exam 10 Flashcards

1
Q

Question 1:
The most correct order for donning Bunker Gear can be found in which choice?

A:1)Pants and boots, 2) HT, 3) Protective Hood, 4) Bunker Coat

B: 1)Pants and boots, 2) Protective Hood, 3) HT, 4) Bunker Coat

C: 1)Pants and boots, 2) HT, 3) Bunker Coat, 4) Protective Hood

D: 1)Protective Hood, 2) Pants and boots, 3) HT, 4) Bunker Coat

A

A Explanation:
AUC 310 sec 7
2005 Lts test

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2
Q

Question 2:
The second hoseline at a high rise fireproof multiple dwelling may be used for which of the following? **1. Backup the first line. **2. Advance with the first line. **3. Operate the hi-rise nozzle. **4. Operate into a breach in the adjoining apartment wall while the first line is protecting the public hallway. **5. Operate on the floor above.

A:1,2,3,4,5

B: 1,2,4,5

C: 1,2,3,4

D: 1,2,4

A

A Explanation:
HRFPMD: SECOND LINE MAY BE STRETCHED TO FLOOR ABOVE

HIGH RISE OFFICE: SECOND LINE IS NOT STRETCHED TO FLOOR ABOVE

Multiple Dwellings 6.9.4

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3
Q

Question 3:
Communicating in an emergency to all the members working at the scene of an unstable collapse is paramount. Which of the following is INCORRECT about emergency signaling used by the department?

A: Apparatus air horns may be beneficial after the initial HT announcement, followed by another HT announcement after the air horns have ceased.

B:One long and one short blast from the airhorn means Evacuate Area.

C: Safety officers, members operating transits, as well as members positioned as lookouts will be issued an air horn.

D: One long three second blast from the airhorn means cease operations/all quiet.

A

B Explanation:
FIREFIGHTING PROCEDURES - COLLAPSE OPERATIONS - PG 19
A – Correct – 9.2
B – Incorrect – One long and one short blast means Resume Operations 9.2 PG 19
C – Correct – 9.2
D – Correct – 9.2

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4
Q

Question 4:

At a high rise building fire, the second arriving engine officer provides the communications link between the lobby and the fire area pending the establishment of the Fire Sector/Branch on a floor below the fire. Of the following choices, which is incorrect regarding this procedure?

A: The first arriving Battalion Chief shall give the Post radio to the second engine officer. The second engine officer will then take the Post radio and report with his/her company to their normal location, in the vicinity of the standpipe outlet from which the first handline is being stretched.

B:Upon arrival on the floor below the fire, the second engine officer shall establish contact with the Incident Command Post (ICP) on the tactical channel via the Post radio. The officer will verify that the Post radio is in place and give his/her location to the IC.

C: After establishing contact with the Incident Command Post (ICP), the second engine officer will use their handie-talkie radio on the tactical channel to announce to units in the fire area that a communications link with the ICP has been established. Communications will be relayed through the second engine officer.

D: In addition to his/her normal duties, the second engine officer must maintain the communications link with the lobby until the Fire Sector Supervisor/Branch Director arrives on the floor below the fire.

A

B

Explanation:
Upon arrival on the floor below the fire, the second engine officer shall establish contact with the Incident Command Post (ICP) on the COMMAND channel via the Post radio. The officer will verify that the Post radio is in place and give his/her location to the IC.
Comm 12 6.2

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5
Q

Question 5:
You are working in E200 for the 9X6 tour on November 10, 2019, when you receive a ticket to respond to LaGuardia Airport for a possible aircraft emergency. Upon arrival to the staging area, you would be correct to order your chauffeur to position the apparatus where?

A: In the order of the alarm assignment (in a single line)

B:With two lines being formed, E200 will be on the right

C: With two lines being formed, E200 will be on the left

D: With three lines being formed, E200 will be in the middle

A

B Explanation:
Units shall form up in a double line, convoy fashion with Ladder Companies, Rescue Companies and Special Units on the left and Engine Companies on the right
Units are not to proceed into the facility or onto the field without PA escort
AUC 325 add 1 sec 2

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6
Q

Question 6:
You’re the company officer working in Engine 100 when you receive a phone call from a civilian complaining that the fire extinguishers at the local movie theater in your administrative district are expired. You’d be correct to take which action below?

A: Immediately telephone the BISP unit.

B: Immediately telephone Fire Prevention Operations Support Unit (FPOSU).

C:Immediately telephone the administrative BC.

D: Conduct a prompt inspection with Engine 100 to determine the actual condition.

A

C Explanation:
NOTE: Choice D is the correct procedure for occupancies OTHER THAN PLACES OF PUBLIC ASSEMBLY such as THEATERS, SPORTS ARENAS, CONVENTION HALLS, DANCE HALLS, CABARETS OR SIMILAR OCCUPANCIES.

Regulations Ch 12: 12.1.6

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7
Q

Question 7:
Engine 202 was special called to a 3rd Alarm fire in a High-Rise commercial building to serve as the Systems Control Unit. Which task below was INCORRECTLY assigned to this unit?

A: They evaluated the status and operation of the fire and domestic water pumps and water supply.

B: They evaluated and supported the public address, telephone and other communications systems.

C:They evaluated and supported the operation of the building’s elevators.

D: They evaluated and operated as directed, the HVAC, smoke removal, and stairwell pressurization systems.

A

D Explanation:
SYSTEMS CONTROL UNIT – ICS ADDENDUM 6
A – Correct 4.2
B – Correct 4.2
C – Incorrect – Elevators are a specific task assigned to the Lobby Control Unit. They are not listed under any of the systems control unit’s functions.
D – Correct 4.2

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8
Q

Question 8:

Loft buildings pose a certain degree of collapse potential depending on conditions encountered and actions by members. Of the following choices, which is incorrect?

A: A brick wall with sand lime mortar can have this bonding material washed out by a LCS dislodging bricks and seriously weakening the wall.

B: Floor collapse can be initiated by the failure of a single column. Members should avoid striking columns with a LCS.

C:If the structural stability of gravity tank supports is questionable, consider draining the contents of the tank onto the roof and top floor to reduce the hazard of water weight concentrated at one point.

D: Wide-dimensional cast-iron lofts having front and rear walls supporting girders pose catastrophic collapse potential should they be compromised.

A

C Explanation:
If the structural stability of gravity tank supports is questionable, consider draining the contents of the tank and diverting the water OFF THE ROOF into a drain pipe, or by opening a standpipe outlet on a lower floor.
Also…..During winter operations, ice can accumulate on the outside of a gravity tank. These ice formations have broken away and fallen through the roof of loft buildings or adjoining buildings.
Loft 9.1.1, 9.1.4, 9.1.5, 9.1.6

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9
Q

Question 9:
Upon return to quarters from a fire where your company successfully deployed the K.O. Curtain, you prepared a brief letterhead report to the Chief of Operations detailing the use of the device and a description of any damage that may have occurred from the deployment of the device at the incident. Since the K.O. Curtain was confiscated on scene by the IC, you now have to contact who to obtain a replacement?

A:Administrative Division

B: Administrative Battalion

C: Fire Academy

D: Technical Services

A

A Explanation:
Contact the administrative Division for a replacement K.O. Curtain. The Division will get a replacement from Technical Services
NOTE: If a company’s KO Curtain is damaged in other than fire operations, the Company Commander will complete a letterhead report with all details to the Chief of Operations. This letterhead requires full endorsements and a replacement curtain shall be obtained from the Division
Training Bulletins Tools 2 page 4

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10
Q

Question 10:
During freezing weather when ice forms on portable ladders due to water spray, members shall take certain precautions to ensure safe ascending and descending. Which precaution below is incorrect?

A: Position the rung of the ladder under the arch of the boot, next to the heel.

B: Position the feet on the rungs directly next to the beams with each step, to avoid slipping.

C:The hands should grasp the rungs of the ladder for better control while climbing.

D: Should a member slip while climbing, they should immediately pull themselves into the ladder and regain their footing.

A

C Explanation:
C. The hands REMAIN ON THE UNDERSIDES OF THE BEAMS.

Portable Ladders 8.1

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11
Q

Question 11:
The following actions were taken at a string of recent track fires. Which action taken was MOST CORRECT according to department guidelines for operations underground?

A:Only the Chauffeur was needed for HT relay, so the other truck members proceeded with the officer to the incident location.

B: The Officer, Can, and FE firefighter walked out on the bench wall to extinguish a small rubbish fire while the remaining members of the truck company stayed at the end of the platform.

C:After holding the train in the station to prevent movement, the Officer and Can firefighter entered the track bed outside of the station to extinguish a small rubbish fire without power removal.

D: Observing a significant smoke condition in the street, each of the engine companies assigned took and connected to hydrants upon their arrival at the box location.

A

A Explanation:
AUC 207 – SUBWAY OPERATIONS
A – Correct – 4.1
B – Incorrect – When walking out on the benchwall, the officer and can firefighter should be sufficient to achieve our purposes. 5.4.2
C – Incorrect – Members can use the benchwall. Power must be removed if members are to enter the track bed. 5.4.1
D – Incorrect – Engine companies are not to hook up to hydrants until the location of the fire is determined. 5.1

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12
Q

Question 12:

Upon arrival at a stationary facility, you find a NFPA 704 diamond placard posted on the door to the room of fire. There is a “3” on the blue portion of the diamond. What does this indicate?

A: Shock and Heat May Detonate

B:Deadly

C: Hazardous

D:Extreme Danger

A

D Explanation:
Deadly - 4
Hazardous - 2
Shock and Heat May Detonate - this is a “3” in the yellow/reactivity section
ERP p 39

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13
Q

Question 13:
From the choices listed below, which Units carry the Window Blanket?

A:All Rescues and Squads

B: Rescues only

C: Squads only

D:All Squads and Divisions

A

A Explanation:
Any Unit or Units may be used to deploy the blanket
The Blanket is large enough to cover at least two windows if necessary
Training Bulletins Tools 3 page 1

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14
Q

Question 14:
The chauffer of an aerial ladder, while responding and at the scene, continually monitors the handie-talkie because placement of the apparatus, ladder or subsequent actions may be directly affected by orders or information received. Which action below is incorrect?

A: When approaching a box location and there is no visible indication of fire on the avenue of approach, the chauffeur should slow down one intersection short of the box location and enter the intersection at a slow rate of speed.

B: If the street has a severe crown, check both Inclinometers. Both bubbles must be in the GREEN ZONE. If in the RED ZONE, level apparatus or, if necessary, reposition.

C: Never remove people via aerial ladder when they may be calmed and held safely at that location or removed via a safer means of egress.

D:If possible, chauffeurs should avoid running over the hoselines. When it is necessary to traverse a charged line, it must be done quickly.

A

D Explanation:
D. …it must be done SLOWLY.

Aerial Ladders 7.2.1; 7.3; 7.4; 7.8.1

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15
Q

Question 15:

What is the appropriate code to transmit for a fire or emergency requiring High Expansion foam?

A: 10-60

B: 10-85

C: 10-86

D:10-87

A

Explanation:
10-60 - Major Emergency Response
10-85 - Fire Marshal requires emergency police assistance (specify reason)
10-86 - Alcohol Resistant Foam Operation
Comm 8 10-87

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16
Q

Question 16:
During a fire in a LRFPMD, which unit shall ensure that all elevators are recalled and searched?

A: 1st arriving ladder company

B:2nd arriving ladder company

C: Rescue

D: Squad

A

B Explanation:
1st arriving ladder company shall recall the elevators, whether or not they will be used
2nd arriving ladder company shall ENSURE that all elevators are recalled and searched
Multiple Dwellings sec 7.2

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17
Q

Question 17:
Cutting the roof of a tenement at a top floor fire is critical to the overall success of the fire operation. To be successful, the roof operating forces must fully understand the following points. Which one is incorrect?

A: When a serious fire occurs on the top floor or in the cockloft, it is still of paramount importance to provide initial ventilation before getting involved in the slower work of cutting the roof.

B: Initially, approximately a 3’x6’ coffin cut is recommended.

C:The saw is designed that whenever possible, the roof covering is cut prior to the roof boards.

D: One large expandable hole is more efficient and safer than many smaller holes.

A

C Explanation:
C. The saw is designed that whenever possible, ROOF BOARDS AND COVERINGS SHALL BE CUT IN ONE OPERATION.

Ladders 3: 5.9.2; 5.9.4; 5.9.5

18
Q

Question 18:
You are the new Lt. on duty and following roll call, several members come into the office to ask you questions about the CFR training policy. Which of the following statements below is CORRECT?

A: Full and Light Duty firefighters and officers are permitted to attend the CFR Cycle or the CFR refresher course.

B: Firefighters and officers are allowed to use Self-mutuals to attend the training.

C:Members unable to attend a weekly session will be dropped from the program and must return during the next cycle.

D: Members who successfully opt out of the program will be given one opportunity to reinstate by attending a refresher course.

A

C Explanation:
CFR-D CHAPTER 1
A – Incorrect – Only Full Duty members shall attend the CFRD cycle or refresher. 4.1.5A
B – Incorrect – Self mutual are not allowed except for covering officers. 4.1.3
C is Correct – 4.1.5C
D – Incorrect – Members who opt out shall not be permitted to participate in the program in the future. 3.3.6

19
Q

Question 19:

Members can reduce unnecessary exposure to radiation at an operation by utilizing the proper PPE and using objects to shield or block the radiation while operating in the Hot Zone. The following are listed “minimum precautions” to be taken prior to initiating operations. Which choice is incorrect?

A: Don proper bunker gear (with hood and helmet)

B:Don an APR and adapter; keep the SCBA in close proximity

C: Utilize a radiation detector (at least one per team)

D: Utilize a dosimeter (1 per position)

A

B Explanation:
DON a SCBA. The APR and adapter must be CARRIED by each member in case SCBA tank gets depleted.
Note: If radioactive material is dispersed (i.e. not a point source), removal of PPE should not be initiated until the member is evaluated and decontamination is verified.
ERP Add 4 4.4.3 C

20
Q

Question 20:
The size and location of a roof cut will depend on fire conditions. When performing the “coffin cut” seven cuts are performed. It’s important that the roof is not opened until all cuts are completed. Which number cut is the “knock out” cut?

A: #1

B:#2

C: #4

D: #7

A

B Explanation:
Note: Even though the roof is not opened until all seven cuts are completed, the “knock out” cut is the SECOND cut in the sequence. *DON’T BE CONFUSED BY THESE TWO POINTS”

Ladders 3: 5.9.6

21
Q

Question 21:
Engine 99 and Ladder 98 were discussing air pressurized standpipes on the apparatus floor when the seasoned Lt. began making points about these types of systems. Which statement made by the officer is INCORRECT?

A: Once the air is expelled from the system, the manual air release can be supplied in the same manner as you would supply the first floor outlet.

B: Buildings are required to have the number of release valves so that all pressure shall be expelled in no more than 3 minutes.

C:Breakaway caps are an indication that the system is an air pressurized system.

D: Air pressurized systems are required to be marked by a red light and a sign indicating that the system is pressurized.

A

C Explanation:
ENGINE COMPANY OPERATIONS CHAPTER 9 – ADDENDUM 2
A – Correct – 2.10
B – Correct – 2.2
C – Incorrect – Screw-in type siamese caps are required in order to provide the air tight seal necessary for an air pressurized standpipe system. 2.7.
D – Correct – 2.6

22
Q

Question 22:

Which chemical agent has a “fruit” odor?

A:Nerve Agent

B: Blister Agent

C: Blood Agent

D: Choking Agent

A

A Explanation:
Blister Agent -garlic
Blood Agent - burnt almonds
Choking Agent - chlorine/grass
ERP Add 2 2.1

23
Q

Question 23:
Choose the incorrect statement made when removing a ring that is stuck on a person’s finger.

A: Use a soapy water as lubricant for ring removal

B: Finger may be cooled which will decrease swelling and allow removal

C: Use or call for ring cutter which will safely cut ring off finger in short period of time—-less than a minute

D:Sometimes it is preferable to use regular cutting pliers because ring cutter will not cut sterling silver

A

D Explanation:
Will not cut stainless steel
Training Bulletins Emergency 3 sec 17.1

24
Q

Question 24:
You are the first to arrive ladder company officer at a flat roof attached private dwelling of ordinary brick construction. CIDS indicates that there are firewalls between each building. Your roof firefighter takes the following actions. Which one is correct?

A: She realized that she must take the LSR as part of her tool assignment for any flat roof private dwelling.

B: She understood that the immediate adjoining building must not be used for roof access despite offering the easiest access to the interior.

C:She took a scissor ladder to a similar uninvolved attached exposure top floor to gain access to the roof via the scuttle.

D: Once she realized that a LSR rescue was required, she contacted the first OV via HT for assistance on the roof.

A

C Explanation:
A. Life saving rope should be taken to the roof WHEN THERE WILL BE A DELAY IN LADDERING THE REAR OF THE BUILDING DUE TO ATTACHED EXPOSURES AND/OR THE HEIGHT OF THE BUILDING REQUIRES THE LSR.

B. Use of an attached exposure for interior access to the roof depends on the type of building construction. In ATTACHED WOOD FRAME type P.D.’s the immediate adjoining building should not be used due to the possibility of cockloft involvement. For attached P.D.’s of ORDINARY BRICK CONSTRUCTION WHERE FIREWALLS EXIST BETWEEN BUILDINGS, choose the building offering the easiest access to its interior.

D. …she contacted THE CHAUFFER…
Private Dwellings Ch 4: 7.1

25
Q

Question 25:
Engine 99 just got flagged down for a CFRD run and needs to request an ambulance. The officer reports a 55-year old female who is complaining of chest pain with a pulse rate of 80 & respiratory rate of 20. Which piece of information relayed to the dispatcher is unnecessary (INCORRECT)?

A: Chief Complaint

B:Sex

C: Pulse & Respiratory rate

D: Age

A

B Explanation:
CFRD CHAPTER 2
B is Incorrect – Sex is not required when requesting an ambulance – Chief Complaint, CUPS status, CPR Initiated, Age, Pulse & Respiratory rate. 3.11

26
Q

Question 26:
With the 1st alarm assignment in position during a fire on the 3rd floor of a 6 sty LRFPMD, which member/tool assignment was incorrectly carried out?

A:2nd due forcible entry team carried the Window Blanket to the floor above

B: 1st due and 2nd due Roof FF proceeded to roof with Halligan hook, Halligan, and LSR, and Life Belt

C: The Roof FFs shall remain on the roof until the fire is Under Control and the interior stairway is safe to descend

D: If no outside operations, the 2nd due OV/Chauffeur Team shall proceed to the floors above the fire to assist in the search

A

A Explanation:
Multiple Dwellings
A- K.O. Curtain 7.8.1
B- 7.7.3, 7.8.3
C- Bottom of p- 86
D- 7.8.2.D

27
Q

Question 27:
Con Edison workers refer to a steam pipe rupture on the street as a High Energy Line Break (HELB). Which of the following points concerning a HELB in the street is correct?

A:Escaping high pressure steam can hurl debris at 200 MPH.

B: Asbestos has been removed from most of the underground piping.

C: If a vent pipe has a green stripe on the top of it, this indicates that the steam is the result of a water leak, not a leaking steam main.

D: When operating at a HELB, the HVAC systems of nearby buildings must be shut down.

A

A Explanation:
B. Asbestos has been removed from Con Edison steam manholes but remains on most of the underground piping.

C. BLUE STRIPE

D. CONSIDER shutting the HVAC of nearby buildings.
Steam System Emergencies: 4.2 & 4.3

28
Q

Question 28:

The HT battery charger can reflect many conditions as indicated by the LED. Of the following choices, which is listed incorrectly?

A: Steady Green - fully charged.

B: Steady Red - in rapid charge.

C:Flashing Yellow - fault mode, battery is too hot/cold and waiting to charge

D: Flashing Green - trickle mode charge is at 90% or better.

A

C Explanation:
Flashing Amber - fault mode, battery is too hot/cold and waiting to charge.
Comm 11 Add 1 2.3 chart

29
Q

Question 29:

Truss construction has been used in taxpayers where large areas, free of roof support columns, were desired. Which of the following choices contains incorrect information regarding truss roofs found in taxpayers?

A: The truss is composed of two major members; the top chord and the bottom chord. Shorter members, called webs, connect the top and bottom chords.

B: Webs are placed vertically and diagonally, forming triangular configurations with the chord members. There are many variations but all are essentially the same; a combination of interdependent components used to span large distances through the use of smaller pieces fastened together.

C: Trusses can be either wood or steel. The open web joist or steel bar joist prevalent in modern taxpayer construction is a light weight parallel chord truss.

D:Steel truss roofs appear to fail without warning. The roof does not sag or get “spongy.” Wood trusses tend to “stretch” when losing their strength because of elevated temperatures, but steel tends to “snap.”

A

D Explanation:
WOOD truss roofs appear to fail without warning. The roof does not sag or get “spongy.” STEEL trusses tend to “stretch” when losing their strength because of elevated temperatures, but WOOD tends to “snap.”
Txpyr 3.3.3, 3.3.3 J

30
Q

Question 30:
When operating the portable power saw, the circle of danger can be measured in which correct choice?

A:20 foot radius

B: 15 foot radius

C: 10 foot radius

D: 5 foot radius

A

A Explanation:
This circle of danger shall be measured in all directions FROM THE POINT WHERE THE BLADE OF THE SAW IS IN OPERATION
Training Bulletins Tools 9 sec 4.7

31
Q

Question 31:
When operating at a gas emergency, if the leak cannot be controlled by shutting the appliance valve or the interior gas riser valve which of the following valves would you attempt to shut next?

A:Individual meter valve

B: Master meter valve

C: Head of service valve

D: Curb valve/service valve

A

A Explanation:
ACRONYMN: “Any Interior Individual Might Have Closed”

Priority Order of Valve Closure:

  1. Appliance Valve
  2. Interior Gas Riser Valve
  3. Individual Meter Valve
  4. Master Meter Valve
  5. Head of Service Valve
  6. Curb Valve/Service Valve

Natural Gas 6.7.3

32
Q

Question 32:

Two members of a Manhattan Truck Company were participating in a conversation about canopies and marquees found on commercial buildings. Which comment made was incorrect?

A: A canopy or marquee which is cantilevered over the sidewalk can act as a lever on the parapet wall pulling down a long section of it.

B: Canopies and marquees are generally supported by cables, steel tie rods or steel beams, which go through the wall and are attached inside the building, probably to combustible members in the cockloft. A fire in the cockloft can weaken these attachments or supports, causing sudden collapse of the canopy or marquee and a long section of the parapet wall, without any warning.

C: Marquees are hollow boxes which can fill up with run-off water at a fire operation due to use of heavy streams. A 12’ x 24’ marquee, 4’ deep, when filled would contain approximately 35 tons of water.

D:Canopies are required by the building code to have drainage facilities. Many have been found to have roof type gutters and down spouts blocked with debris, rubbish and rubber balls. Marquees are not required to have drainage facilities.

A

D Explanation:
Marquees are required by the building code to have drainage facilities. Many have been found to have roof type gutters and down spouts blocked with debris, rubbish and rubber balls.
Txpyr 3.5.1

33
Q

Question 33:

When it comes to “modern content” fires, fires start off as incipient, and then transition to the ventilation limited phase. According to the development curve for modern content fires, what would be the next stage if no additional oxygen is admitted?

A: Ventilation induced flashover

B:Early decay

C: A more rapid and intense second growth

D: 2nd decay stage

A

B Explanation:
Vent 2.1.6

34
Q

Question 34:
The minimum safe distance when operating at a Con-Edison substation with the voltage known to be between 15,000V-38,000V, can be found in which correct choice?

A: 50 feet

B: 25 feet

C:18 feet

D:10 feet

A

D Explanation:
18 feet for 345,000V
10 feet for 15,000V-38,000V
AUC 338 add 2 page-2

35
Q

Question 35:
A command channel must be established at which of the following operations: **1. 2nd and greater alarms; **2. 10-60; **3. 10-66?

A: 1 only

B: 1 & 2

C:1,2,3

D: 1 & 3

A

C Explanation:
Command and Control Ch 3: 3.2

36
Q

Question 36:

It has been determined that Fire Retardant Treated Plywood (FRTP) has been in use as roof sheathing in townhouses and multifamily apartment houses since 1979. Some FRTP has been reported to be deteriorating to a point where the roof is unsafe to walk on. Which description below is inaccurate regarding FRTP?

A: FRTP is generally used above party wall separations.

B: FRTP can be detected by noting excessive waviness in roofs near party walls.

C:A significant amount of FRTP has been treated with chemicals that initiates decomposition at temperatures much lower than intended. The process is slower in the presence of heat and high humidity.

D: If FRTP is observed at a construction or alteration site, officers shall notify adjoining companies by telephone followed by a written memo and comply with the eCIDS program.

A

C Explanation:
A significant amount of FRTP has been treated with chemicals that initiates decomposition at temperatures much lower than intended. The process is FASTER in the presence of heat and high humidity.
SB 77 1.1.1, 1.3, 1.4, 1.8, 1.6.1

37
Q

Question 37:

Unless otherwise directed, Engine Companies reporting to the Forward Staging Area at a high rise office building fire shall bring with them all of the following equipment except?

A: A SCBA for each member

B: A standpipe kit and a nozzle

C: A length of hose per firefighter

D:Assigned CFR-D equipment

A

D Explanation:
A spare SCBA cylinder for each member.
HROB 6.3.6 E

38
Q

Question 38:
Upon arrival to an aircraft emergency at Kennedy Airport, the IC orders you to find and hook up to the high pressure hydrant. This high pressure hydrant can be identified in which correct choice?

A:Painted all yellow

B:Painted all red

C: Body is painted black with yellow top

D: Body is painted black with silver top

A

A Explanation:
A- High pressure (160 psi)
B- Doesn’t exist at airports
C- Intermediate pressure (90 psi)
D- Low pressure (60 psi)
AUC 325 add 2 sec 4.2.1

39
Q

Question 39:
Which tool assignment listed below is incorrect for flat roof private dwellings?

A: 1st Roof Firefighter: Halligan, 6’ Halligan Hook, LSR (when necessary)

B:1st OV: Halligan and/or 6’ Hook & Saw

C: 2nd Roof: 6’ Halligan Hook & Saw

D: 2nd OV: Portable ladder, Halligan and/or 6’ Hook

A

B VExplanation:
B. Halligan and/or 6’ Hook & PORTABLE LADDER

Private Dwellings Ch 4: 7.1 & 7.2

40
Q

Question 40:

A newly assigned Captain was conducting a drill on the NYMAC interoperable (I/O) channels with members of his unit. Which statement made was incorrect?

A: A NYMAC I/O channel will be assigned without FDNY request for 2nd alarms or greater and pre-planned interagency events.

B:When using an I/O channel, the FDNY IC shall use the Box Number of the incident at the beginning of each transmission (e.g. Box 7184 in Queens) as simultaneous events may be taking place on the channel.

C: When a Communication Engine responds to an incident, they will determine if a NYMAC channel has already been established prior to their arrival. If not, the Communication Engine will establish a NYMAC channel and inform the IC once the channel has been activated by NYPD.

D: If a NYMAC channel is established by a Communication Engine, they will monitor the NYMAC channel. If established prior to the Communication Engine arrival, the Communication Engine could then assume monitoring of the NYMAC channel.

A

B Explanation:
When using an I/O channel, the FDNY IC shall use the NAME of the incident at the beginning of each transmission (e.g. 2nd alarm on Northern Blvd in Queens) as simultaneous events may be taking place on the channel.
Comm 14 Add 3 2.2.1-2.4