EXAM 26

Question 1

Question 1:
Units are operating at a fully involved brownstone fire. The officer of one of the second alarm engine companies is ordered to stretch a third hoseline due to the heavy fire conditions. The third hosline may be stretched to all of the following locations except which one?

A:Stretched to supply a Tower Ladder.

B:Advanced into the fire building.

C: If fire is reported in an exposure, stretched to that exposure.

D: If there is no fire in the exposures, stretched through an exposure to the rear yard of the fire building.

Answer 1

A Explanation:
**Supplying a TL is not mentioned for a fully involved brownstone.**

Brownstones 3.4

Question 2

Question 2:
The members of Ladder 99 were discussing ladder company chauffeur responsibilities upon arrival at a fire at a Brownstone. Which statement made regarding chauffeurs was CORRECT?

A: If blocked out and unable to position for complete coverage, the 1st arriving aerial ladder LCC notifies their company officer.

B: Prior to leaving the pedestal, a 1st arriving aerial LCC notifies their company officer and IC of intended destination.

C: The initial positioning goal of a 1st arriving Tower Ladder at a fire in a brownstone is for VEIS of the fire floor.

D:For fire in the rear of the top floor of a brownstone, the 1st arriving LCC positioned the aerial to the roof of the exposure.

Answer 2

D Explanation:
BROWNSTONES & ROWFRAMES / TL CROSS REFERENCE
D IS CORRECT – For top floor fire, the LCC raises and positions aerial to roof of exposure for use by roof firefighter and OV (who will be going to roof).2.6D6 A - PG 11
A – If unable to position, notify the INCIDENT COMMANDER 2.6D1
B – Prior to leaving pedestal, the LCC notifies their Company Officer 2.6D1
C – Initial positioning goal is VEIS of the TOP FLOOR – TL CH 2 – 2.1.1

Question 3

Question 3:
According to Fire Department ventilation procedures, what is the boundary layer in a structure fire where below it, air will be drawn into the structure, and above it, combustion gasses will be exhausted?

A: Unidirectional flow path

B:The neutral plane

C: Tenability

D: The mid-line

Answer 3

B Explanation:
Unidirectional Flow Path - where hot gasses from the fire area (higher pressure) flow towards a ventilation point OR an air entrainment back towards the seat of the fire. All gas movement is in one direction.
Tenability - An assessment on whether units can operate within the fire area based on the conditions encountered and the impact of these conditions to potential victims and members.
Vent Glossary

Question 4

Question 4:
Which statement in regards to the SCBA is incorrect?

A: “Wearing” an SCBA shall mean having the harness on, with the facepiece in a standby position

B: “Using” an SCBA shall mean having the facepiece on with the regulator donned

C: The wearing/use of SCBAs may be dispensed with only when authorized by the IC

D:When it is necessary for an officer to leave the IDLH area to service their SCBA, they shall notify the IC of the operation (or fire sector supervisor is established) and remaining members under their direct supervision must exit the area with his/her officer

Answer 4

D Explanation:
Such officer must ensure that temporary supervision is provided for the remaining member(s) under their direct supervision during their absence. Circumstances that prevent the officer from providing temporary supervision shall require the withdrawal of all members under that officer’s direct supervision
AUC 220 p-1-2

Question 5

Question 5:
On a portable ladder, the unit designation should be marked within ___ inches of each butt.

A: 12

B: 14

C: 16

D:18

Answer 5

D Explanation:
CODE: “COMPANY DESIGNATION” 18 LETTERS = 18 INCHES

CROSS REF: THE NUMERICAL LENGTH OF THE LADDER SHALL BE MARKED ON THE SIDE OF THE RAILS WITHIN 12 INCHES OF THE END OF THE LADDER.

Portable Ladder 6.1 & 6.2

Question 6

Question 6:
The companies in the 13thdivision are involved in an operation involving a stalled Air Train on the guideway along the Van-Wyck Expressway. Which consideration regarding evacuation and removal was INCORRECT?

A: Evacuating passengers via the walkway to a nearby station might be a consideration based on the distance to the next station, weather conditions and the physical capabilities of the passengers.

B:The Primary method for evacuating passengers from an Air Train that is located between stations is to have Air Train personnel bring a rescue train to the front or rear and evacuate them through the front or rear doors of the train.

C: If immediate removal from an elevated area is required, the use of a Tower Ladder may be necessary. The primary means of accessing the guideway shall be via the nearest overpass.

D: When using the walkways to evacuate passengers, the Incident Commander must ensure that power is removed, and grounding straps are in place for the entire evacuation path prior to removing the passengers.

Answer 6

B Explanation:
AUC 207 ADDENDUM 12 – AIRTRAIN SYSTEM
B IS INCORRECT – Air Train Cars do not have front or rear doors – Section 3.
A – Section 10 PG 5 Bottom
C – Section 10 Pg 6 top
D – Section 10 Pg 5 Bottom

Question 7

If a civilian enters quarters with a complaint, what flagging column entry should the officer make in the company journal?

A:Com

B: CM

C: Cmp

D: Coml

Answer 7

A Explanation:
CM - Cleaning & Maintenance
CJ p8

Question 8

uestion 8:
After exiting the fire building, members entering rehabilitation should normally rest for approximately how long before being reassigned?

A:20 minutes

B: 30 minutes

C: 40 minutes

D: Once members enter the rehabilitation area, members can no longer be reassigned duties at the incident

Answer 8

A Explanation:
AUC 230 sec 7.2
Depending on conditions, the IC, in consultation with the Rehabilitation Group Manager, Medical Branch Director or designee, may modify the time frame for rehabilitat

Question 9

Question 9:
It is important that company officers are familiar with the location of fire protection systems and equipment inside under-river rails. Which statement below is correct regarding these features?

A:All under river standpipes in the NYC transit system are wet. They are city main fed and there are no pumps to augment the system.

B: Standpipe outlets are located every 600 feet throughout under-river tubes.

C: Sound powered phone jacks are located at standpipes outlets in every under-river tube.

D: Emergency evacuation devices are only located at one end of each tube at the base of the emergency exit.

Answer 9

A Explanation:
B. Standpipe outlets are located every 200 feet throughout under-river tubes.

C. Sound powered phone jacks are located at standpipes outlets in every under-river tube EXCEPT THE JORALEMON TUBE.

D. Emergency evacuation devices are located at BOTH ENDS of each tube at the base of the emergency exit.

Under River Rails 2.7

Question 10

Question 10:
Engine 199 and Ladder 99 respond to an intersection car accident and fire that results in five 1045 code 3’s from burn injuries sustained. Which choice below is CORRECT according to regulations regarding a Noteworthy Incident?

A:This accident does not qualify as a Noteworthy Incident.

B:The Borough Commander/Command Chief must be notified via the Chain of Command.

C: The officer should request the response of a Battalion Chief to the Noteworthy Incident.

D: The Officer telephoned the Deputy to advise him of the 1045 burn injuries.

Answer 10

A Explanation:
REGULATIONS CHAPTER 11
A IS CORRECT – 11.5.26 – Two (2) or more 10-45 Code 1, Three (3) or more 10-45 Code 2 or Eight (8) or more 10-45 Code 3 or 4.
B – Not required for this operation.
C – Not required for this operation.
D – The Deputy is notified for 1045 codes 1 & 2.

Question 11

Question 11:
Which of the following codes should be transmitted for a fire or emergency requiring Alcohol Resistant foam concentrate in addition to that carried by units on the scene?

A:10-86

B:10-86 Code 1

C: 10-87

D: 10-85

Answer 11

A Explanation:
10-85 - Fire Marshal requires emergency police assistance (specify reason)
10-87 - High Expansion Foam Operation
Comm 8 p82

Question 12

Question 12:
In order to receive a Prehospital Save Commendation, members must follow a certain criteria. Choose the incorrect criteria.

A:Patient must be found in cardiac rest or enter cardiac arrest while in the CFR unit’s care prior to or after the arrival of EMS

B:Vital signs must be restored on scene or enroute to the hospital

C: The patient must be admitted to the hospital

D: The Officer in command of the CFR unit shall submit a CFR Prehospital Save Form through the bag within 30 days of the event for the unit to be considered for an award

Answer 12

A Explanation:
Patient must be found in cardiac rest or enter cardiac arrest while in the CFR unit’s care PRIOR to the arrival of EMS……EMS IS NOT ON SCENE
**** A copy of the PCR form must accompany the Prehospital Save Form in order for it to be processed
AUC 243 sec 2.7

Question 13

Question 13:
Which ladder company is responsible for controlling the utilities at the scene of a collapse operation?

A: 1st ladder

B:2nd ladder

C: 3rd ladder

D: 4th ladder

Explanation:

Answer 13

B Explanation:
CROSS REF TAXPAYERS = 1ST LADDER

Collapse 7.6

Question 14

Question 14:
According to the Bereavement Leave PA/ID, there are people who qualify and others who do not. Which of the following choices DOES NOT qualify for Bereavement Leave? (INCORRECT)

A: The Father of a member’s domestic partner.

B: The Brother of a member

C:The Sister of a member’s spouse

D: The Uncle of a member who resides in their household.

Answer 14

C Explanation:
BEREAVEMENT LEAVE – PA/ID 4/89
C IS INCORRECT 1.1/1.3 – Immediate family of member: 1.1.1 Spouse. 1.1.2 Natural, adoptive, foster, or step-parent, child, brother, or sister. 1.1.3 Other relative residing in the household at time of death. 1.3 - Immediate family member of spouse or domestic partner: Spouse or domestic partner’s parent or child or other relative residing in the member’s household at the time of death. – JUST REMEMBER… NO BS For spouse or Domestic Partner (No Brother or Sister)

Question 15

Question 15:
Which choice contains correct information regarding biological agents?

A: Generally, manifestation of a biological incident is immediate.

B: SOC units carry meters that can detect the presence of a biological agent instantaneously.

C: By weight, chemical nerve agents are thousands of times more lethal than biological toxins.

D:Exposure to biological toxins such as ricin or mycotoxins may present immediate symptoms that mimic exposure to a chemical agent.

Answer 15

D Explanation:
A) Generally, manifestation of a biological incident is NOT immediate. It may take several hours, days or even weeks before a biological occurrence is suspected and even longer before a suspected outbreak/release can be confirmed.
B) There are NO DEVICES currently available to the Department that can detect the presence of a biological agent instantaneously or in real time.
By weight, BIOLOGICAL toxins are thousands of times more lethal than CHEMICAL nerve agents.
ERP Add 1 Ch 1 2.1.1, 2.1.2, 2.1.5

Question 16

Question 16:
You just received a ticket to respond as a watch line where the firefighters did an excellent job of extinguishing the fire and making several grabs at fatal fire in the Fordham section of the Bronx. Upon arrival, you are told to wait for the arrival of the Fire Marshal for an arson investigation. While waiting, relatives, neighbors, firefighters, and the media are trying to gain access to the fire area for a variety of reasons. From the following, who is the only person from the choices listed below that is able to let these people cross established fire lines?

A: 1st arriving Battalion Chief

B: Deputy Chief

C: Command Chief

D:Assigned Fire Marshal

Answer 16

D Explanation:
Relatives, neighbors, spectators, the media, and members of the Department shall not cross established fire lines unless authorized by the assigned Fire Marshal and/or Chief of Operations
Regs ch 11 sec 11.5.22

Question 17

Question 17:
When requesting an ambulance, companies must provide all of the following information to the dispatcher for relay to EMD except which one?

A:Mechanism of Injury

B: Pulse and respiratory rate

C: CUPS status

D: Age

Answer 17

A

Explanation:
CODE: “CCC RAP”

CUPS status
Chief complaint
CPR initiated
Respiratory rate
Age
Pulse Rate

CFR Ch 2: 3.11

Question 18

Question 18:
A discussion was had regarding ventilation in HRFPMD’s and the following statements are made. Which is INCORRECT regarding ventilation operations in these buildings?

A:Horizontal ventilation of the fire floor is limited and controlled by the 1st arriving Ladder Company Officer.

B: All other ventilation must be strictly limited and controlled by the IC.

C: Vertical ventilation shall only be performed at the direction of the Incident Commander.

D:Ventilation of the fire apartment in HRFPMD’s should take place after the main body of fire has been controlled.

Answer 18

A Explanation:
FIREFIGHTING PROCEDURES - MULTIPLE DWELLINGS
A IS INCORRECT –1st arriving ladder officer controls ventilation of the Fire apartment 6.3.2
B – Correct 6.3.2
C – Correct 6.3.5
D – Correct 6.3.1

Question 19

Question 19:
While operating at a structural fire, an emergency roll call is conducted due to a potential missing member. All of the following choices are correct except?

A: If firefighting operations are to continue, you should complete your assignment.

B:If at anytime while operating at a fire or emergency you come across a downed member, immediately notify the IC and continue to complete your original assignment.

C: Members not in the immediate vicinity of the member in distress must refrain from self deploying and becoming involved in any rescue efforts, unless specifically ordered. Your assignment must be addressed as assigned.

D: If involvement in the rescue is necessary and you are unable to complete your firefighting assignment, the IC must be notified.

Answer 19

B If at anytime while operating at a fire or emergency you come across a downed member, immediately notify the IC via the proper radio transmission and TAKE THE REQUIRED ACTIONS TO ASSIST THE DOWNED MEMBER.
Comm 9 Add 2 5.10, 5.11

Question 20

Question 20:
In order to file a complaint with the Fire Department EEO Officer, the incident must of happened within what time frame from the date the alleged harassment/discrimination occurred?

A: Within 6 months

B:Within 1 year

C: Within 2 years

D: There is no time frame

Answer 20

B Explanation:
Training Bulletins EEO-1 p-9
***If complaint is sexual harassment, complainant may also choose to file directly with BITSB

Question 21

Question 21:
Special calls and the transmission of multiple alarms can sometimes fall in the hands of the first arriving company officer based on the conditions they encounter upon arrival. Which of following is NOT in line with the general guidelines for special calls? (INCORRECT)

A: Engine 1 transmits a second alarm for a taxpayer fire that has extended into the adjoining occupancy.

B:Engine 2 transmits a second alarm for fire on two floors in a Old Law Tenement.

C: Engine 3 transmits a second alarm for heavy fire in the cellar and 1st floor of a Brownstone.

D: Engine 4 transmits a second alarm for an extensive cockloft fire in an H-Type MD.

Answer 21

B Explanation:
CROSS REFERENCE
B IS INCORRECT – Extra Engine and truck for fire on two floors in an old law tenement. If progress is not made on at least one floor in a short time, transmit a second alarm. 3.4.6 MD’s
A – Correct – Taxpayers 5.7.4
C – Correct – Brownstones 4.4
D – Correct – Multiple Dwellings 5

Question 22

Question 22:
Because of an upgrade to the newly-issued Motorola radios, only numeric radio identifiers will be displayed for the 9X6 tour you are working. While operating at a stubborn 2nd alarm brush fire, you hear what you think to be a verbal Urgent on the radio, and as you look down to the screen, you see “8008005.” Which member does this indicate?

A: Engine 8 Control

B: Squad 8 Hook/Control

C:Squad 8 Irons/Backup

D: Squad 1 Irons

Answer 22

C Explanation:
CONFLICT
Comm 11 Add 4 p4 is in Confict with MMID ch 2 Add 1 page 2.
MMID ch 2 add 1 is from 2011. Comm 11 is from 2019.
On test day, go with Comm 11 and let the

Question 23

Question 23:
Choose the incorrect description when supplying and operating a Tower Ladder.

A: Playpipe (stream shaper) must be left in place to assure a good quality stream with maximum reach

B: 200 to 250 psi is required at the inlet of the TL apparatus for effective operation

C:Water flow is controlled exclusively at the gate located at the base of the TL

Answer 23

C Explanation:
Water flow is controlled exclusively by the supply pumper
Engine Operations ch 11 p-3

Question 24

Question 24:
First-arriving units should treat most confined space emergencies in the same fashion as Hazardous Materials incidents; with extreme care for the rescuer’s wellbeing. Which statement below pertaining to confined spaced operations is correct?

A: Entries by members not specifically trained in confined space rescue should never be attempted.

B:A toxicity of 35 PPM of carbon monoxide is a safe atmospheric condition.

C: All members entering a confined space must be breathing air from the SCBA at all times.

D: First alarm units should not consider lowering a rescuer with the lifesaving rope under any circumstances

Answer 24

B Explanation:
A. Entries by members not specifically trained in confined space rescue should NOT be attempted EXCEPT IN EXTREME CIRCUMSTANCES.

C. All members entering a confined space must be breathing air from the SCBA UNLESS THE ATMOSPHERE IS PROVEN NON-HAZARDOUS VIA CONTINUOUS METER READINGS.

D. First alarm units should not consider lowering a rescuer with the lifesaving rope UNLESS EXTREME CIRCUMSTANCES EXIST, AND THEY MUST HAVE A PLAN FOR REMOVING THAT MEMBER.

NOTE: SAFE ATMOSPHERIC CONDITONS

OXYGEN BETWEEN 19.5%-23.5%
FLAMMABLE RANGE: NOT OVER 10% LEL
TOXICITY: NOT OVER 35 PPM OF CARBON MONOXIDE
TOXICITY: NOT OVER 10 PPM OF HYDROGEN SULFIDE

Confined Space 3.1, 4.1, 4.3

Question 25

BACK LIST NEXT

Question 25:
Today is Election Day and Firefighter Jones walks into your office to inquire about the possibility of taking off on a self-mutual for today’s night tour. Which response below is CORRECT regarding Self Mutual tours off?

A: Firefighters may work a maximum of 6 self-mutuals in any calendar year.

B: If possible, requests for self-mutual off or repayment should be made at least 24 hours in advance.

C: Firefighters may be permitted to owe a maximum of one night tour and one day tour and will not be permitted another until the outstanding tours are repaid.

D:If a member fails to repay a self-mutual within 90 days, the member will not be permitted to work MSOT until payment has been completed.

Answer 25

DD Explanation:
PA/ID 3/94 - SELF MUTUAL POLICY
D IS CORRECT – 4.3/4.3.2
A – Maximum of 4 self-mutuals in any calendar year. 4.1
B – If possible, requests should be made at least 72 hours in advance 2.1.2
C – Firefighters will be permitted to owe the department a maximum of one tour prior to repayment. 4.2

Question 26

Question 26:
As a Ladder Company Chauffeur of a Tower Ladder at a cellar fire in a taxpayer, each of the following tactics would be considered correct except?

A: Generally, the primary position of the 1st arriving tower ladder is in front of the fire building/occupancy.

B:If the taxpayer faces on two streets and the front of the building is covered by tower ladder(s), then place the additional tower ladder(s) a distance away from the fire building to allow for proper Engine Company positioning.

C: If the apparatus is a rearmount aerial ladder, place it away from the immediate fire building/occupancy in order to leave the area accessible for a tower ladder.

D: Tower ladders should be positioned so that the fire can be cut off and driven back to the point of origin.

Answer 26

B Explanation:
If the taxpayer faces on two streets and the front of the building is covered by tower ladder(s), then place the additional tower ladder(s) TO COVER THE OTHER STREET FRONT.
Txpyr 8.2.2 A4

Question 27

Question 27:
The only correct safety procedure performed when operating at a tenement fire can be found in which choice?

A:No more than two members operated in a small room at an OLT fire

B: During the summer months, members performing overhaul operations shall dispense wearing the bunker coat as per the IC

C: Hanging ends of cable such as BX, telephone and coaxial television shall be pushed up out of the way

D: In order to overhaul a bathroom properly in an OLT, members must enter the bathroom to ensure its fully opened up, especially the plumbing wall

Answer 27

A Explanation:
Ladders 3
A- sec 8.2
B- When performing overhaul operations, all members must wear their Department issued PPE including bunker coat, bunker pants, bunker boots, helmets, protective hoods and gloves…sec 8.4 new as of 3/2019
C- Secured near ceiling. Loops of cable hanging down shall be pushed up out of the way…..sec 8.10 (2005) Lts exam
D- Consider using the reach of the hook and standing outside the bathroom to open up the ceiling……sec 8.1

Question 28

BACK LIST NEXT

Question 28:
Members should be familiar with fire protection systems commonly found in high rise office buildings. Which choice below contains incorrect information?

A: Automatic closure of fire dampers is usually effected upon operation of an approved fusible link or other approved heat activated device located where they would be readily effected by an abnormal rise in temperature in the duct.

B: Once a fire damper has closed it must be manually opened before air can pass though the opening it is protecting.

C: An approved product of combustion ionization detecting device or a combination of an approved smoke detecting device and an approved fixed temperature thermostatic device shall be located at the air return shaft at each floor in order to monitor each inlet to the return airshaft.

D:Activation of any of the detectors installed in an HVAC system shall stop the air supply into and the air return from all floors in the building.

Answer 28

D Explanation:
Activation of any of the detectors installed in an HVAC system shall stop the air supply into and the air return from the AFFECTED FLOOR.
Note: The air supply and the air return are stopped by the activation of an approved remote controlled reversible fire shutter or by automatically shutting down the air supply fans and the air return fans serving the floor where activated. The fans cannot be reactivated until the smoke detector has been cleared or the smoke detector relay has been electrically bypassed. This can be difficult and time consuming.
Note: A) Fusible links should have a temperature rating approximately 50º F above the maximum temperature that would normally be encountered with the system in operation or shut down.
HROB 3.4.1, 3.4.2

Question 29

Question 29:
Most chemical agents will cause victims to display signs and symptoms immediately (seconds to minutes). Which agents will have delayed effects (hours)?

A: Chlorine and Ammonia

B: Hydrogen Cyanide and Cyanogen Chloride

C:Tabun and Sarin

D:Mustards and Phosgene

Answer 29

Explanation:
Exposure to chemical agents will result in immediate signs and symptoms (seconds to minutes), with the exception of Mustards and Phosgene, which will have delayed effects (hours).
ERP Add 2 2, p18

Question 30

Question 30:
While operating at a major gas emergency, units may take several actions outside of the potential blast zone. Which action described below is incorrect?

A:Units may be deployed to stretch precautionary hose lines for the protection of structures. 1 3/4” or 2 1/2” hose are appropriate in this situation.

B: Fog stream should not be used to dissipate natural venting outside of a structure; let the gas vent naturally.

C:When required and consistent with safety, a charged fog hose line may be used to protect workers placing a plug or operating a clamp.

D: All members, apparatus, appliances and hose should be positioned outside of the potential blast zone.

Answer 30

A Explanation:
A. Units may be deployed to stretch precautionary hose lines for the protection of structures. 2 1/2” hose OR LARGE CALIBER STREAMS are appropriate FOR THESE DEFENSIVE POSITIONS AND WILL ALLOW GREATER REACH.

Natural Gas 9.2.1

Question 31

Question 31:
Live overhead wires can present a problem if they fall onto the tower ladder apparatus. It is possible for the apparatus to be energized, particularly if the jacks and outriggers are down in place. If this should occur, which tactic below is correct for members to take?

A:Depress the EAB and transmit an “urgent” message to the IC informing him/her of the condition.

B: A member shall immediately raise the jacks and outriggers off the ground.

C: Any members in position on an energized apparatus must be immediately removed.

D: In this situation, the supply lines and supply pumper being energized are not a consideration.

Answer 31

A Explanation:
B. NO MEMBER SHALL TOUCH THE APPARATUS.

C. Any members in position on an energized apparatus SHOULD ATTEMPT TO REMAIN IN PLACE AND ARE NOT TO BE TOUCHED UNTIL POWER HAS BEEN REMOVED.

D. In this situation, the supply lines and supply pumper being energized ARE A consideration.

Tower Ladder 2.7

Question 32

Question 32:
At a fire operation, the Safety Team shall be positioned outside the IDLH atmosphere and take each of the following actions, except those found in which choice?

A: Monitor handie-talkie transmissions for calls for assistance from members operating in an IDLH atmosphere, mayday, or urgent transmissions, and transmissions from interior teams that are not being acknowledged.

B: Be prepared to enter the IDLH atmosphere to render assistance if required.

C: Be prepared to transmit necessary mayday or urgent handie-talkie message if an interior team needs immediate assistance.

D:Ensure that the dispatcher is notified that the Safety Team is entering the IDLH atmosphere if necessary.

Answer 32

D Explanation:
Ensure that the INCIDENT COMMANDER is notified that the Safety Team is entering the IDLH atmosphere if necessary.
MMID Ch 1 3.1

Question 33

Question 33:
Choose the incorrect tactic by the second arriving Ladder Company while operating at a tenement fire.

A: If evidence shows there might be extension around the baseboards, one of the members loosened the baseboard and used pots of water to pour water between the baseboard and wall to control extension

B: If fire is found extending to the floor above, probing holes are made in the same bay or bays until the outer edge of the fire is defined. The ceiling or walls should not be fully opened until a charged line is in position, because of the possibility of intensifying the fire

C:The search for fire extension is often done by the use of a thermal imaging camera (TIC)

D: There is no exact way that temperature can be determined by touch, but if a wall or a partition is too hot to keep the hand on, it should be opened up

Answer 33

C Explanation:
Ladder 3
A- sec 7.3.3
B- sec 7.3.5
C- The search for fire extension is often done by sense of touch alone….sec 7.1.3
D- sec 7.3.2

Question 34

Question 34:
At a taxpayer fire, the practicality of trenching will depend on each of the following factors except?

A: Volume of fire - it may be no longer possible to get ahead of the fire.

B: Ceilings - height and type. Due to inaccessibility and extensive lighting systems, it may be necessary to attack the fire from above.

C: Roof size - a long trench may take too much time.

D:Skylights - these may hinder an effective trench.

Answer 34

D

D:Skylights - these may hinder an effective trench.

Explanation:
Acronym: VCR
Volume of fire
Ceilings
Roof size
Txpyr 8.3.2 D

Question 35

Question 35:
Which of the following choices contains incorrect information regarding fire operations in vacant buildings?

A: Operating on the floors above an uncontrolled fire in a vacant building presents greater risks than floor-above operations in occupied buildings.

B:When operating at a vacant building fire, under no circumstances shall members conduct searches on the floors above the fire until all visible fire has been knocked down and the IC has conducted a size-up and risk assessment.

C: When a vacant building is heavily involved on arrival, hose streams should be placed between the involved building and the most severe life exposure.

D: When life is not endangered in any exposure, the first stream should be positioned to protect the greatest amount of property.

Answer 35

B Explanation:
When operating at a vacant building fire, members shall not conduct searches on the floors above the fire until all visible fire has been knocked down and the IC has conducted a size-up and risk assessment; however, members MAY VARY from this guideline when confronted with a KNOWN LIFE HAZARD.
Vacant 5.2, 5.4

Question 36

Question 36:
When the IC is considering ordering an exterior hoseline operated into a cellar window to allow for a quick knockdown at a cellar fire in a PD, what is the primary consideration for members operating on the first floor?

A: Operating under the protection of a hoseline.

B: Securing an area of refuge, ensuring a ready means of egress.

C: Exiting the building.

D:Closing the interior cellar door at the top of the stairs.

Answer 36

D Explanation:
Private Dwellings Ch 2: 2.6

Question 37

A FF who just joined an existing study group claimed to know all about sprinklers. He made several statements, but was only correct in which choice?

A: A building equipped with a sprinkler system must only be supplied by one engine company so not to overwhelm the system

B: Pump discharge pressure for supplying a sprinkler system should start at 100 psi

C: When operating near an area in which sprinklers have controlled the fire, the use of SCBA use is optional since the fire has been “controlled”

D:Both engine and ladder company personnel should carry wooden sprinkler wedges or sprinkler tongs to stop the flow of water from a sprinkler head in order to facilitate operations and reduce water damage

Answer 37

D Explanation:
Engine Operations p-3-4
A- Whenever possible, sprinkler systems should be augmented by at least two different engine companies
B- should start at 150 psi
C- Due to the potential danger of high concentrations of carbon monoxide gas being present where sprinkler heads are operating, MASKs shall be used and facepieces properly affixed

Question 38

Question 38:
An important element in the investigation of fire is the preservation and packaging of evidence. Choose the incorrect method of evidence collection.

A: Use a completely air-tight container made from non-odorous materials such as a new one gallon metal (paint) can

B: If a new can is not available, use a clean glass jar with a tightly fitting lid

C:Never use plastic containers. Vapors may escape through plastic and evidence may be contaminated by the deterioration of the plastic container

D: A plastic bag can be used in an emergency. It should be new, heavy gauge and used in pairs

Answer 38

C Explanation:
TRY TO AVOID THE use plastic containers. Vapors may escape through plastic and evidence may be contaminated by the deterioration of the plastic container
*** As soon as possible, place into can or jar and submit to the Fire Marshal
***Any evidence must remain in the hands of someone who will be available to testify as to the continuity of the evidence
*** Any evidence must remain in the hands of someone who will be available to testify as to the continuity
Training Bulletins Arson 1 p-8-9

Question 39

While performing patient assessment during a CFR response, members discover that the patient is responsive but unable to follow simple commands. After reporting this to their company officer, the officer should report which CUPS status to the dispatcher when requesting an ambulance?

A: Critical

B:Unstable

C:Potentially Unstable

D: Stable

Answer 39

B

Question 40

At a “Major Collision” vehicles should generally not be moved; however, there are exceptions. Which choice below is not in accordance with Department policy?

A: The fact that one lane of traffic is blocked, or that motorists are temporarily inconvenienced due to traffic conditions, does not warrant moving the involved vehicles.

B: Collisions occurring on city streets rarely justify moving the involved vehicles at a collision scene.

C:If a collision occurs during periods of light or moderately fast moving traffic, the potential for another collision being caused is decreased. The involved vehicles shall not be moved in this case.

D: The prevention of additional collisions and/or injuries at a collision scene should be the determining factor as to whether or not to move the vehicles that have been involved in a collision.

Answer 40

C Explanation:
If a collision occurs during periods of light or moderately fast moving traffic, the potential for another collision being caused is INCREASED. The involved vehicles MAY then HAVE TO be moved to a position of safety.
SB 56 9.1