspended Scaffold Emergencies 3.1, 3.2

Question 15

Question 15:
Your unit has just finished operating at a multiple vehicle accident where several members have been contaminated with blood. The decon procedure for blood and other potentially infectious material has changed within the past year. From the following choices listed below, choose the incorrect decon procedure for PPE and equipment.

A:Radio, tools, and other hard surface items shall be placed in double clear bags, tied or taped closed. An Equipment Decontamination Report (EDR-1) shall be completed and placed in between the two bags, facing outward, for identification purposes

B:If both bunker pants and PSS have been contaminated, members shall separate the PSS from pants prior to bagging both items

C: Company officer shall complete and forward an Equipment Decontamination Report (EDR-1) to the Decon Support Unit. All members with the same contaminate shall be listed on a single form. Separate forms are required for different contaminants

D: Under no circumstances shall red or black bags be used to send in contaminated gear

Answer 15

a Explanation:
AUC 310 add 5
A- Radio, tools, and other hard surface items shall be decontaminated in quarters with a chlorine bleach solution…sec 2.2
B- sec 2.5
C- sec 3.3
D- sec 2.4.note
**** THE PSS SYSTEM SHALL NOT BE BAGGED WITH BUNKER COAT AND PANTS (bag separately)
For fireground contamination, the PSS shall be decon in quarters using a sponge and water
Remember, there is a difference between blood and other potentially infectious material and FIREGROUND contamination….This is a must read

Question 16

Question 16:

On a Haz-Mat Technician Unit, the Officer, Entry and Backup positions shall be filled by FDNY qualified Haz-Mat Technicians. The Decon position shall also be filled by an FDNY qualified Haz-Mat Technician, but in the event a Haz-Mat Technician is not available, who can staff this position?

A: A senior firefighter from an Engine.

B:A Decon-trained firefighter from SOC.

C:A member of a CPC Ladder.

D: A member with at least 5 years in rank from any unit.

Answer 16

b

Explanation:
Note: Although CPC members are trained in Decon, section 6.2 specifically states a Decon-trained firefighter from “SOC.”
HM 8 6.2

Question 17

Question 17:
Alternate strategies are now applied at HRFPMD fires to decrease the likelihood of members suffering serious injuries during wind impacted events where the apartment door is left open. Which of the following is the CORRECT use of an alternate strategy?

A: Only the IC can approve of members entering the public hallway.

B: Only the Ladder Company Officer and inside team shall enter the public hallway to locate and gain control of the fire apartment door.

C: The Engine Officer will remain on the hallway side of the stairwell door for control and coordination

D:Once the Ladder Officer gains control of the fire apartment door, have the Engine Company advance the charged hoseline to the fire apartment door.

Answer 17

d Explanation:
FIREFIGHTING PROCEDURES – ADDENDUM 3 – WIND IMPACTED FIRES
D IS CORRECT – 5.1E 4TH Bullet
A – IC, Operations Section Chief, Fire Sector Supervisor – 5.1E 1st Bullet
B – Only the Ladder Company Officer and ONE MEMBER OF THE INSIDE TEAM shall enter the public hall to locate the fire apartment door. The other member will remain at the attack stair door on the hallway side to ensure the hallway door remains closed. 5.1E 2nd Bullet. The entire inside team does not enter to locate the and gain control of the fire apartment door
C – The Engine Officer shall be responsible for control and coordination on the stairwell side of the door. 5.1E 3rd Bullet

Question 18

Question 18:
The full capacity of the tower ladder will be realized when there are many persons to be removed, and/or victims are unconscious, incapacitated or obese. Rescue via the bucket may be achieved in several ways. Which of the following ways is incorrect?

A: The preferred position for unconscious, incapacitated, or obese victims is to position the top bucket rail level with the window sill or top rail of the fire escape.

B: To expedite placing the bucket to a window, position the apparatus parallel to the objective while lining the bucket up with the window.

C:When preparing to move a properly positioned bucket from a window, the first joystick movement should generally be opposite its preceding movement (e.g. after extending the boom to reach a window, the subsequent move should generally be to RAISE.)

D: When multiple trips of the bucket are required to remove a large number of occupants, removal directly to street level may not be necessary or practical.

Answer 18

c Explanation:
C. When preparing to move a properly positioned bucket from a window, the first joystick movement should generally be opposite its preceding movement (e.g. after extending the boom to reach a window, the subsequent move should generally be to RETRACT.)

Tower Ladder 3.5

Question 19

Question 19:
In 2015, FDNY vehicles have been issued a Vehicle Recovery Strap for vehicles that are stuck in deep snow. Choose the incorrect procedure for its use.

A: The vehicle recovery strap shall not be used for towing or lifting.

B: The maximum weight of the stuck vehicle to be recovered shall not exceed 20,000 lbs.

C: If the stuck vehicle is an ambulance with a patient, the patient shall be offloaded to a secondary ambulance prior to vehicle recovery strap use

D:The preferred method for vehicle recovery is from the rear of the vehicle

Answer 19

d Explanation:
Training Bulletins Apparatus C-2 add 3
A- sec 2.4
B- sec 2.2
C- sec 5.5.note
D- The preferred method for vehicle recovery is from the FRONT of the vehicle (to the frame mounted eye hook…..NEVER attach to the front or rear bumper)….sec 3.1 and 3.2

Question 20

Question 20:

Of the following choices, which contains incorrect information regarding fire pumps found in high rise office buildings?

A:The 1938 Building Code required a manual fire pump in buildings over 300 high. The 1968 Building Code required a manual fire pump to supplement the standpipe system in buildings over 250 feet high.

B:It always has been the responsibility of building engineers to start the building fire pump; however, some engineers have been assigned to other duties when a fire starts. There is also the possibility that the building engineer might not be on duty at the time of the fire.

C: The control cabinet for a 750 gallon fire pump will be in the shape of a large cube. It varies from 6’ x 6’ x 6’ to as large as 8’ x 8’ x 8’ in the older models.

D: When the pumps are started, check the pressure gauge on the discharge side of the fire pump located near the riser. This will ensure that the pressures called for are being maintained.

Answer 20

a Explanation:
The 1938 Building Code required a manual fire pump in buildings over 250 FEET HIGH. The 1968 Building Code required a manual fire pump to supplement the standpipe system in buildings over 300 FEET HIGH.
HROB 4.1.1, 4.1.3, 4.1.6 B

Question 21

Question 21:
Following a smoky train fire in a subway tunnel, the members of Ladder 199 were discussing the Subway ventilation fans and their operation. Which statement made by the members was CORRECT?

A: Subway ventilation fans are affected by power removal.

B: Power Removal to Subway ventilation fans is accomplished by a power removal switch at the unit.

C:Most fans are operated in the exhaust mode. The evacuation of passengers from under-river tubes should take place away from any fan operated in the exhaust mode.

D:Each fan plant has a 4-digit identification code. Company officers are required to create CIDS Cards including the location and ID number of each fan in their district.

Answer 21

c Explanation:
AUC 207 ADDENDUM 8 – VENTILATION FANS
C IS CORRECT – 5.4
A – Fans will not be affected when power removal is ordered by the FDNY 2.7
B – Power Removal to the Fans is accomplished through the dispatcher to the TA. 4.3
D – ID numbers and locations for the fan plants have been entered into the CIDS system and may appear as additional information on the dispatch ticket. 2.5

Question 22

Question 22:
At private dwellings constructed of lightweight materials, when fire condition are so severe that any additional roof ventilation would necessitate the roof to be cut, the IC should consider an exterior attack. Which additional point below is incorrect regarding roof operations at these buildings?

A:Under no circumstances shall the roof be cut in any peaked or flat roof building of lightweight construction.

B:For any fire on the top floor the IC shall be immediately notified and members shall not be permitted to operate on the roof.

C: Any fire present in the attic/cockloft represents the potential for a partial or complete collapse of the roof.

D: Members should use caution when placing aerial ladder, tower ladder, or portable ladder to a flat roof with a decorative parapet constructed of lightweight materials.

Answer 22

b Explanation:
B. For A fire on the top floor THAT HAS EXTENDED TO THE ATTIC/COCKLOFT, the IC shall be immediately notified and members shall not be permitted to operate on the roof.

IF FIRE HAS NOT EXTENDED TO THE ATTIC/COCKLOFT ROOF OPERATIONS SHALL BE LIMITED TO:

1. CHECKING TE REAR AND SIDES OF THE BUILDING
2. VENTING THE TOP FLOOR WINDOWS, AND SKYLIGHTS IF PRESENT
3. INSPECTING HVAC DUCT VENTS FR UNUSUAL HEAT

ALL MEMBERS SHALL BE REMOVED FROM THE ROOF UPON COMPLETION OF THESE DUTIES.

Private Dwellings Ch 6: 4.3.8, 4.3.10, 4.3.11, 4.3.12

Question 23

Question 23:

For a fire that originated in a taxpayer, how would you define the taxpayer occupancy that is three occupancies to the right of the main fire occupancy?

A: O2C

B: O4C

C:O2B

D:O4B

Answer 23

d

Question 24

Question 24:
The notifications are different for the occasion where a member is bitten by a dog vs when a company’s dog bites a civilian. Which choice below is CORRECT regarding these situations?

A: In all cases, NYPD shall be notified.

B: In all cases, the medical officer shall be notified.

C: In all cases, the Animal Care Center shall be notified.

D:In all cases, the Board of Health / NYC Health Department shall be notified.

Answer 24

d Explanation:
REGS CHAPTER 19 / TRAINING BULLETINS FIRES 2 – PROTECTION AGAINST DOGS
. D IS CORRECT – FIRES 3 4.13 – REGS 19.3.3
A – NYPD is not notified when a company’s dog bites a civilian 19.3.3
B – The medical officer is notified is a member is bitten by a don 4.13.5 Fires 2.
C – Animal Care is notified if a dog is a stray 4.13.4 Fires 2

Question 25

Question 25:
When a patient refuses medical treatment, the fire officer is responsible to take certain steps before leaving the scene. Which step is described incorrectly?

A: The unit shall encourage the patient to remain on the scene until the arrival of the more highly trained EMS crew.

B: The unit shall notify the dispatcher for documentation purposes and remain with the patient until the arrival of an EMS crew.

C:When a patient refuses medical aid, a Pre-Hospital Care Report (PCR) does not have to be completed.

D: If a patient is exhibiting altered mental status or appearing to be an emotionally disturbed person (EDP) declines to accept treatment, the officer in charge should request police assistance and remain on the scene until the arrival of EMS.

Answer 25

c Explanation:
C. When a patient refuses medical aid, a Pre-Hospital Care Report (PCR) MUST be completed.

CFR CH 2: 4.9, 4.9.1, 4.10

Question 26

Question 26:
From the following choices, select the incorrect procedure when using a firemen service elevator during fire operations.

A: Before leaving the lobby and at each precautionary stop direct a flashlight up between the elevator car and the hoistway shaft to determine if there is any accumulation of smoke in the elevator shaft

B: Elevator should be stopped every five floors (precautionary stops) to confirm that the elevator will respond to the selected floor. At each stop a new selection must be made

C: The relationship of the elevator to the stairway should be noted. This can be accomplished by inspecting the “YOU ARE HERE” sign which is required to be posted at each floor near the call button. This should be done at the first and last precautionary stop

D:In any situation where the elevator operates erratically, try resetting the emergency stop button or turning the firemen service key switch located in the car to off then to on

Answer 26

d Explanation:
Training Bulletins Emergencies 1
A- 6.1.11
B- 6.1.10
C- sec 6.1.12
D- In any situation where the elevator operates erratically, exit the car at the nearest safe floor. Place the car OOS either via the car controls or by blocking the car door. Notify the Officer in Command immediately….sec 6.2.1.D.1 (p-24

Question 27

Question 27:

Members of the Department may respond to an incident involving a suspicious powder. When NYPD is already on scene, members shall adhere to each of the following guidelines except?

A: Make contact with the NYPD Incident Commander in order to determine credibility or intelligence, if available.

B: Transmit the appropriate 10-80 signal, specifying suspected anthrax.

C: Determine if life safety operations are necessary, in progress, or completed. Determine the number of people needing decontamination, if any.

D:When patient contact is necessary, ensure proper PPE is worn; consult with the NYPD for PPE guidance.

Answer 27

d

Explanation:
When patient contact is necessary, ensure proper PPE is worn; consult with the HAZ MAT BATTALION for PPE guidance.
Also, maintain open lines of communication with units of the responding Haz Mat Group for additional assistance.
HM 16 2.1.1

Question 28

When 10-84 at a structural fire, and the only unit on scene, who comprises the Safety Team of a 5-FF Engine?

A: The Backup firefighter and the Door firefighter.

B:The Control firefighter and the Door firefighter.

C: The Backup firefighter and the Control firefighter.

D: The unit will take a defensive position based on conditions encountered.

Answer 28

b

Question 29

Question 29:
The first arriving ladder company has several responsibilities at the scene of a collapse operation. Which one outlined below is incorrect?

A: The officer has the option of splitting the company into separate teams to cover more area.

B: The first ladder shall protect members from secondary collapse; mark with hazard tape, tie back or crib.

C:The first ladder shall physically search accessible voids.

D: The first ladder shall remove lightly buried victims and deliver them to a casualty collection point.

Answer 29

c C. The first ladder shall VISUALLY search accessible voids. DO NOT CUT, LIFT OR REMOVE LOAD BEARING MEMBERS. CALL AND LISTEN.

Collapse

Question 30

Question 30:
Choose the incorrect procedure when trimming a window or door during the overhaul stage of a tenement fire.

A: The complete removal of a window frame is seldom required. They are generally set into the brickwork and extension from them cannot occur except to a space between the plaster and the side wall of the building

B: Similarly, extension around a door frame is usually limited to the space between the door frame and the studs forming the rough opening

C: Depending on the tool being used, the most efficient and safest way to remove the trim is to start at the top or bottom corner or joint and work along prying the molding out from the wall

D:The trim around windows and doors is put on first during the construction stage and should be the last pieces removed if examination is required at these points. Removal of the trim is generally sufficient to allow an adequate examination and application of water

Answer 30

d Explanation:
The trim around windows and doors is put on LAST during the construction stage and should be the FIRST pieces removed if examination is required at these points.
Ladders 3 sec 7.4.3

Question 31

Question 31:

Members must operate with due diligence when it comes to operations at taxpayer fires. Which choice below is incorrect?

A: When operating on thin, flimsy roofs, members should be aware of sudden failure possibilities. Operations over a fire near heavy equipment, roof signs, etc. should be accomplished with extreme caution and communicating the types of equipment found and condition of supports in relation to the fire, is a must.

B:Roof areas at taxpayer fires often have much better visibility than other areas. Quick maneuvering by members operating there should be common practice in order to adequately vent the fire area.

C: All members at the scene should be aware of backdraft, flashover and collapse indications that are visible or indicated from any area. Communication is key as a single point of information communicated to the officer in charge may give the indication of imminent collapse when it is combined with previous feedback.

D: Visibility on the sidewalk and store front areas at these fires varies throughout the progress of the fire. Move cautiously when visibility is poor; take note of surroundings when visibility increases momentarily.

Answer 31

b Explanation:
B Roof areas at taxpayer fires often have very POOR visibility. SLOW maneuvering by member operating there, as well as probing ahead with tools, should be common practice.
Note: In addition, keep in mind your escape route from roof areas. As conditions and the area of operation change, members should adjust their escape route.
Txpyr 10.2.1-10.2.5

Question 32

Question 32:

In order to control a gas leak from a CNG-fueled vehicle, follow the information in each of the following choices except?

A: Stop the flow of gas; each vehicle has an emergency shut off.

B: The location of the gas shutoff is different on each vehicle, but can be found by looking for the sign “Emergency Shut Off” on the outside of the vehicle.

C: The shutoff valve is a common gas valve (1/4 turn to shut off).

D:Each CNG cylinder can be shut off individually by closing the cylinder valve counterclockwise on the top of the cylinder.

Answer 32

d Explanation:
Each CNG cylinder can be shut off individually by closing the cylinder valve CLOCKWISE on the top of the cylinder.
HM 1 3.5.1 D

Question 33

Question 33:
Communications at under river rail operation are extremely challenging. Which communications procedure mentioned below is incorrect?

A: At present, there are no repeater antennas inside most emergency exits, and no repeater coverage inside most emergency exit stairways.

B:A blue light phone can be used to call outside the system, but it cannot receive calls from outside the system.

C: Breaks in repeater zones occur inside under river tubes. At present, members inside the tube on opposite sides of the break will not be able to communicate with each other.

D: Redundant means of communication must be established between the street and the tube, in case one method fails.

Answer 33

b Explanation:
B. A blue light phone CANNOT be used to call outside the system, but IT CAN receive calls from outside the system.

Under River Rails 2.9.2, 2.9.7

Question 34

Question 34:
Opening up concealed spaces in tenements is an art passed down from prior generations of firefighter. In order to be skilled at this art, firefighters and fire officers must have general knowledge in tenement construction and overhaul procedures. Choose the incorrect statement in regards to opening up concealed spaces and the description of a tenement.

A:Beams in OLT generally run perpendicular to front and rear walls

B: Lath is attached at right angles to the beams and runs front to rear. Each piece of lath usually covers two or more bays

C:The ceiling is penetrated with one firm stroke with the hook parallel to the lath. This breaks only one lath on the upstroke instead of two or three

D: When pulling sheet rock ceilings, be aware they may fall in large heavy sections

Answer 34

a cExplanation:
Beams in OLT generally run PARALLEL to front and rear walls
Ladders 3 sec 7.4

Question 35

Question 35:

In the company journal, when FF Smith reports for duty on MSOT, what is the most correct entry for the member on housewatch to make?

A:“FF Smith RFD MSOT 9X6 tour” in black ink, with “OT” in the flagging column.

B: “FF Smith RFD MSOT 9X6 tour” in red ink, with “OVT” in the flagging column.

C: “FF Smith RFD MSOT 9X6 tour” in red ink, with “OT” in the flagging column.

D:“FF Smith RFD” in black ink, and “MSOT 9X6 tour” in red ink on the same line, with “OT” in the flagging column.

Answer 35

a Explanation:
Entries by member on housewatch shall be in blue or black ink. Entries by other members shall be in red ink.
CJ 2.1, p8

Question 36

Question 36:

Safety is of the utmost importance when operating the apparatus in reverse gear. Of the following choices, which is not in accordance with Department policy?

A: When present, all operations shall be under the officer’s command. The officer should take a position along the right side (officer’s side) of the apparatus near the cab. The windows on both the chauffeur and officer’s side of the front cab shall be lowered.

B: Members should be assigned to positions flanking the rear of the apparatus on each side, and directed to walk alongside the apparatus as it moves in reverse as guides for the officer and chauffeur, and to prevent the apparatus from hitting vehicles or pedestrians.

C:When the apparatus is approaching an intersection in reverse, the apparatus shall slow down as necessary before backing into the intersection.

D: Take advantage of traffic signals when available. All warning lights shall be used when the apparatus is operating in reverse gear.

Answer 36

c Explanation:
When the apparatus is approaching an intersection in reverse, the apparatus SHALL be brought to a FULL STOP before backing into the intersection. The apparatus shall NOT be backed into the intersection until the officer in command of the vehicle gives the order to do so.
A Note: In this position, the officer can look to the rear of the apparatus and also be in a position to give immediate and required orders to the chauffeur.
B Note: Members shall avoid placing themselves in a position between the apparatus and any rear obstruction.
SB 71 3.3.1

Question 37

Question 37:
Portable ladders may be used for a variety of reasons at fire and emergency operations. Which use of the portable ladder described below is incorrect?

A: Extension ladders must be used only in the nested position when bridging.

B:When a ladder has been positioned and used by a member to gain entry to a fire building, there is the possibility that he/she will need it as a means of retreat. Therefore, never move or reposition a ladder used in this manner.

C: To perform an emergency search, portable ladders may be used as a brace where there is partial collapse of a floor area.

D: In order to prevent electrically operated overhead doors from closing when power in the fire building is shut down or affected by fire, a short ladder may be used to chock the door in the open position.

Answer 37

b Explanation:
B. When a ladder has been positioned and used by a member to gain entry to a fire building, there is the possibility that he/she will need it as a means of retreat. Therefore, DO NOT move or reposition a ladder used in this manner EXCEPT IF IT IS NECESSARY TO USE THE LADDER FOR RESCUE.

Portable Ladders 10.3.7, 10.3.9, 10.3.11, 11.1

Question 38

Question 38:
Haz Mat Tech Units (HMTUs) are specially-trained units equipped with a second apparatus (Haz-Mat Tender). These units are a great asset at many types of fires and emergencies. Of the following choices, which HMTU response consideration is inaccurate?

A: When the unit leaves quarters for training or other non-response activities, the Haz-Mat Tender shall accompany the unit.

B: When out of quarters with the Haz-Mat Tender and the unit receives a redirected response (structural fire, etc.) which does not call for the use of the tender or the equipment carried on it, the tender shall be properly locked and secured upon arrival at the scene.

C: For response from quarters for other then haz-mat incidents, the Haz-Mat Tender shall be left in quarters, available for immediate pick up if needed.

D:If the HMTU is out of quarters without the Haz-Mat Tender and is assigned a haz-mat response, they are to immediately report to quarters to transport the Haz-Mat Tender to the scene.

Answer 38

d Explanation:
If the HMTU is out of quarters without the tender and is assigned a haz-mat response, they are to notify the dispatcher, who will special call the nearest available unit to transport the tender to the scene.
HM 8 4.3, 4.4

Question 39

Question 39:
First alarm units arrive on scene for a heavy fire in the cellar of taxpayer. Ladder companies have gained access to the store after cutting the roll down gates. There are interior stairs to the cellar and there is also an exterior entrance to the cellar in the front. Which line placement mentioned below is correct at this fire?

A: The first hoseline was stretched via an exterior entrance to the cellar.

B: The second hoseline must backup the first hoseline in the cellar.

C:Due to the fire conditions, the first line remained on the first floor to prevent vertical extension.

D: If the first hoseline has control of the first floor, the second hoseline must be stretched to the cellar via the exterior entrance.

Answer 39

c Explanation:
First Line:

When there is an interior stair to the cellar, especially if it’s an open stair, and conditions permit, the first line must be stretched to this point. When the line can advance down the cellar stairs it should do so. A second hoseline must be stretched to THE TOP OF THE INTERIOR STAIRS TO PROTECT THE MEMBERS IN THE CELLAR AND PREVENT UPWARD EXTENSION OF FIRE.

Second Line:

1. To control the first floor if the first engine company has advanced into the cellar via the interior cellar entrance.
2. Serve as a backup line or protection line for the first engine company.
3. Stretched into the cellar via THE INTERIOR STAIRS OR THE OUTSIDE ENTRANCE if the first unit’s line has control of the first floor.
4. To employ the use of cellar pipes or distributors over the fire.

Taxpayers 7.2.2 D & F; 7.2.3

Question 40

Question 40:
Developing an effective fire stream is one of the most basic fundamentals of any fire fighting operation. Hose is the primary tool for the application of water. To ensure hose is properly identified the FDNY, and the manufacturer have marked the hose accordingly. Choose the incorrect marking.

A:Date of manufacture is located on both couplings

B: Date of issuance to unit is located on female coupling

C: Company and registry numbers are located on male coupling

D: The date of issuance is to be entered in the Office Record Journa

Answer 40

a Explanation:
Located on both ends of hose, not less than 4 feet from couplings
Engine Operations ch 7 sec 7.3