EXAM 1

Question 1

Question 1:
Which member brings the first saw to the roof for a cellar fire at a 2 story flat roof private dwelling?

A:2nd due roof FF

B: 2nd due OV FF

C: No saw is bought to the roof for cellar fires

D: Saw is bought to the roof by roof FF of extra ladder on initial alarm, if they are special called

Answer 1

A Explanation:
Private Dwellings Ch 4 sec 7.2 A
The 2nd roof brings the 6’ halligan hook and SAW regardless of where the fire is located in a flat roof PD.
A. 1st roof FF brings a Life Saving Rope to the roof when there will be a delay in laddering the rear of the building due to attached exposures and/or the height of the building requires the LSR.
1st roof FF tools are a Halligan, 6’ halligan hook and life saving rope. PD’s sec 7.1 A

Question 2

Question 2:
When to complete a PCR is an important responsibility when responding to CFR runs. Which choice below is a response where the officer DOES NOT have to complete a Patient Care Report?

A: Engine 1 arrives at an EMS run, makes their way into the apartment and discovers an individual displaying signs of rigor-mortis.

B:Engine 2 arrives at an EMS run simultaneously with a BLS unit and makes their way into the apartment to verify the presence of a patient.

C: Engine 3 arrives at an EMS run near the corner bodega and discovers an uncooperative, intoxicated male who eventually leaves the scene.

D: Engine 4 arrives at an EMS run, attempts to assess an EDP displaying altered mental status who refuses medical aid

Answer 2

B Explanation:
CFR-D MANUAL CHAPTER 2
A – Yes - They CFR unit must complete a PCR even if the patient is DOA to document that the company properly examined the patient to confirm that the patient exhibited the criteria for obvious death. 4.4
B – No – 4.13.1 note – A PCR is not required when a CFR company is on scene at any assignment unless patient care is provided.
C – Yes – When a patient refuses medical aid, a PCR must be completed 4.9.1
D – Yes– 4.10.1B – Request PD assistance and remain on scene until the arrival of EMS. Complete a PCR report

Question 3

Company officers must maintain communication with the members not operating under the immediate supervision to determine their status. The interval between contacts should be frequent enough to provide for the safety of the firefighters being monitored without monopolizing the frequency. Which of the following members is not under the immediate supervision of their officer?

A: The control firefighter straightening a kink in the hoseline on the 1st floor of a large 6-story H-Type MD, while his officer and nozzle team advance the line into the fire apartment on the top floor.

B: The irons firefighter searching off the search rope within voice contact of his officer.

C: The EFAS firefighter monitoring EFAS in the Battalion vehicle within visual contact of the FAST officer.

D:The can firefighter, who was left at the apartment door inside the fire apartment to maintain door control, and remains in contact with his officer via the HT.

Answer 3

D Explanation:
Members are under the “immediate supervision” of
an officer when:
They are within VISUAL OR VOICE contact of the
officer
They are working with a SEARCH or HOSELINE
which is under the supervision of an officer.
ACRONYMN: “SHSH”
Search line
Hoseline
Sight
Hearing
Lad 3 Tenements: 3.2.1 #11 Note

Question 4

Question 4:
You are in charge of an Engine Company when you receive a ticket for a fire on the 3rd floor of a 4 story Brownstone that is being used as a Russian Consulate. Upon arrival, you perform which correct action?

A: Stand Fast. FDNY has no jurisdiction in Foreign Embassies, Consulates, and Missions at all times…..Protect exposures if necessary

B:After receiving permission to enter, you order your FFs to stretch a 1 3/4 handline to extinguish the fire

C: After receiving permission to enter, you order your FFs to stretch a 2 1/2 handline to extinguish the fire

D: Stand Fast until a Battalion Chief arrives on scene

Answer 4

B Explanation:
Stretch hoselines compatible with the occupancy and fire conditions found….AUC 196 sec 5.1
For Brownstones all interior hoselines stretched will be considered 1 3/4”…Brownstones sec 3
****If entry is denied, do not cause an incident and do not enter. Protect exposures and set up a TL in front of building for exterior operations and rescue of embassy personnel that request it…AUC 196 sec 4.

Question 5

Question 5:
Liquid Petroleum Gas (LPG) can be hazardous when encountered during an operation. Which of the following properties of LPG is listed incorrectly?

A: It is non-toxic and non-poisonous, but flammable.

B: It is odorless, although an odorizing agent is added only when it is processed for domestic consumption.

C: In the liquid state, LPG presents a hazard similar to a highly volatile flammable liquid, but with more rapid vaporization.

D:It is lighter than air.

Answer 5

D Explanation:
It is heavier than air (1.5 to 2 times heavier).
HM 1 1.2.1-1.2.5

Question 6

Question 6:
You’re an engine company officer responding first due to a reported fire in the cellar of an old law tenement. CIDS information indicates that there are window bars on the first floor, a wide well-hole, and a BILCO door in the rear which gives access to the cellar. On arrival, you give a 10-75 for a confirmed fire in the cellar. Which of the following points regarding hoseline placement at this fire is incorrect?

A: You ordered the first line stretched to the cellar entrance door located inside the building, under the interior stairway on the first floor.

B: At this operation, the first line should not be advanced down the interior stairs to the cellar unless the fire is minor.

C:The second line is stretched to the first floor to backup the first line or, if not needed, advanced down the interior stairs to the cellar.

D: The first line remained on the first floor to provide protection from people coming down the stairway and to extinguish fire which may be extending upwards from the cellar

Answer 6

C C. The second hoseline stretched should be advanced into the cellar by way of the FRONT OR REAR entrance to the cellar.
**NO MENTION OF BACK UP LINE**
MDs 4.2.1, 4.2.3

Question 7

Question 7:
On the new Motorola APX8000XE handie-talkie radio, whenever a member who has transmitted an Emergency Alert depresses the PTT button, members receiving such a transmission will observe the Emergency call appearing on their radio’s main display with the Unit and Position and a band of what color?

A: Yellow

B:Orange

C:Red

D: Green

Answer 7

B Explanation:
Comm 11 3.5.2.1

Question 8

BackListNext

Question 8:
Snow chains are an “emergency traction device” and should be used as conditions warrant. When chains are applied, apparatus must not exceed ______ MPH

A: 15

B: 20

C: 25

D:30

Answer 8

D

Question 9

Question 9:
The FDNY has issued a Digital In-Line Pressure/Flow metering device that has been designed specifically for standpipe operations. Choose the incorrect statement made.

A: The gauge does not regulate water flow

B: The red LED readout indicates pressure in psi

C: The blue LED readout indicates water flow in gpm

D:The Digital In-Line gauge must be pre-connected to a folded length of hose

Answer 9

D Explanation:
The gauge is not to be pre-connected to a folded length of hose
Training Bulletins Tools 36 sec 3.1
Look at choice A- It provides members with the ability to monitor the pressure and flow delivered from the standpipe outlet to the nozzle team

Question 10

Question 10:
When using two Engine pumpers for Emergency Mass Decontamination, you would be correct to employ all of the tactics below except?

A:Position the two pumpers parallel to each other, approximately 100 feet apart.

B: The control panels of the pumpers should be facing the outside.

C: Place an Aquastream fog nozzle on each pumper on a selected inside discharge gate. Operate the nozzles in the fog position.

D: Utilize the recommended operating pressure of 50 to 80 psi.

Answer 10

A Explanation:
Position the two pumpers parallel to each other, approximately 25 feet apart.
HM 7 2.4.4

Question 11

Question 11:
In order to provide a good climbing angle, the aerial ladder apparatus shall be placed ____ feet from the building.

A: 15 to 25

B: 20 to 30

C:25 to 35

D: 32

Answer 11

C Explanation:
Aerial Lad 3.1.1
** NOTE: Figure 1A shows a picture of apparatus positioned approximately 25 to 35 feet from building to INBOARD SIDE of apparatus. **
** ALSO NOTE: AL 8.6 says place INBOARD SIDE of apparatus NOT MORE THAN 35’ from the building line. **

Question 12

Question 12:
You are a covering Lt and conducting the hose test at Engine 99. The members are doing a preliminary inspection of the hose to determine serviceability. Which of the following is NOT listed as a reason to place the hose out of service?

A: Abrasions

B: Burnt Hose Jacket

C:Persistent dirt on Hose Jacket

D:Cracked or Broken Gaskets

Answer 12

C ENGINE OPERATIONS CHAPTER 7
A, B, D – CORRECT
C – Incorrect – Not listed. 7.14B

Question 13

Question 13:
The incorrect statement made in regards to the “Beluga Auto Glass Knife” can be found in which choice?

A:Designed to cut Tempered Safety Glass found in automobile windshields, hurricane windows and both commercial and residential construction glass

B:The Beluga Glass Cutter attaches to any 3/8”- 1/2” drill or 1/4” nut driver

C: The connected drill and Beluga cutting head can swivel 360 degrees at the chuck so you can steer around obstructions such as the A-Post

D: The blade is ground and polished hardened steel, it will not wear out while cutting glass

Answer 13

A Explanation:
Designed to cut LAMINATED SAFETY GLASS found in automobile windshields, hurricane windows and both commercial and residential construction glass
Training Bulletins 39 secs 2.1, 3.2, 3.3, 3.10

Question 14

Question 14:
At an “All Hands” fire with three Engines and two Ladders on scene, prior to the arrival of the FAST Unit, the Safety Team shall normally be made up of?

A:The Backup and Control FFs of the 2nd arriving Engine.

B: The Backup and Control FFs of the 1st arriving Engine.

C: The LCC of the 2nd arriving Ladder and the Control FF of the 2nd arriving Engine.

D: The LCC of the 1st arriving Ladder and the Backup FF of the 2nd arriving Engine.

Answer 14

A Explanation:
MMID Ch 1 2.1.1 1st paragraph

Question 15

Question 15:
The most effective way to extinguish a combustible metal fire can be found in which choice?

A: Class A extinguisher

B: Class B extinguisher

C: Class C extinguisher

D:Class D extinguisher

Answer 15

D Explanation:
The FDNY currently has two class D extinguishers with a slightly different capabilities available for use; they are MET-L-X and the LITH-X
Training Bulletins 34 sec 1.2

Question 16

Question 16:
When an officer orders diesel fuel for company quarters, the company journal entry should have what flagging column entry?

A: D

B:DF

C: F

D: DSF

Answer 16

B Explanation:
“F” is for heating fuel
Company Journal p8

Question 17

Question 17:
Company officers play a vital role in the proper administration of the units under their command. Which of the following regulations is not in accordance with Department procedures?

A: Captains, when detailed to companies, assume the duties and responsibilities of the company commander.

B:Changes involving company policy or administrative routine shall not be made by the detailed captain unless approved by the assigned company commander or ordered by the battalion commander.

C: During an extended leave of absence of the assigned company commander, the senior lieutenant in rank, assigned to the unit, shall assume the duties and responsibilities of the company commander; provided that, no other captain is detailed to the unit.

D: Company officers shall immediately notify battalion chiefs of all injuries occurring in quarters.

Answer 17

B

Explanation:
B. unless approved by the assigned company commander or ordered by the DIVISION commander
Regulations Ch 10: 10.1.7, 10.2.2, 10.3.3

Question 18

Question 18:
If a biological release occurs indoors, evacuate the immediate area and seal off the area by closing doors and windows and using plastic to cover any openings. Avoid entry to the site for a minimum time of?

A: 5 to 10 minutes.

B:30 minutes to 1 hour.

C:15 to 20 minutes.

D: 1 to 2 hours.

Answer 18

B

Explanation:
This will allow the biological agent to settle to reduce exposure of the inhalation hazard.
ERP Add 1 Ch 1 5.2.3

Question 19

Question 19:
Private dwelling fires challenge the expertise of firefighting forces and require a coordinated team effort. From a firefighting and fire protection standpoint, what is the major weakness in private dwelling fires?

A: Balloon frame construction

B:Open and unenclosed stairway

C: Open joist construction in the cellar

D: Lack of built-in fire stopping in exterior walls

Answer 19

B Explanation:
PD Chapter 1 Sec 2

Question 20

Question 20:
The placement of the 1st handline for a cellar fire in a Brownstone can be found in which correct choice?

A: Stretch a 1 3/4” handline down to the cellar via the exterior stairs to extinguish the fire

B:Stretch a 1 3/4” handline through the front door on the first floor, then down to the cellar via the interior stairs to extinguish the fire

C: Stretch a 1 3/4” handline to the parlor floor to protect the interior stairs. The second line will extinguish the fire through the front door on the first floor, then down to the cellar via the interior stairs to extinguish the fire

D: Stretch a 2 1/2” handline down to the cellar via the exterior exterior stairs to extinguish the fire

Answer 20

B Explanation:
Brownstones and Rowframes sec 3.1

Question 21

Question 21:
Two ECCs assigned to a busy Brooklyn Engine Company were discussing in-line pumping (ILP) tactics. Which choice below is correct?

A: The hydrant selected for ILP must be on a 12” or larger main.

B:During Water Alert, ILP shall not be used unless absolutely necessary.

C: Not more than 10 lengths of hose shall be used in the initial supply line.

D:When intake pressure drops below 25 psi, the pump operator shall have his intake supply augmented.

Answer 21

B Explanation:
A) The hydrant selected for ILP must be on a 6” or larger main.
C) Not more than 6 lengths of hose shall be used in the initial supply line.
D) When intake pressure drops below 15 psi, the pump operator shall have his intake supply augmented.
Evol 1A p3 Note 2, 4, 5

Question 22

Question 22:
Proper knowledge of the advantages and disadvantages of aluminum portable ladders is key to operating safely at a fire or emergency. You’re a company officer conducting a drill with your members, and you make the following points regarding the advantages of aluminum portable ladders. You were incorrect in which remark below?

A: Aluminum ladders do not require any protective finish.

B: Aluminum will not weaken with age. It has a long life expectancy.

C: Aluminum ladders will not fail suddenly do to overloads.

D:If an aluminum ladder has been subjected to excessive heat exposure at a fire it may have lost its heat treatment, however this will not affect its load carrying capacity.

Answer 22

D Explanation:
D. THIS MAY AFFECT ITS LOAD CARRYING CAPACITY, EVEN IF THE METAL SHOWS NO SIGNS OF ANY CHANGE.
Portable Ladders Section 3 & 4

Question 23

Question 23:
The correct tool assignment for the 2nd arriving Roof FF when there is a fire on the 3rd floor of a 4 story Brownstone can be found in which choice?

A:Halligan tool, 6’ Halligan Hook, Flashlight, HT

B: Halligan tool, Maul, Hook, Flashlight, HT

C: Halligan tool, 6’ Halligan Hook, LSR, Flashlight, HT

D: 6’ Halligan Hook, Saw, Flashlight, HT

Answer 23

A Explanation:
Look at choice D….For top floor fires, the saw is taken to the roof with the 6’ Halligan Hook
Brownstone p- 21

Question 24

Question 24:
What is the second stage of the traditional fire development curve?

A: Fully Developed

B: Decay

C:Growth

D: Incipient

Answer 24

C Explanation:
Ventilation 2.1.5

Question 25

Question 25:
Lt. Waterflow was conducting a drill with a new probie on the apparatus and discussing company requirements for hose. Which statement made by the officer was INCORRECT as stated?

A:Due to age, only hose older than 10 years is to be taken out of service.

B: Hose on the apparatus is removed and cleaned in the spring and fall of each year.

C:Engine companies shall carry not less than three lengths of 2 ½ and not less than three lengths of 1 ¾ hose (rolled or folded) and the necessary fittings to place a line into operation.

D: Not more than six lengths of 1 ¾ hose shall be used as lead lengths in any hose stretch.

Answer 25

A Explanation:
ENGINE OPERATIONS CHAPTER 7
A – Incorrect – Any hose that will reach 10 years in the calendar year is to be taken out of service. 7.11.1
B – Correct – 7.11
C – Correct 7.13.1
D – Correct – 7.12.3

Question 26

Question 26:
Which member is responsible to chock open the front entrance door at a multiple dwelling when the door is equipped with a self closing locking device?

A: 1st Ladder Officer

B: 2nd Ladder Officer

C: 1st Engine Officer

D:First member entering the building

Answer 26

D Explanation:
If the entrance door to the building is self-closing and equipped with a locking device, the first member entering the building should use a chock, rug or other means of preventing the door from locking and thereby delaying other members trying to enter the building
Multiple Dwellings sec 3.2.2

Question 27

Question 27:
In a High Rise Office Building, what is the proper sequence of starting the fire pumps by use of the control panel? ….. A. Push starting button & pump “on” light will glow….. B. Close knife switch to on position….. C. Move selector lever to desired position increasing pump speed and thereby increasing pressure….. D. Close circuit breaker(s) & power “on” light will glow.

A: A, B, D, C

B:B, D, A, C

C: A, B, C, D

D: B, C, A, D

Answer 27

B Explanation:
Acronym:
“KC Start Speed”
Knife switch closed to on position.
Circuit breaker(s) closes & power “on” light will glow.
Start button & pump “on” light will glow.
Speed - Move selector lever to desired position increasing pump speed and thereby increasing pressure.
The fire pumps should now be operating. If they have failed to start, the emergency power lever located at the panel shall be used.
HROB 4.1.4, 4.1.5

Question 28

Question 28:
FireIce is a dry-chemical extinguishing agent that is intended for use at which type of fire?

A:Manhole fires involving electrical cables

B: Subsurface transformer fires

C: Pole mounted transformer fires

D: Used strictly for Class B fires

Answer 28

A Explanation:
FireIce is not effective on class B fires
It is not intended for use at any type of transformer fire; that includes transformers located in below-grade vaults or rooms, and transformers that are mounted on poles
AUC 180 add 2 sec 7

Question 29

Question 29:
You are the officer of a Ladder Company that extinguished a small fire in a vacant apartment located on the 3rd floor of a 4-story building. Floors 1 and 2 had residents who were home at the time of the fire and floors 3 and 4 were scheduled for renovation and completely vacant. As you determined a Fire Marshal investigation was required for this fire, you would be correct to transmit which 10-41 sub code?

A:Code 1

B: Code 2

C: Code 3

D: Code 4

Answer 29

A Explanation:
Code 1: Occupied Structure or Vehicle - A structure or vehicle (car, bus or train) which is occupied at the time of the fire. This also includes a vacant apartment in an occupied building, a store with a dwelling above, or an occupied detached garage, shed or similar structure.
Code 2: Unoccupied Structure - A structure normally occupied which is unoccupied at the time of the fire.
Code 3: Unoccupied Vehicle - A vehicle (car, bus or train) with or without plates, which is unoccupied at the time of the fire.
Code 4: Vacant Structure, or Structures not intended for Dwelling Purposes (I.e. buildings under construction/demolition, detached garages, sheds or similar structures.) Note: If any of the above are occupied at the time of the fire, transmit a Code 1.
Comm 8

Question 30

Question 30:
Which type of taxpayer is considered the most prevalent type?

A: The older type built from the turn of the century until the 1920’s.

B: Any type made of lightweight construction.

C:The type built from the 1920’s into the 1960’s.

D: The newer type construction built since the 1960’s.

Answer 30

C

Question 31

Question 31:
NYC has over 6,000 places of worship, several thousand more than any other U.S. city. Which of the following definitions related to places of worship is correct?

A: The choir loft is a narrow-recessed balcony or loft area on an interior upper floor of a place of worship. Usually located above the main entrance and accessed by a wide stair.

B:The nave is the main body of the church. It provides the central approach to the altar.

C: The Rose Window is used as a generic term applied to a circular window. Operating a tower ladder stream into a Rose Window will not extinguish fire at the upper reaches of the church.

D:Buttresses are fairly common on older places of worship, as a means of providing support to act against the vertical forces from the roof structures that lack adequate bracing.

Answer 31

B Explanation:
A. Usually located above the main entrance and accessed by a NARROW stair.
C. Operating a tower ladder stream into a Rose Window MAY extinguish fire at the upper reaches of the church.
D. as a means of providing support to act against the LATERAL forces from the roof structures that lack adequate bracing.
**NEW BULLETIN AS OF 8/15/19
FF PROCEDURES PLACES OF WORSHIP FIRES GLOSSARY
** DON’T GIVE UP THE GLOSSARY **

Question 32

Question 32:
For a store fire in a taxpayer, which unit is responsible for ensuring the sprinkler system is supplied, when the building is protected by a sprinkler?

A: First-arriving Engine

B: Second-arriving Engine

C:Third-arriving Engine

D: Fourth-arriving Engine

Answer 32

C Explanation:
First arriving Engine - when staffing and conditions permit, a second line shall be stretched to feed this system.
Second arriving Engine - when the first Engine has not supplied it and staffing and conditions permit, a second line shall be stretched to feed this system.
Third arriving Engine - ensure sprinkler system is supplied.
Taxpayer 7.3.5 A

Question 33

Question 33:
Span of Control is important when it comes to managing resources at an incident. Which of the following is CORRECT regarding an officer’s span of control?

A: At an incident where tasks are demanding and take place over a larger area, and the incident is escalating, the span of control can be increased to eight.

B: At a complicated operation taking place in a small area where communication is poor and safety hazards exist, the span of control can be increased to seven.

C:At an incident where the tasks are simple and routine and the incident is stable, the individual span of control might be increased to seven.

D: In general, the span of control of any individual should range from three to eight with five being ideal.

Answer 33

C Explanation:
ICS – CHAPTER 1
A – Incorrect – Span of control might be reduced to three or four 3.2.3 pg 4
B – Incorrect – Only if Communication is good and no unusual safety hazards exist. 3.2.3 pg 4
C – Correct 3.2.3
D – Incorrect – Span of control should range from 3 to 7 with 5 being ideal… 3.2.2

Question 34

Question 34:
You’re the first ladder officer to arrive at a fire on the top floor of a 4-story OLT. Your unit takes the following actions. Which one of them is incorrect?

A:Your OV proceeded to the roof with the saw and halligan hook, descended the fire escape and provided coordinated ventilation with interior operations.

B: You ensured that entry doors at the street level were chocked open, to enable the stretching of handlines or access by other members.

C: Upon entering the fire apartment you proceeded to the seat of the fire and tried to contain it by shutting the door. A thorough primary search was started at this point.

D: Your LCC remained on the turntable because the roof and OV firefighters accessed the roof via the AL and were operating over a heavy fire condition.

Answer 34

A Explanation:
A. Proceed to roof with SAW AND HALLIGAN
Lad 3 Tenements: 3.2.1 #2, #7, 3.2.4 #5, 3.2.5 #2

Question 35

Question 35:
The most correct signal to give for smoke seeping from a manhole can be found in which choice?

A: 10-25

B: 10-25-1

C: 10-25-2

D:10-25-3

E: 10-25-4

Answer 35

D Explanation:
10-25 (without code) Situation other than code 1,2,3,4
10-25-1- Fire has extended from a manhole, conduit, or transformer into a building
10-25-2- Fire has blown one or more manhole covers, or smoke is issuing from a manhole under pressure
10-25-3- Smoke is seeping from a manhole
10-25-4- Fire or smoke condition from a transformer at any location
AUC 180 sec 1.1

Question 36

Explanation:
10-25 (without code) Situation other than code 1,2,3,4
10-25-1- Fire has extended from a manhole, conduit, or transformer into a building
10-25-2- Fire has blown one or more manhole covers, or smoke is issuing from a manhole under pressure
10-25-3- Smoke is seeping from a manhole
10-25-4- Fire or smoke condition from a transformer at any location
AUC 180 sec 1.1

Answer 36

D Explanation:
The transmitting button of ONE HT is pressed.
The feedback created by these two HT’s will be transmitted to other HT’s on the same frequency as far as a mile away.
Comm 11 9.5.10 Note

Question 37

Question 37:
For fires in “traditional” private dwellings built of ordinary/wood frame construction, early collapse is not a primary consideration. At these types of buildings, depending on the duration and intensity of the fire, the size of the structural components, and the type of construction involved, the amount of time before collapse occurs is generally estimated to be ___. However, when there is no ceiling to provide protection, therefore exposing structural components, failure can occur within ___.

A: 20 minutes; 5 to 10 minutes

B:60 minutes; 20 minutes

C: 60 minutes; 5 to 10 minutes

D: 30 minutes; 15 minutes

Answer 37

B Explanation:
PD Chapter 6 Section 1.6

Question 38

Question 38:
In ICS, the specific combinations of the same kind and type of resource with common communications under the supervision of an officer designated as leader is the definition of a ________.

A:Strike Team

B: Task Force

C: Sector

D:Group

Answer 38

A Explanation:
ICS CHAPTER 1
A is Correct - Strike Team 4.3.1C

Question 39

Question 39:
NYC uses over two billion cubic feet of natural gas every day, supplying two-thirds of our total energy needs. Natural gas is supplied to NYC by three interstate pipelines and several interconnections under the management of several distributors. Which of the following statements is correct pertaining to the gas system infrastructure?

A: Natural gas is piped to customers along Distribution Mains which may be high or medium pressure only.

B: High and medium pressure Distribution Mains are made of steel, plastic, or if older, cast iron.

C: Only high pressure Distribution Mains have control valves that are exercised (partially) on a schedule to ensure working order.

D:Gate station facilities have remote monitoring by the Utility Company’s Gas Control Centers but generally have no permanent on-site personnel.

Answer 39

D Explanation:
** 2019 BC’s Exam **
A. … which may be HIGH, MEDIUM OR LOW pressure. B. MEDIUM AND LOW PRESSURE Distribution Mains… C. HIGH AND MEDIUM pressure Distribution Mains…
Natural Gas 4.1, 4.3

Question 40

Question 40:
Personnel at the scene of a motor vehicle accident with victim(s) pinned must have a specific strategy for overall safety and efficient victim removal. Which of the following statements is incorrect?

A:The engine officer should divide the company into two teams. The officer and one CFR trained firefighter (equipped with trauma bag and cervical collars) proceed to the scene of the accident.

B: When fire or hazardous condition exists upon arrival, stretching and charging a hoseline is paramount. Consider a foam handline.

C: The ladder should ensure the disconnection of the battery. When disconnecting the battery, remove the negative terminal first.

D: Never right a vehicle with a victim inside.

Answer 40

A Explanation:
A. The officer and TWO CFR trained firefighters…
Disentanglement and Extrication 4.1, 4.2, 5.2