exam 27

Question 1

Question 1:
As with all other types of occupancies, size-up in private dwellings is essential to a successful operation. Which size-up factor mentioned below is incorrect?

A: Modern three family MDs are often built with three separate entrances that have no common area. These structures require private dwelling tactics due to their PD style design.

B: The main entrance is usually located in front of a PD, but sometimes it is located on the side as seen from the street. Secondary entrances can be located on the front, side and/or rear.

C:Open joist construction of cellar ceilings increases the potential for rapid spread of heat, smoke, and fire. Open lightweight construction with a sheetrock ceiling will lead to early collapse.

D: One or two offset windows on the exposure 2 or 4 side of a dwelling indicates that these are windows at the top and/or bottom of the second floor staircase. These offset windows should not be entered for VEIS.

Answer 1

c Explanation:
C. Open joist construction of cellar ceilings increases the potential for rapid spread of heat, smoke, and fire. Open lightweight construction (ABSENCE OF A SHEETROCK CEILING) will lead to early collapse.

Private Dwellings Ch 2: 2.4, 2.6, 2.7

Question 2

Question 2:
It shall be the responsibility of all Officers to exert every effort toward the prompt and effective relief of personnel who, at the change of tours, are operating at fires, emergencies, or are relocated. Relieving platoons shall be ready to leave quarters immediately after commencement of tour of duty. Such units shall leave promptly upon arrival of transportation. Relieving platoons can proceed on foot if the distance of the operation is within what distance listed below?

A:Within one-third mile of the location of operations

B: No option of proceeding on foot

C: Within two-thirds mile of the location of operations

D:Within one mile of the location of operations

Answer 2

a Explanation:
Unless specifically ordered, no company shall remain in quarters later than 09:30 or 1830 before proceeding to the location of operations or a relocated quarters
AUC 217 sec 2

Question 3

Question 3:
All chemical agents are heavier than air except?

A: sarin

B: lewisite

C:hydrogen cyanide

D: cyanogen chloride

Answer 3

c

Explanation:
All chemical agents, except hydrogen cyanide, are heavier than air.
ERP Add 2 p18

Question 4

Question 4:
Which of the following choices contains incorrect information regarding scanner/radio sets for use in quarters?

A: Scanners/radio sets assigned to quarters shall be kept at the housewatch desk to allow housewatch members to be aware of radio traffic in the borough.

B:Two scanner/radio sets shall be issued to each firehouse; one for the housewatch and one for the Company office.

C: FDNY housewatch sets (or substitute models) are issued for use in Battalion and Division offices and these sets are in addition to those located at the housewatch desk. Requests for additional sets in a given quarter may be forwarded via the Chain of Command to the Bureau of Communications.

D: Company Commanders responsible for company quarters may forward requests via the Chain of Command to the Bureau of Communications for a housewatch set for their quarters.

Answer 4

b Explanation:
One scanner/radio set shall be issued to each firehouse, except where there are two housewatch areas. “FDNY-issue” housewatch scanner/radio sets are NOT permitted in Company offices.
Comm 8 8.10

Question 5

Question 5:
Initial tactics at vacant building fires usually emphasize Engine Company operations because of an adapted slower, more cautious operation and a decreased emphasis on ventilation, entry, isolation, and search. Engine Companies should apply each of the following general tactics, except those found in which choice?

A:Due to heavy reliance on defensive operations at vacant building fires, all hose lines stretched should be considered 2 1/2” regardless of building type or occupancy.

B: Engine Companies shall be alert to the need for a 3 ½” hose line to supply a Tower Ladder, when consistent with operational needs. Whenever possible, a separate Engine shall be dedicated to the sole task of supplying water to a Tower Ladder.

C: Engine Companies may be ordered to stretch 2 ½” hose lines to exposures in order to operate exterior hose streams. Hoselines used from this defensive position shall be 2 ½” because of the need for increased reach and water flow.

D: To the extent that an IC’s size-up and risk assessment allow for an interior “wash down,” hose lines may be advanced within the fire building after a fire has been largely extinguished from the exterior and exterior streams have been shut down. Before committing members, however, the interior of the building shall be surveyed by a Chief Officer in order to assess its structural stability.

Answer 5

a

Explanation:
Members should stretch hose lines CONSISTENT with Department policies for EACH BUILDING TYPE (e.g., stretch a 1 ¾” hose line for a fire in a vacant rowframe building).
Vacant 6.1 A, B, E, F

Question 6

Question 6:
When operating at a tenement fire, the correct procedure can be found in which choice?

A: When checking for extension in the ceiling, open up the section of the ceiling remote from the fire area and work your way where the fire was most intense.

B:A boxed out protrusion containing a steel column in a OLT or NLT must be examined the entire length if it was involved in fire.

C: If the flooring is charred, the ceiling below should not be examined for fire extension.

D: A smoke condition at the apartment door on the floor above is enough reason to believe that fire has extended to this floor.

Answer 6

b

Explanation:
Ladders 3 p-61-62
A- Start at a point where the fire was most intense and working towards a clean area of ceiling space
C- If the flooring is charred, the ceiling below SHOULD BE examined for fire extension.
D- A smoke condition at the apartment door on the floor above is NOT enough reason to believe that fire has extended to this floor. High temperatures even only at ceiling level or a crackling sound heard within the apartment or a fiery glow seen through the smoke are all indications of fire extension and justify calling for a handline

Question 7

Question 7:
Utilizing hoselines plays a critical role in extinguishment efforts. In fact, there are certain guidelines FDNY members follow in order to accomplish these efforts. From the list below choose the incorrect guideline.

A: Unless the presence of a confirmed life hazard requires the immediate stretching of a second line, the second engine shall augment and assist the first engine

B: With the exception of the first due control firefighter, second due engine firefighters, assisting in stretching the first line, should strive to maintain their position assignment on the line

C:In a 2 1/2 story structure, where the amount of hose required is four lengths or less, the need to assist on the first hoseline is not as great and engine companies are generally capable of stretching and operating individually

D: If unable to make a direct attack through an apartment doorway due to a heavy volume of fire, another option is to gain entry into an adjoining apartment and make several small holes located along the length of the common wall at approximately waist level might allow stream penetration into a majority of the rooms in the fire apartment

Answer 7

c Explanation:
1 and 2 story structures.
This exact question was asked on a previous Lt Exam. The majority of users got it incorrect.
Engine Operations ch 8 p-3

Question 8

Question 8:
Primary markings made by FD units indicate hazardous conditions in vacant buildings. Which description below regarding how these markings are made is incorrect?

A: Markings shall be spray painted using lime-yellow reflective paint.

B:Square to be approximately 8” x 8”.

C: Lines to be 2” wide.

D: Primary markings shall be made alongside the front entrance of the building at a height that is in line with the area directly over the front entrance.

Answer 8

b Explanation:
Square to be approximately 18” x 18”.
Vacants 3.1

Question 9

Question 9:
When making a company journal entry, the entry shall be legible, distinct, contain full particulars, and abbreviations used with discretion in each of the following situations except?

A: Injured member in quarters

B:Returning to quarters from a response

C:Discipline of a member

D: Lost property reported

Answer 9

b Explanation:
Entries relating to injuries, deaths, accidents, medical leaves, disciplinary matters, lost property, complaints or investigations, shall be legible, distinct, contain full particulars, and abbreviations used with discretion consistent with significance of entry and need for full comprehension.
CJ p4

Question 10

Question 10:
Which of the following statements is INCORRECT regarding Tunnel to Tube Transition areas?

A:It is always the location of the last emergency exit and the last crossovers to the other adjacent tube until the other side of the river.

B: Members must recognize this construction feature as the entry/exit point to the tube.

C: This is the location where the square underground tunnel section connects to the round under river tube.

D: Section valves are located throughout under river tubes and are often found at the base of emergency exits.

Answer 10

a Explanation:
UNDERRIVER RAIL OPERATIONS
A – 2.4 – In most cases
B – 2.4
C – 2.4 figure 3A/B
D – 2.7.1 – Figure 8A/8B

Question 11

Question 11:
On transmission of the next higher alarm, which is part of signal 10-66, all of the following units shall be directed by the dispatcher to report to and remain at a Staging Area until ordered to the scene, except?

A:CFR Engine

B: Satellite Unit

C: Communications Unit

D: Decon Engine

Answer 11

a Explanation:
On transmission of the next higher alarm, which is part of signal 10-66, all units other than Rescue, Squad, SOC Support Ladder, FAST Unit, and CFR Engine, shall be directed by the dispatcher to report to and remain at a Staging Area until ordered to the scene (under the supervision of a Staging Area Manager).
MMID Ch 5 3.2

Question 12

Question 12:
Which of the following examples is CORRECT according to department policy for engine company operations involving the stretching and teaming of companies?

A: At a heavy fire on the 2nd floor of a 4-story MD involving a four length stretch and reports of people trapped, the 2nd due engine officer contacted the first for permission to stretch a second line.

B: At a heavy fire in a 2-story private dwelling, involving a six length stretch, the 2nd engine officer contacted the first for permission to stretch a second line.

C:At a heavy fire on the 8th floor of a High-Rise Fireproof MD involving a 2 length stretch, the 2nd engine officer contacted the first for permission to stretch a second line.

D:At a heavy fire on the 3rd & 4th floors of a 4-story Multiple Dwelling involving a six length stretch and multiple people trapped at windows, the 2nd engine officer contacted the first for permission to stretch a second line.

Answer 12

d Explanation:
ENGINE OPERATIONS CHAPTER 8,9
D IS CORRECT - 8.4 – Unless the presence of a confirmed life hazard requires the immediate stretching of a second line, the second engine shall augment and assist the first engine.
A – Incorrect – 8.7… In one and two story structures, where the amount of hose required is four lengths or less, the need to assist on the first hose line is not as great and engine companies are generally capable of stretching and operating individually. In such cases, the officer of the second engine company should make contact with the officer of the first engine company to ascertain if their assistance is required. 8.4 – Unless the presence of a confirmed life hazard requires the immediate stretching of a second line, the second engine shall augment and assist the first engine.
B – Incorrect – See A
C – Incorrect – 9.4.3 Due to the complexity of supplying and stretching from standpipe systems, the first and second arriving engine companies shall always operate together in order to ensure prompt and efficient placement of the first hoseline.

Question 13

Question 13:
Prior to operating, it is imperative that the Lobby Control Unit verify the location of the following. Which of the below posts is not listed?

A: Forward Triage Area

B:SAE Post

C: Forward Staging Area

D:Fire Sector

Answer 13

d Explanation:
ICS MANUAL – CHAPTER 2 – ADDENDUM 4 – LOBBY CONTROL UNIT
A – 4.2
B – 4.2
C – 4.2
D – 4.2 – Fire Floor not Fire Sector

Question 14

Question 14:
Ladder 199 is assigned to an all hands box as the fast truck for a fire in a 100x100 warehouse. Upon arrival, the company takes the following actions. Which is the only one that was CORRECT?

A:The officer of the FAST Unit and the IC announced their arrival on the scene over the handie-talkie.

B: The Battalion car was positioned near the front of the fire building, so the officer had the untrained EFAS FF monitor the Pak-Tracker & FAST Radio Board.

C: Once the Mayday was given, the untrained EFAS FF assisted the company with the recovery and removal of the downed member.

D: The FAST truck used two-sided approach where the search team made access via the interior and the removal team made access via the exterior of the building.

Answer 14

a Explanation:
MANAGING MEMBERS IN DISTRESS CHAPTER 2
A IS CORRECT – 4.1 – The officer of the FAST Unit shall announce their arrival on the scene over the handie-talkie and report to the ICP. NOTE – It also says in Chapter 1 section 3.2 - The Incident Commander shall announce the FAST unit’s arrival over the handie- talkie at the scene. On receipt of this announcement, the members performing the duties of the Safety Team shall return to their original assignments.
B – A member other than the member monitoring the EFAS will monitor the Pak-Tracker. SEC 8.
C – Whether EFAS trained or not, the FAST Unit member assigned to monitor EFAS and/or the FAST Radio shall remain in the Battalion vehicle, even if the FAST Unit is given an assignment, until relieved. 5.1
D – The FAST Unit shall remain intact and not split up when dealing with large commercial or complex buildings. 7.4

Question 15

Question 15:
Of the following choices regarding communications policy, which is correct?

A: An additional Ladder Company (above the Fast Truck) shall be assigned to a 10-75 when either one of the two initially assigned Ladder Companies report responding with 4 firefighters.

B: Dispatchers shall, when notified of complaints, overcrowding or unusual conditions related to places of public amusement and entertainment such as theaters, sports arenas, convention halls, dance halls, cabarets or similar occupancies, promptly notify the administrative Company Officer.

C: When notified that a company is responding understaffed (less than four firefighters), the dispatcher shall special call another unit (Engine for Engine, Ladder for Ladder, etc.) to respond in addition to the understaffed unit. Under this response policy, the total First Alarm response shall not exceed a total response of (5) Engine Companies and (5) Ladder Companies.

D:The dispatcher shall dispatch a minimum of two Engines, two Ladders and a Battalion Chief when a report is received for a fire or emergency for a bridge, tunnel, elevated or depressed vehicular highway, parkway or expressway for which there is no special alarm system box. No fewer than two units shall operate at an incident on an express highway or other potentially dangerous roadway.

Answer 15

d Explanation:
A. An additional Ladder Company (above the Fast Truck) shall be assigned to a 10-75 when BOTH of the two initially assigned Ladder Companies report responding with 4 firefighters.
Note: The additional Ladder Company shall be the 3rd Ladder Company, and the 4th Ladder Company shall be designated as the Fast Truck.
B. Dispatchers shall, when notified of complaints, overcrowding or unusual conditions related to places of public amusement and entertainment such as theaters, sports arenas, convention halls, dance halls, cabarets or similar occupancies, promptly notify the administrative BATTALION CHIEF.
Note: If unable to contact the administrative Battalion Chief, the administrative Deputy Chief shall be notified.
C. Under this response policy, the total First Alarm response shall not exceed a total response of (4) Engine Companies and (4) Ladder Companies.
Comm 6.4.7, 6.8.4, 6.9.1, 6.9.2

Question 16

Question 16:
At a fire operation, EMS tells you they have one orange-tagged victim. You would be correct to know that this individual would be designated a?

A: 10-45 code 1

B: 10-45 code 2

C:10-45 code 3

D: 10-45 code 4

Answer 16

c Explanation:
Deceased - Black - Code 1
Life Threatening Injury - Red - Code 2
Non-Life Threatening Injury - Orange/Yellow - Code 3
Non-Serious Injury/Ambulatory - Green - Code 4
Comm 8 10-45

Question 17

Question 17:
The First Responder’s Bridge Manual and First Responders Tunnel Manual are comprised of two stand-alone guides, a Field Guide and a Risk Management Executive Guide . What color is the Field Guide?

A: Red

B: White

C: Blue

D:Green

Answer 17

d Explanation:
*This question was asked on the last Capt exam and many got it wrong because they didn’t finish reading the question.
Used by first responders
Risk Management Executive Guide is red and used by the Command Chief
AUC 344

Question 18

Question 18:
CFRD certified Officers and firefighters working in ladder companies are only eligible for CFR differential under certain circumstances. Which of the following is not listed as acceptable criteria?

A:Operation of Defibrillation equipment

B:Administration of Oxygen

C: Stabilization of a patient’s spine/neck

D: Performance of a patient assessment or a head to toe survey

Answer 18

b Explanation:
PA/ID 3-98 CFRD PAY DIFFERENTIAL
A – Correct 2.2.1
B – Incorrect – Administration of CPR 2.2.1
C – Correct – 2.2.1
D – Correct 2.2.1

Question 19

Question 19:
At a 10-76 third alarm in the borough of Manhattan, due to increased radio traffic, the IC notifies all units that a tertiary tactical channel will be implemented. You would be most correct to know the recommended channel for this is?

A:2

B: 3

C: 6

D:8

Answer 19

d Explanation:
BOROUGH RECOMMENDED SECONDARY COMMAND CHANNEL and RECOMMENDED TERTIARY CHANNEL
Queens 4 5
Brooklyn 5 8
Manhattan 6 8
Bronx 7 6
Staten Island 8 4
Comm 12 7.1 d

Question 20

Question 20:
Company officers and firefighters, first at the scene, have an excellent opportunity to make observations that a Fire Marshal cannot be expected to make, especially when it comes to flammable accelerants used to start the fire. Flammable accelerant indicators include all of the following except?

A: Charring of the floor

B:High burn marks on the wall or door

C: Char in broken patterns or “puddle-like” circle burns on the floor

D: Heavy body of fire with little contents

Answer 20

b Explanation:
Low burn marks on the wall or under the door or on the lower part of the door
Training Bulletins Arson 1 sec 3.7

Question 21

Question 21:
Which level of chemical protective clothing offers “minimal skin and respiratory protection?”

A: Level A

B: Level B

C:Level C

D:Level D

Answer 21

c Explanation:
Level A: The highest level of skin and respiratory protection; positive pressure SCBA inside vapor-tight chemical clothing.
Level B: The highest level of respiratory protection, but a lower level of skin protection; positive pressure SCBA and a chemical ensemble that provides splash protection.
Level C: Minimal skin and respiratory protection.
Level D: Minimal protection and is used to guard against nuisance contamination only.
Structural firefighter protective clothing i.e. bunker gear is NOT classified as chemical protective clothing.
ERP 5.6

Question 22

Question 22:
The Department-issued Prehospital Care Report (PCR) is a three-part form and contains protected health information, which by law is confidential. Which of the following is an inaccurate statement in regard to documentation and recordkeeping of a Prehospital Care Report?

A:Part Three is the Hospital Patient Record Copy and if completed, is be given to the EMS Unit operating at the scene. If Part Three is not given to the EMS Unit, it shall be secured at Quarters with part Two in the Company files

B: Receiving a patient history from the patient is considered contact and a PCR is required

C: Part One, the original, is to be forwarded to the Office of Medical Affairs through the bag by the end of each tour

D: Part two is the Research Copy and is to be retained at Quarters and must be secured by the Company Officer in the Company files at all times

Answer 22

a Explanation:
CFR-D Manual Chapter 5 Documentation
A. 1.2.2 A
B. 1.1.1
C. 1.1.2
D. If Part Three is not given to the EMS Unit, it shall be forwarded with the original to OMA. 1.1.3

Question 23

Question 23:
When does “Rollover” occur in a fire?

A:The Growth Stage

B: The Fully Developed Stage

C: The Decay Stage

D: The Incipient Stage

Answer 23

a

Question 24

Question 24:
A test of the intercom system shall be made __ and at the initial stages of placing the Tower Ladder into operation.

A:Each tour

B: Daily

C: Weekly

D: Monthly

Answer 24

a Explanation:
**UPDATED IN NEW BULLETIN RELEASED 10/1/2019**
**IT IS NOW EACH TOUR NOT DAILY**

Tower Ladder Ch 1: 1.5 2nd Bullet

Question 25

Question 25:
When stretching a foam handline, the maximum number of lengths that can be used can be found in which correct choice?

A:Maximum 6 lengths of 1 3/4” or a maximum of 10 lengths of 2 1/2”

B: Maximum 10 lengths of 1 3/4” or a maximum of 6 lengths of 2 1/2”

C: Maximum 10 lengths of 1 3/4” or a maximum of 15 lengths of 2 1/2”

D: Maximum 10 lengths of 1 3/4” or a maximum of 10 lengths of 2 1/2”

Answer 25

a

Explanation:
Remember, the location for the eductor is at the pumper outlet ONLY. 200 psi at the eductor
Training Bulletins Foam Evolution 1 sec 2

Question 26

Question 26:
Engine 99 is assigned to a fire on the 49th Floor of an 80 story Mega Hi-Rise building. Which of the following is CORRECT about Engine operations in this situation?

A:The Engine Officer can implement high pressure pumping pending the arrival of a chief officer designated to supervise the operation.

B: 3rd Stage engines are the preferred choice for pumping operations over 600 psi.

C: Pressures exceeding 500 psi require the use of 3rd Stage engines.

D: Two supply lines can be connected to a single siamese during normal and high-pressure pumping operations, but not 3rd stage pumping operations.

Answer 26

a Explanation:
ENGINE OPERATIONS – CHAPTER 9 ADDENDUM 1
A is correct – 3.1 last bullet point pg 3.
B – Incorrect – 3rd stage preferred for pumping operations over 500 psi. 4.2
C – Incorrect – Pressures exceeding 600 psi require the use of 3rd stage engines. 4.1
D – Incorrect – When only one building siamese is available, stretch the second supply line to the first floor outlet. Do not connect two high-pressure supply lines to a single building siamese connection. 3.3

Question 27

Question 27:
How many turns does it take the wrench to shut down a hydrant when operating the hydrant street shut-off?

A: 12 turns clockwise

B: 12 turns counterclockwise

C: 17 turns clockwise

D:17 turns counterclockwise

Answer 27

d Explanation:
Training Bulletins Emergency 3 p-19

Question 28

Question 28:
Prior to the arrival of the FAST unit at an operation, the IC shall designate any of the following for possible assistance or rescue except?

A: Safety Team.

B: Companies in reserve or companies available for immediate reassignment.

C: Members available for immediate reassignment.

D:Any Chauffeurs or full duty/light duty aides.

Answer 28

d Explanation:
UNCOMMITTED chauffeurs or FULL DUTY aides.
ACRONYM: U SAFE
Uncommitted chauffeurs
Safety team
Available members
Full duty aides
Extra companies (in reserve)
MMID Ch 4 3.1

Question 29

Question 29:
You are giving a company drill on Hose, and its use during a fire, You were incorrect in which choice?

A: The date of issuance to unit is marked on the female coupling

B: Company and registry numbers are marked on the male coupling

C:The maximum pressure in hose lines should be limited to 200 psi

D: At a nozzle pressure of 50 psi, the 1 3/4 inch handline will flow approximately 180 gpm

Answer 29

c Explanation:
Engine Operations ch 7
A- 7.3.1
B- 7.3.1
C- 250 psi. Pressures in excess of 250 psi can only be ordered by the IC….7.5.1
D- 7.6.1

Question 30

Question 30:
Engine 99 responded as the 2nd due engine to a fire out the windows on the third floor of a 6-story multiple dwelling. Several actions were taken by the unit on arrival. Which action was INCORRECT according to their specific duties?

A:Upon arrival, the ECC positioned the apparatus at a hydrant and immediately proceeded to assist the first due ECC.

B: Signal 10-70 was transmitted so the 2nd engine took on the responsibilities as the Water Resource Unit.

C:Once water was established, the engine officer acted to provide a communication link between the first due engine on the fire floor and the IC.

D: For reasons of safety, the engine officer controlled the number of members on the fire floor and kept track of the members going above.

Answer 30

a Explanation:
ENGINE OPERATIONS CHAPTER 5
A – Incorrect – Position the apparatus at a hydrant and test it prior to assisting the 1st due engine. 5.7.3
B – Correct – 5.7.4
C – Correct – 5.7.2
D – Correct – 5.7.2

Question 31

Question 31:
Of the following Engine Company tactics, which is incorrect for a cellar/sub-cellar fire in a Mill or Cast-Iron Loft Building?

A: The first Engine Company should stretch the initial hoseline via the interior to the fire area; ensure there is enough hoseline to cover the anticipated fire area prior to advancing. If conditions prevent the initial hoseline from advancing down the interior stairs, notify the IC and remain at this position to prevent upward extension.

B: The second Engine Company shall assist the first Engine with the initial hoseline.

C:In a building protected by a sprinkler system servicing the fire area, if staffing and conditions permit, the second Engine Company shall have a supply line stretched to feed this system. If the second Engine has not supplied it, the third Engine Company shall stretch a supply line to feed this system.

D: The third Engine Company shall be assisted by the fourth Engine Company in stretching the second hoseline. If the first hoseline is unable to advance into the fire area, the second hoseline may need to gain an alternate access point into the fire area.

Answer 31

c Explanation:
In a building protected by a sprinkler system servicing the fire area, if staffing and conditions permit, the FIRST Engine Company shall have a supply line stretched to feed this system. If the first Engine has not supplied it, the SECOND Engine Company SHALL stretch a supply line to feed this system.
Loft 6.2.1

Question 32

Question 32:
When performing routine cleaning of personal protective equipment (PPE) the incorrect procedure can be found in which choice?

A: When cleaning the helmet, choose a utility sink that is specifically used for cleaning of protective clothing. Use a mild detergent and let helmet air dry in a well ventilated area, but not in direct sunlight

B:When cleaning the gloves, choose a utility sink that is specifically used for cleaning of protective clothing. Use a mild detergent and let gloves air dry; such as laying on top of a radiator

C: When cleaning the boots, choose a utility sink that is specifically used for cleaning of protective clothing. Use a mild detergent and let dry in a well ventilated area, but not in direct sunlight

D:When cleaning the bunker coat and pants, choose a utility sink that is specifically used for cleaning of protective clothing. Use a mild detergent; do not attempt to wring out clothing, air dry in a well ventilated area, but not in direct sunlight

Answer 32

b Explanation:
Do not lay gloves on radiators or dry them in hot air dryers.
AUC 310 add 1 p-1-4

Question 33

Question 33:
A member in distress planning to perform a single slide evolution from a window using the life saving rope (LSR) and personal harness to escape an untenable area would be correct to take all of the following actions except?

A:Transmit an URGENT on the handie-talkie when realizing the possible need to perform this action.

B: Identify their unit and position.

C: Specify their location for rope deployment.

D: While awaiting the LSR from above, fully clear the window of all obstructions.

Answer 33

a Explanation:
Transmit a MAYDAY on the handie-talkie when realizing the possible need to perform this action.
Evol 31 3.2

Question 34

Question 34:
When repairs to apparatus are needed, and the Department mechanic determines that unit cannot respond, the officer must promptly notify the dispatcher, Battalion Chief, and Deputy Chief. If the unit has not returned to service within ___ hour(s) of the original notification, the company officer must notify the Battalion and Deputy Chief.

A: 1

B:2

C: 3

D:4

Answer 34

b xplanation:
Regulations Ch 13 sec 13.3.7

Question 35

Question 35:
If a defendant refuses to accept a criminal court summons, what action should the issuing fire officer take?

A:Drop the summons in the direct vicinity of the defendant’s feet.

B: If the defendant refuses to open the door, affix it to the door using masking tape.

C: If the defendant rips the summons up, write another one and call the NYPD.

D: If the defendant leaves before you can serve the summons, you can leave it with the defendants 17 year old son.

Answer 35

a Explanation:
AUC 5, CH 3, ADD 3
A-9.1.3
B-9.1.3, Leave it in front of the door. NOTE: the only enforcement item we ever affix is the FDNY summons.
C-9.1.3, If they destroy it or throw it out, it was still properly served.
D-9.1.3, May le

Question 36

Question 36:
Officers should be familiar with actions required when members suffer an illness or injury. Of the following choices, which is incorrect?

A: The Medical Officer must be notified via FDOC for all injuries.

B:Illnesses not related to an exposure that prevent a member from continuing on duty (e.g., flu, food poisoning) need to be recorded in CIRS, and the Medical Officer must be notified.

C: A Non-Biological Exposure Report for a member who does not exhibit symptoms can be initiated without medical officer notification.

D: If a member exhibits symptoms from a biological or non-biological exposure, both an Injury and an Exposure Report must be completed.

Answer 36

b Explanation:
Illnesses not related to an exposure that prevent a member from continuing on duty (e.g., flu, food poisoning) do NOT need to be recorded in CIRS; HOWEVER, the Medical Officer MUST be notified.
SB 7 2.1, 2.2.2 Note, 3.5, 3.7

Question 37

Question 37:
Members arrive at the scene of a fire on the second floor of a 2 ½ story peaked roof private dwelling where the battalion will be delayed. There are windows bars on the first and second floor of the house. The IC (could be a Lt or Capt) takes the following actions. Which one is correct?

A: The IC special calls an additional ladder company only.

B: The special called truck must be a Tower Ladder.

C:The IC has the FAST unit remove the window bars on at least one window on the first and second floor.

D: The second line must remain as a backup line for the first hoseline.

Answer 37

c Explanation:
A. Special called an additional ENGINE AND LADDER. (Private Dwellings Ch 5: 1.2 C)
B. The special called ladder company shall be a tower ladder, IF ONE IS NOT ASSIGNED ON THE INITIAL ALARM. (Private Dwellings Ch 5: 1.2 C)
D. The second line stretched should back up the first line. IF NOT NEEDED, IT SHALL THEN GO TO THE FLOOR ABOVE. (Safety Bulletin 84: 4.5)
**2014 CAPTAINS EXAM**
**THIS QUESTION WAS PROTESTED AND STOOD**
NOTE C IS CORRECT AS WRITTEN THE FAST TRUCK MAY BE ASSIGNED THIS TASK:
“Have the FAST unit provide additional egress routes while still maintaining unit integrity, e.g., remove window bars, place portable ladders.” (Managing Members in Distress Ch 4: 4.1)

**DO NOT GIVE UP THE INCIDENT COMMANDER SECTIONS OF THE BOOKS WHEN STUDYING FOR COMPANY OFFICER**
Private Dwellings Ch 5: 1.2.C
Managing Member in Distress Ch 4: 4.1
Safety Bulletin 84: 4.5; 4.8

Question 38

Question 38:
Which “general tactic” in Cast-Iron and Mill Loft Buildings is not in accordance with Department policy?

A: The Ladder Company officer on the fire floor should transmit the fire conditions, layout and all pertinent features to the Incident Commander. Request additional assistance if the dimensions of the fire floor make it impractical for one ladder company to effectively and safely operate alone.

B: Large, open floor areas require all ladder companies carry search ropes and thermal imaging cameras.

C: Fire-vented windows, where wind is blowing the fire back into the fire occupancy, may require the deployment of KO curtain(s) and/or the fire window blanket.

D:Extensive overhaul is necessary in these buildings; particularly the underside of segmental arch floors. Floor collapse is not a consideration with these types of floors.

Answer 38

d

Explanation:
Indiscriminate overhauling on the underside of segmental arch floors can cause a localized collapse.
Loft 7.1.7, 7.1.12, 7.1.16, 7.1.19

Question 39

Question 39:
Which choice below contains incorrect information regarding the NYS Department of Labor’s Log and Summary of Occupational Injuries and Illnesses (SH-900 and SH-900.1 forms)?

A:The SH-900 (New York State Department of Labor – Log of Occupational Illnesses) case number of the unit (where member was working when injured) will be automatically entered by CIRS after the form is saved. The Officer is no longer required to record SH-900 information in the Office Record Journal.

B: The Summary SH-900.1 of all injuries and illnesses for the previous year must be posted on a notice board accessible to all employees.

C: If a Safety and Health inspector from the NYS Department of Labor enters a firehouse for an inspection and requests that the officer produce the Log of Work Related Injuries and Illness (SH 900), the SH 900.1, or SH 900.2 form, refer the inspector to the FDNY OSHA unit.

D:The SH-900.1 is required to be posted in the workplace from February 1st to April 1st, and is retrievable from CIRS.

Answer 39

d Explanation:
The SH-900.1 is required to be posted in the workplace from FEBRUARY 1st to APRIL 30th, and is retrievable from CIRS.
SB 7 Add 1

Question 40

Question 40:

Neutral Plane definition…The boundary layer in a structure fire where below it, air will be drawn into the structure, and above it, combustion gasses will be exhausted. The neutral plane can be an indicator of the stage the fire is in, and will __________ as the fire grows in intensity.

A:drop down towards the floor

B: move up towards the ceiling

C: be unclear

D: sharply diminish

Answer 40

Explanation:
Vent Glossary

a