EXAM 23

Question 1

Question 1:
There are certain situations during hydrant inspection that an OOS hydrant is designated as a priority repair. A priority hydrant repair is incorrectly stated in which choice?

A:Two adjacent hydrants in a block that are both OOS (report at least one hydrant as requiring priority repair)

B: Two adjacent hydrants in a block that are both OOS (report both hydrants as requiring priority repair)

C: A hydrant that is the only hydrant in a block and is OOS

D: A hydrant(s) which is (are) vital to the protection of high profile locations or critical infrature locations such as bridges, tunnels, mass transit systems, that is (are) OOS

Answer 1

A Explanation:
Two adjacent hydrants in a block that are both OOS (report both hydrants as requiring priority repair)
AUC 205 sec 3.2

Question 2

uestion 2:
If a member reports the loss of an official department badge or ID card, the officer on duty receiving such notification must complete certain tasks. Which task completed by the officer is incorrect?

A: Record all the relevant facts in the company journal.

B: Instruct the member to report the loss to the proper authority (PD, NYCTA etc.) and make a diligent search for the item.

C: Instruct the member to advise his/her officer if the item is not recovered after seven days.

D:Forward a report forthwith to the Bureau of Operations containing the following information: name, rank, unit, badge number, date and time of loss, date and time reported, to whom reported, and the circumstances of relating to loss.

Answer 2

D Explanation:
D. Forward a report forthwith to the BUREAU OF PERSONNEL containing the following information: name, rank, unit, badge number, date and time of loss, date and time reported, to whom reported, and the circumstances of relating to loss.

Regulations Ch 16: 16.2.6

Question 3

Question 3:

Maintenance of HTs is important to ensure successful operations. Which maintenance requirement is listed incorrectly below?

A: If the HT becomes wet at an operation, or has been submerged in water, remove the battery and dry the HT and battery contacts before re-attaching the battery to the HT.

B: If the remote speaker mic becomes wet, or submerged, water trapped inside the speaker grille and microphone can be removed by shaking the unit well.

C:When there is a defect of the radio and the HT requires repair, it shall be sent complete (always consisting of the radio, antenna, battery, remote speaker mic, leather case and strap) with defect and company number recorded on an RT-2.

D: No items (keys, key fobs, etc.) shall be attached directly to the HT, case, antenna or remote speaker mic. Items may be attached to the HT strap, however, they must be secured in a manner that does not allow movement or contact with the HT, case, antenna or remote speaker mic.

Answer 3

C Explanation:
When HTs are sent for repair, they should be sent complete (radio, antenna, battery, and remote speaker mic) with defect and company number recorded on an RT-2. Leather goods (cases and straps) should NOT be sent unless they need repair.
Comm 11 5.1, 5.2, 5.5, 5.6

Question 4

Question 4:
At a critique following the collapse of an occupied multiple dwelling, company officers described their operation. Which officer operated INCORRECTLY according to the Collapse Bulletin?

A: As a result of an involved operation, the 3rd ladder company assisted with control of the utilities.

B: The 2nd arriving ladder officer ensured the dispatcher notified the utility company emergency crews.

C: The 1st arriving ladder company performed preliminary void searches and removed surface victims.

D:The 4th arriving ladder company assisted with supervising apparatus placement.

Answer 4

D Explanation:
FIREFIGHTING PROCEDURES – COLLAPSE
D IS INCORRECT – 1ST and 2nd arriving ladder company officers supervise apparatus placement. 7.5 & 7.6
A – 7.7
B – 7.6
C – 7.5

Question 5

Question 5:
Under Phase 2 (Water Pressure Emergency) each unit starting at 1000 hours shall take and record the pressure on the hydrant nearest to quarters, every hour until 2200 hours. Units shall patrol their district as per schedules established by DCs. Upon completing their assigned patrol duties, officers shall fax to the Battalion all of the following information except?

A:The number of hydrants OOS

B: Any areas experiencing dangerously low water pressure that could adversely affect firefighting operations

C:The number of illegally opened hydrants

D: The number of spray caps placed

Answer 5

A Explanation:
The number of hydrants shut down
AUC 205 sec 8.2

Question 6

Question 6:
When a rowframe building is fully involved and fire is in the exposures, engine companies shall conduct a “holding operation.” Which line placement described below is correct for this operation?

A: The first arriving engine company dropped two handlines in front of the fire building.

B:The first two lines were stretched into the fire building.

C: The first line was stretched to the most severe exposure.

D: The third line must be stretched to the exposure opposite the most severe exposure.

Answer 6

B Explanation:
A. The first arriving engine company STRETCHED ONE 3 ½” SUPPLY LINE FOR A TOWER LADDER, AND A HOSELINE FOR ENTERING THE BUILDING.

C. The first line was stretched INTO THE FIRE BUILDING THROUGH THE FRONT DOOR.

D. IF THE SECOND HOSELINE IS NEEDED TO BACK UP THE FIRST HOSELINE, THE THIRD HOSELINE IS STRETCHED TO THE TOP FLOOR OF THE MOST SEVERE EXPOSURE. IF THE SECOND HOSELINE WAS STRETCHED TO THE TOP FLOOR OF THE MOST SEVERE EXPOSURE, THE THIRD HOSELINE IS STRETCHED TO THE TOP FLOOR OF THE OPPOSITE EXPOSURE.

Rowframes 6.5

Question 7

Question 7:

Biological agents can be delivered in liquid or

dried form. It is important for members to recognize the difference, as well as the hazards of each. Which choice below is incorrect?

A: Agents in liquid form are opaque, but can vary in color depending on the method of production and the agent itself.

B: The viscosity of a biological agent in liquid form is typically thicker than water, but not as thick as syrup.

C: The color of dried biological agents varies depending on the method used to prepare the agent. For example, weaponized anthrax may appear gray or brown in color.

D:Dry biological agents are easier to produce but more difficult to disseminate because they are less stable than liquid biological agents.

Answer 7

D Explanation:
Hint: L-L
Liquid - Less stable
Liquid biological agents are easier to produce but more difficult to disseminate because they are less stable than dried biological agents.
ERP Add 1 Ch1 3.2.8

Question 8

Fires on the top floor of H-type multiple dwellings create the concern of fire extending to the cockloft. Which choice below about cockloft operations is CORRECT?

A: A trench may be opened simultaneously with a vent opening directly over the fire.

B:A trench should be cut about 20 feet from the initial vent hole. It should be cut at the narrowest, available roof section, taking advantage of bulkhead structures, outside walls, skylights and firewalls.

C: A charged line should be in position on the roof to protect personnel and the trench opening. This line may be operated into the trench in a brief, sweeping, side to side motion to prevent fire from reaching the trench opening.

D:Two or more inspection holes may be cut on the fire side of the trench. When, and if, the fire reaches the inspection holes, the precut trench is pulled.

Answer 8

D Explanation:
FIREFIGHTING PROCEDURES – MULTIPLE DWELLINGS
D IS CORRECT – 5.9.9B
A - A trench may be cut, but should not be opened, until there is an adequate vent opening directly over the fire. 5.9.9A
B – Do not depend on firewalls constructed within the structure. 5.9.9E
C – A charged line should be in position to prevent fire from EXTENDING ACROSS the opening. 5.9.9H

Question 9

Question 9:
H/T relay remains an important means of communication at subway incidents where the repeater channels aren’t effective. Which choice below CORRECTLY describes the positioning of members in the relay?

A: The Roof Firefighter is positioned 100 yards from the bottom of the stairs on the station platform.

B: The Truck Chauffeur is positioned at the top of the subway entrance stairs unless the token booth is within 50 yards of the stairs to the street.

C: The Engine officer is positioned 50 yards line of sight from the Roof Firefighter on the station platform.

D:The OV Firefighter is positioned at the foot of the stairs leading to the platform if it is within 50 yards from the Truck Chauffeur.

Answer 9

D Explanation:
AUC 207 – SUBWAY OPERATIONS
A – Roof FF is 50 yards from the bottom of the stairs on the station platform 4.1
B – Truck Chauffeur is positioned at the BOTTOM of the subway entrance stairs 4.1
C – Engine officer is 100 yards line of sight on the platform from the roof FF 4.1
D – 4.1

Question 10

Question 10:
Portable ladders may be used for the ventilation of Lexan windows. Which comment below regarding this operation is correct

A: These windows may be forced with a portable ladder if the windows are located on the first or second floor.

B:Place the butt of the ladder on the Lexan window in the corner adjacent to the window frame.

C:One or two members apply gradual leaning pressure against the window until it is forced inward.

D: If a section of the window snaps off, discontinue the operation.

Answer 10

B Explanation:
A. These windows may be forced with a portable ladder if the windows are located AT GROUND LEVEL.

C. THREE OR FOUR members apply gradual leaning pressure against the window until it is forced inward.

D. If a section of the window snaps off, CONTINUE FORCING AROUND THE WINDOW PERIMETER UNTIL A SUFFICIENT OPENING HAS BEEN MADE.

Portable Ladders 10.3.1

Question 11

Question 11:

Injury and Exposure reports must be properly entered into CIRS to ensure proper record keeping and accountability. All choices below are correct except?

A: The Fire Department Identification (FDID) number must be included when Supervisors initiate an injury/exposure report. The FDID number consists of 16 digits and can be found on the lower left side of the response ticket.

B: If an injury/exposure occurred at a non-response, the Supervisor shall enter all 9’s in the 16 digit space.

C:All available injury, exposure and biological exposure information must be initiated and submitted no later than 7 days from the date of the injury, exposure or biological exposure, with or without the member’s signature and/or narrative.

D: Any injury/exposure reports that are not initiated and submitted within 7 days from the date of the injury/exposure cannot be entered into CIRS. If this occurs, the Supervisor is required to forward a CIRS-1 report, available on the Intranet, through the chain of command to the Chief of Safety with an explanation of the circumstances.

Answer 11

C Explanation:
All available injury/exposure information must be initiated and submitted no later than 7 days from the date of the injury/exposure with or without the member’s signature and/or narrative. BIOLOGICAL EXPOSURES, however, must be entered into CIRS IMMEDIATELY.
A Note: The 16 digit FDID number will auto-populate specific fields of the injury/exposure report.
B Note: …and the Supervisor will be required to provide the address or cross streets.
SB 7 3.4, 4.1

Question 12

Question 12:
Wind is always part of the scenario, but which of the remaining conditions that must be present for a wind impacted fire to occur is described INCORRECTLY?

A: Fire in an apartment

B:Failed or open window in the fire apartment

C:Fire apartment door leading to the public hall left open or not fully closed.

D: An area of low pressure such as an opened stairwell door, an opened apartment door on the opposite side of the public hallway from the fire apartment.

Answer 12

B Explanation:
MULTIPLE DWELLINGS - WIND IMPACTED FIRES IN MD’S – ADDENDUM 3
B IS INCORRECT – Failed or open window in the fire room 2.2#3
A - 2.2#2
C - 2.2#4
D - 2.2#5

Question 13

Question 13:
The first to arrive (10-84) BC is responsible for the completing the incident report. If the BC does not arrive, the officer of the first to arrive (10-84) engine or the company that operates at a signal 10-19 is responsible for the incident report. From the list below, the following signals will auto-close except?

A: 10-33-2

B: 10-35-3

C:10-37-1

D:10-38-2

Answer 13

D Explanation:
Tough question
Auto-close: 10-33-1
10-33-2
10-34-2
10-35 no code
10-35-1
10-35-2
10-35-3
10-37-1
10-37-2
10-37-3
10-37-4
10-38-1
10-91
10-92
AUC 210 ch 1 sec 2

Question 14

Question 14:
When positioning an aerial ladder at a large frontage building members shall adhere to certain guidelines. Which one mentioned below is incorrect?

A: If there is a condition requiring possible aerial ladder operations or possible use of the ladder pipe (especially large commercial or public occupancies), then position the ladder for maximum coverage.

B:If no condition exists in front of the building, requiring a definite position, place the center of the turntable approximately 25’ from the side wall passed on your approach.

C: For fires covering an extensive floor area where more than one ladder apparatus will be needed, position to cover the portion of the building as ordered by the IC.

D: If the 2nd ladder company’s response bring them into the fire street from the opposite direction, position at the near end of the building.

Answer 14

B Explanation:
B. If no condition exists in front of the building, requiring a definite position, place the center of the turntable APPROXIMATELY 15’ from the side wall passed on your approach.

Aerial Ladders 3.5.1, 3.5.3, 3.5.4

Question 15

Question 15:

When required, a 10-66 must be transmitted correctly to ensure the appropriate resources are dispatched. A knowledgeable officer should know which choice below to contain incorrect information regarding the 10-66?

A: Signal 10-66 shall be transmitted to the dispatcher via Department Radio, by or at the direction of the IC, once it has been verified that a member is missing, lost, trapped or seriously injured, and additional resources are required to locate and/or rescue the member.

B:Signal 10-66 shall be transmitted as a “Mixer-Off” message.

C: The initial signal 10-66 notification shall not include the name or unit number of the affected member.

D: After the transmission of signal 10-66, a full description of the incident shall be transmitted with the “ Mixer-Off” via Department Radio.

Answer 15

B Explanation:
Signal 10-66 shall not be transmitted as a “Mixer-Off” message. However, once transmitted, all additional notifications regarding the affected member(s) shall be made to the dispatcher via a “Mixer Off” message.
After the transmission of signal 10-66, a full description of the incident shall be transmitted with the mixer off, via Department Radio e.g., “one member trapped on the fire floor” or “collapse with three members missing in the cellar.” It must be specified in the incident description if multiple members are involved. This description shall be followed immediately by a telephone notification to the Borough Dispatcher with full particulars. As soon as possible thereafter, particulars shall also be telephoned to FDOC.
MMID 5 7.1, 7.2, 7.3

Question 16

Question 16:
Ladder 199 was doing their annual subway inspection and the members began discussing use of the repeater system. Which is the only CORRECT statement made during the discussion?

A: Power backup for the repeater only provides for a maximum of 3 hours of continuous operation.

B: A full test of the repeater channel shall be made once the members reach the platform area.

C:Channel 15 may be used as the primary repeater H/T channel at a second operation in close proximity to the first operation.

D: If dead spots are encountered in repeater coverage, immediately abandon the use of the channel and return to a HT relay.

Answer 16

C Explanation:
AUC 207 ADDENDUM 16 – REPEATER CHANNEL
C IS CORRECT 4.4#2
A – Power back-up provides for a minimum of 4 hours of continuous operation. 3.2
B – A test of the repeater is made at the street level. 4.4 #3
D – Prior to abandoning the use of the repeater channel, the team shall return to a safe location where previous communications were successful. If communications are successful, report the dead spot to the IC. 5.2 note.

Question 17

The incorrect information when stretching a foam handline can be found in which choice?

A: When using 1 3/4” hose, the maximum number of lengths that can be used is 6

B: When using 2 1/2” hose, the maximum number of lengths that can be used is 10

C:The location for the foam eductor can be either at the pumper outlet or inline depending on the number of lengths stretched

D: ECC shall provide 200 psi at the eductor

Answer 17

C Explanation:
Location for the eductor is at the pumper outlet ONLY
Training Bulletins Foam Evolution 1 sec 2

Question 18

Question 18:
If a known life hazard is discovered and immediate action could prevent the loss of life, appropriate action (rescue activity) may be taken by an individual member. In all incidents of such individual action, the Incident Commander shall forward a report detailing the full particulars to the:

A: Battalion Commander

B: Division Commander

C:Chief of Operations

D: Chief of Department

Answer 18

C Explanation:
Ladders 3 1.1 Note

Question 19

Question 19:

In which type of taxpayer can decorative metal cornices, which may be found on the front of some buildings, be removed to provide access to the cockloft area?

A:The older type built from the turn of the century until the 1920’s.

B: The most prevalent type built from the 1920’s into the 1960’s.

C: The newer type construction built since the 1960’s.

D: All taxpayers, regardless of when they were constructed.

Answer 19

A

Question 20

Question 20:
CFR-D roles are clearly defined according to the positions assigned to members at roll call. In response to a cardiac arrest response, which member is responsible for initiating compressions?

A: A “Airway”

B: B “Boss”

C:C “Checker”

D: D “Defib”

Answer 20

C Explanation:
CFRD – CHAPTER 2
C IS CORRECT – C “Checker” Firefighter responsible for conducting the patient assessment and performing any hands-on care. In response to a cardiac arrest, this Firefighter checks pulse and begins compressions and shall carry the Trauma Bag. 2.1.3

Question 21

Question 21:
The incorrect statement in regards to the Pak-Tracker can be found in which choice?

A:When the Pak-Tracker receives a signal from a PASS device that has been in full alarm for 5 seconds, the receiver will emit a 2-tone audible alarm, and the LCD display will show the SCBA’s identity (Unit and Name of FF) and relative signal strength

B: While the Pak-Tracker can receive and store up to 36 SCBA identities, the LCD display screen is only large enough to display two lines of information

C: Pak-Tracker receiver can only lock onto one SCBA at a time

D: To begin searching, the Pak-Tracker should be held at waist height out in front of the operating member. The top of the hand-held receiver should be pointed toward the target

Answer 21

A Explanation:
Training Bulletins SCBA add 8
A- 10 seconds and Unit and MEMBER ASSIGNMENT….sec 5.2
B-sec 5.3
C-sec 5.4
D-sec 7.6

Question 22

Question 22:
At private dwelling fires constructed of lightweight material which method shall the nozzle firefighter employ while advancing the hoseline?

A: The standing method

B: The crawling method.

C: The duckwalk method.

D:The leg forward method.

Answer 22

D Explanation:
D. The leg forward method due to the potential of fire and heat weakening the floor system and causing a collapse.

CROSS REF: Engine Ops Ch 5 5.3.14

Private Dwellings CH 6 4.2.6

Question 23

Question 23:

As soon as a HT is discovered missing, it is imperative that the officer on duty immediately take all of the following actions except?

A: Notify the Radio Shop via email. A telephone call is not necessary.

B:Notify FDOC via email. A telephone call is not necessary.

C: Telephone the administrative Battalion and Division.

D:Forward an RT-2 stating “Radio Missing” and have the HT temporarily replaced.

Answer 23

B Explanation:
Notify FDOC via email AND telephone.
FYI….the notification shall include the Unit and Position of the missing HT. If it is determined that the HT is either lost or stolen, the officer on duty shall adhere to Requisitions and Payroll manual section 1.15 for property accountability (i.e. Lost Property Report, etc.)
Comm 11 6.1

Question 24

Question 24:
You are the officer on duty and a firefighter comes into your office looking to file an EEO complaint stemming from an incident the occurred at a company function. Which action that you took next was CORRECT according to the PA/ID?

A:You provided the member the Complaint Report and asked them to fill it out to maintain confidentiality.

B: You complete the Complaint Report and require that the member provide you details of the incident for completion.

C: You take a mark in the Pass Along book stating a member was filing a Complaint Report.

D:You advise the member of their filing options and notify the department’s EEO Officer.

Answer 24

D Explanation:
PA/ID 1-77 – EEO
D IS CORRECT – 6.1 & 6.2
A – Once the member decides to make a complaint, the officer is required to complete a confidential EEO Incident Report. 6.4
B – The member is not required to give the officer or any other FD official except the EEO Officer or Counselor any information concerning the complaint.
C – No journal/log entries shall be entered with regard to any EEO Complaints. 6.9

Question 25

Question 25:
Select the incorrect statement made in reference to the SCBA

A:The vibralert is an End of Service Time Indicator (EOSTI) that activates at approximately 10 percent of the cylinders air capacity alerting the member to exit the contaminated area

B: A red purge valve knob is located on the left side of the regulator assembly

C: If the regulator fails in the closed position (no air to facepiece), turn purge valve counter-clockwise

D: If the the regulator fails in the open position (to much air flow in the facepiece), air flow can be controlled by opening the purge valve fully and partially closing the cylinder valve

Answer 25

A Training Bulletins SCBA
A- 25 percent…..sec 3.8.5
B- 3.8.4
C- 3.8.4.B
D- 3.8.4.B

Question 26

Which of the following tools is intrinsically safe?

A: Thermal Imaging Camera

B: Cell Phones

C:Handie-talkies

D: Megaphones

Answer 26

C Explanation:
Instrinsically Safe:

Handie-talkies
Natural Gas Detectors
Natural Gas Meters
Flashlights issued by FDNY
Intrinsically Safe Ventilation Fans (NEW)

NOT Intrinsically Safe:

Thermal Imaging Cameras
Ventilation Fans (other than new intrinsically safe ones)
Cell Phones
Megaphones

Natural Gas 9.1.2 and Natural Gas Addendum 3

Question 27

Question 27:

Which radio code is correctly described below?

A: 10-25 Code 1: Smoke has extended from a manhole, conduit, or transformer into a building.

B:10-25 Code 2: Fire has blown one or more manhole covers.

C: 10-25 Code 3: Smoke is issuing from a manhole under pressure.

D: 10-25 Code 4: Only when fire or smoke is coming from a transformer that is located in an occupied building.

Answer 27

B Explanation:
10-25 - Manhole or Transformer Fire or Emergency. (Any type of manhole or transformer fire or emergency.)
Without Code: Situation other than as described in Codes 1, 2, 3, or 4.
Code 1: FIRE has extended from a manhole, conduit, or transformer into a building.
Code 2: Fire has blown one or more manhole covers, OR smoke is issuing from a manhole under pressure.
Code 3: Smoke is SEEPING from a manhole.
Code 4: Fire or smoke condition from a transformer at ANY location (i.e., pole, vault, room, etc.)
Note: The Utility Company will dispatch an emergency crew immediately upon receipt of a Code 1 or Code 4 signal.
Acronym: BUST
10-25 Code 1: Building - fire extending
10-25 Code 2: Under pressure or blown
10-25 Code 3: Smoke seeping
10-25 Code 4: Transformer
Comm 8 p8

Question 28

Question 28:
Which of the following is INCORRECT regarding the Workplace Violence Policy?

A:Members who do not feel reporting to the officer will result in Corrective action can report directly to the Workplace Violence Coordinator.

B: A witness to Workplace Violence can complete and submit a report to their officer for forwarding.

C:The Workplace Violence Prevention Policy is required to be on display on firehouse bulletin boards.

D: Once the officer receives the report, it shall be forwarded through the chain of Command to the Workplace Violence Coordinator.

Answer 28

C PA/ID 1/2011 – WORKPLACE VIOLENCE PREVENTION POLICY
C IS INCORRECT - A copy of the written Workplace Violence Prevention Policy is available on the Fire Department Intranet. It may also be obtained by requesting a hard copy from a supervisor or the FDNY OSHA Unit.
A – 10.4.1
B – 10.2.1
D – 11.1.1

Question 29

Question 29:
Of the following choices, which air pressurized standpipe statement is incorrect?

A: An air pressurized manual dry standpipe system is required at buildings under construction upon reaching a height greater than 75 feet or buildings undergoing demolition with an existing standpipe

B:When the air pressure drops below a predetermined (supervisory) pressure due to an open valve or broken pipe in the system or pressure rises above 25 psi an audible alarm will sound at a central alarm station notifying the fire department

C: When an alarm sounds, work at the site must cease, and construction personnel are to notify the FDNY. Concrete pouring operations in progress shall be permitted until an orderly termination of such operation can take place

D: To use an air pressurized standpipe system at a fire operation the air pressure must be released from the system prior to uncapping the siamese and supplying it with water

Answer 29

B Explanation:
Engine Operations ch 9 add 2 A- sec 1.1
B- audible alarm will sound only at the site…..sec 1.2
C- sec 1.3
D- sec 2.1

Question 30

Question 30:
At a fire in a place of worship who has the responsibility to ensure that the cellar is examined for fire?

A: 1st Ladder

B:2nd Ladder

C: 3rd Ladder

D: 4th Ladder

Answer 30

B Explanation:
1st Ladder: ATTEMPT and examination of the cellar for fire.
2nd Ladder: ENSURE that the cellar is examined for fire.

NEW BULLETIN AS OF 8/15/19
Places of Worship Fires 7.3.1 & 7.3.2

Question 31

Question 31:

It is important for company officers to know the proper actions to take at the scene of an overt biological release. Of the following choices, which contains incorrect information?

A: Establish an initial Exclusion Zone at least 300 feet in all directions from the source or point of release.

B: Use available PPE for initial operations. Respiratory protection is mandatory for responders and extended operations within or near the Exclusion Zone may require a higher level of PPE.

C:A biological agent released at dawn, dusk, or during the night will have a lesser impact, thereby decreasing the potential for exposure.

D:Higher humidity will facilitate the dispersal of a liquid agent, whereas lower humidity is more conducive to dispersal of a dried biological agent.

Answer 31

C Explanation:
A biological agent released at dawn, dusk, or during the night will have a GREATER IMPACT. The temperature of the ground and the air hovering just above the ground is cooler than the upper layers of air, creating a temperature inversion, which keeps the aerosol cloud closer to the ground, thereby INCREASING the potential for exposure.
Also… The sun’s UV rays will destroy some biological agents.
ERP Add 1 Ch 1 5.2.1, 5.2.2, 5.6.3

Question 32

uestion 32:
For a fire on the 71st floor of a high-rise office building, the recommended engine discharge pressure can be found in which choice?

A: 400 psi

B: 450 psi

C:500 psi

D: 550 psi

Answer 32

C Explanation:
Engine Opertions ch 9 add 1 sec 2
FLOORS:
1-10 150 psi
11-20 200 psi
21-30 250 psi
31-40 300 psi
41-50 350 psi
51-60 400 psi
61-70 450 psi
71-80 500 psi

Question 33

Question 33:
While operating at a major gas emergency rapid evacuation will allow members to locate and rescue civilians from an explosive atmosphere, while limiting their exposure to potential extreme hazards. Which comment regarding rapid evacuation is incorrect?

A: This is significantly different from primary searches conducted at fires and is accomplished with as few members in the potential blast zone as possible to cover the greatest area, and exit the potential blast zone in the shortest time possible.

B: Evacuation should be via an available stairway; elevators should not be used.

C:If no one answers the door to an area or apartment, members should force entry to check for occupants.

D: When forcible entry is required in an explosive environment it should be accomplished using equipment and techniques that will limit the chance of causing a spark.

Answer 33

C Explanation:
C. If no one answers the door to an area or apartment, members should MOVE ON TO THE NEXT DOOR. FORCIBLE ENTRY SHOULD ONLY BE ACCOMPLISHED FOR A KNOWN LIFE HAZARD AND SHOULD NOT BE ATTEMPTED TO ACCESS AREAS THAT SHOW NO SIGNS OF BEING OCCUPIED.

NOTE “B” IS CORRECT AS WRITTEN HOWEVER ON PAGE 35 SECTION 9.1.3 ALSO STATES:
“In structures with elevators, occupants should be instructed to use the stairs and not the elevators unless the situation makes it impractical (e.g., gas leak on an upper floor of a high- rise residential building where FDNY members utilize elevators to evacuate civilians). Elevators in the potential blast zone are NOT to be used by civilian or FDNY personnel. Elevators create electric arcs whenever they are activated by the call button or signaled to move.”

Natural Gas 9.1.3

Question 34

Question 34:

All members should consider air flow when operating at a fire in a high rise office building. Of the following choices, which is correct?

A: Fire towers are recommended for use as fire attack stairs as they provide a smoke free area from which to operate.

B:If horizontal ventilation is performed by the removal or opening of windows, safety precautions shall be taken in the area that will be affected by falling glass shards.

C: Horizontal ventilation should be considered before vertical ventilation at high rise office building fires.

D:When horizontal ventilation is performed, stack effect of vertical shafts will always assist smoke and heat exiting the building.

Explanation:

Answer 34

B Explanation:
Fire towers are NOT recommended for use as fire attack stairs because they may draw the heat and smoke of the higher pressure area near the fire, towards the possible lower pressure area of the stairway.
Horizontal ventilation should be the LAST consideration as its effects are least likely to be beneficial.
When horizontal ventilation is performed, STACK EFFECT of vertical shafts COULD cause the movement of air into the building and NOT allow the smoke to escape to the exterior.
HROB 6.3.8 D Note, E

Question 35

Question 35:
At an old law tenement the ladder company chauffeur must notify their company officer of his/her intended destination when leaving their primary position in front of the building. Which additional action below performed by the LCC is incorrect?

A: Position the apparatus for complete coverage and immediate use. If unable to attain this position the ladder company officer and the Incident Commander must be notified.

B:Prior to conducting any horizontal ventilation tactics from the exterior, the chauffeur shall request permission from the Incident Commander.

C: If the chauffeur is aware that the second due ladder is not in service, they shall team up with another available member to try and get above the fire via aerial or portable ladder.

D: The chauffeur and OV’s duties are complimentary when the fire apartment and fire escape are located in the front of the building.

Answer 35

B Explanation:
B. Prior to conducting any horizontal ventilation tactics from the exterior, the chauffeur shall request permission from the LADDER COMPANY OFFICER IN ORDER TO COORDINATE VENTILATION TACTICS WITH INTERIOR OPERATIONS.

Ladders 3 3.2.4

Question 36

At a recent drill on Improvised Explosive Devices (IEDs) at a busy Manhattan Truck Company, one member made an incorrect statement. Which comment made was incorrect?

A: There is no reliable method to determine the difference between an Improvised Incendiary Device (i.e. Molotov cocktail) and an Improvised Explosive Device. Therefore, members shall not handle any type of device thought to be explosive or incendiary. The NYPD Bomb Squad shall be requested if a device is discovered.

B: Members shall not attempt to handle or move any firearm, ammunition or incendiary device. Notifications shall be made to the New York City Police Department (NYPD) and Bureau of Fire Investigation (BFI). When consistent with safety, the IC shall assign members to safeguard evidence from a safe distance until the arrival of the NYPD or BFI.

C: At the scene of a suspected IED, HT and cell phones shall not be used within 150 ft of a suspected device, and Apparatus, Post and Marine radios should not be operated within 300 ft of a suspected device. These distances are only guidelines and should not normally hamper FDNY operations since the isolation zone surrounding a device would generally exceed 300 ft.

D:At the scene of a confirmed IED, when possible, FDNY resources shall be staged on only one side of the incident to allow for a single approach to the point of impact (POI) in the event the device detonates. Keep in mind that shock waves move around buildings and fragments or shrapnel can travel faster than a bullet. Avoid areas where window glass may fall on staged personnel or apparatus.

Answer 36

D Explanation:
At the scene of a confirmed IED, when possible, FDNY resources shall be staged to allow for a TWO-SIDED approach to the point of impact (POI) in the event the device detonates. Keep in mind that shock waves move around buildings and fragments or shrapnel can travel faster than a bullet. Avoid areas where window glass may fall on staged personnel or apparatus.
A Note: Care shall be exercised in extinguishing activated incendiary devices. Precautionary hoselines shall be stretched and members staged in a safe area, out of the line-of-sight.
B Note: Evidence should only be handled by the NYPD or BFI and the disposal of dangerous articles shall only be performed by law enforcement.
ERP Add 3 3.1, 4.1.1, 4.1.4, 7.2

Question 37

Question 37:
During a Collapse Operation, you hear 1 long blast from an apparatus air horn. This 1 long blast means what?

A:Cease Operations/All quiet

B: Evacuate the area

C: Resume operations

D: A victim has been found

Answer 37

A Explanation:
Collapse Operations sec 9.2
B- 3 short blasts
C- 1 long and 1 short blast
D- Not mentionedAA

Question 38

Question 38:
You’re the first ladder company officer operating at a fire on the second floor of a private dwelling. You suspect that it may be constructed of lightweight materials. Your unit takes the following actions. Which one is incorrect?

A: An inspection hole was made in the ceiling of the first floor immediately upon arrival to determine the type of support system present.

B:The examination of the ceiling on the floor below was done immediately after the main body of fire was knocked down.

C: You ordered your members to make an inspection hole in the ceiling before entering any room that was involved in fire.

D: You ensured your members did not make any additional openings beyond the inspection holes without a charged line in position.

Answer 38

B Explanation:
B. The examination of the ceiling on the floor below was done immediately UPON ARRIVAL.

Private Dwellings Ch 6 4.3

Question 39

Question 39:
When arriving at a structural fire, members should perform a size-up, accounting for the ventilation profile of the building. Which of the following choices contains incorrect information?

A: Heavy flames out of a window are usually an indicator of high heat and smoke conditions within a structure, including areas remote from the main body of fire.

B:Members can assume that, in general, the absence of smoke pushing from a building is a positive sign.

C: On arrival, a vented fire should not be considered a favorable condition; we must still control, communicate and coordinate all ventilation tactics.

D: The more that venting flames fill an open window, the more members can anticipate severe interior conditions.

Answer 39

B Explanation:
While in the Decay stage, the fire may no longer have enough pressure to push smoke from the fire area or building. The assumption that the absence of smoke pushing from a building is a positive sign, is NOT ACCURATE.
D Note: Modern content fires generate a greater volume of heat and smoke that may overwhelm the ventilation point(s). The excess heat energy and smoke not being vented rapidly pre-heat the interior, causing fire conditions to move toward any other opened ventilation point.
Vent 4.1

Question 40

Question 40:

Operating at a vacant building fire poses a significant risk to members. Which tactic below is not in accordance with Department policy?

A: Members should form a habit of climbing stairs by placing the middle of their foot above the step riser and stepping as close to a supporting wall as possible.

B: When the stability of a stairway is in doubt, members should place an extension ladder over the stairway, ensuring that it is properly supported at both the top and bottom of the stairs.

C: One method, often used for climbing “U”-return stairs with cracked or broken marble landings, is to hug the newel post while stepping around the marble landing to the stair riser on the floor above. When using this tactic, members should step up from the riser on the lower staircase to the riser on the upper staircase without placing any weight on the landing itself.

D:Once an interior risk assessment has been completed, 1 ¾” hose lines may be advanced within the fire building to complete final extinguishment. During “wash down” operations, the ½” outer-stream tip shall be removed as the restriction in flow will not allow adequate wash down.

Answer 40

D Explanation:
Once an interior risk assessment has been completed, 1 ¾” hose lines may be advanced within the fire building to complete final extinguishment. During “wash down” operations, the ½” outer-stream tip MAY BE APPROPRIATE in order to reduce the amount of water weight (live load) added within the structure.
A Note: Placing downward pressure on risers and climbing close to supporting stringers is the safest way to climb stairs because these areas are the most structurally stable areas of the staircase. Such tactics will increase members’ safety by reducing the chances of step or landing failure.
B Note: It is imperative that the header beams at the top of the staircase support the ladder. If the ladder is not supported at its tip, it will fall with a collapsing stairway causing severe injuries to members. The bottom of the ladder must also be secure on the floor below so that the base of the ladder does not slip out when members’ weight is applied.
Vacant 6.2 C, F 1st bullet