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Microbiology > Exam 4 Study Guide (NO Chapter 16 & 20) > Flashcards

Exam 4 Study Guide (NO Chapter 16 & 20) Flashcards

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1
Q

all fungi are

A

chemoheterotrops

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2
Q

fungi tend to grow better at pH of

A

5

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3
Q

fungi can grow in low ________ content

A

moisture

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4
Q

fungi are also able to grow in high _____ and _____ concetrations

A

sugar, salt

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5
Q

fungi are able to resist ________ pressure

A

osmotic

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6
Q

fungi are able to metabolize complex

A

carbs

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7
Q

almost all molds are what type of respirator

A

aerobic

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8
Q

yeasts are what type of respirator

A

facultative anaerobes

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9
Q

molds and fleshy fungi have a body that is called

A

thallus

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10
Q

the thallus of molds and fleshy fungi consists of

A

hyphae filaments

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11
Q

mass of hyphae is called a

A

mycelium

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12
Q

septate hyphae

A

contains cross walls

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13
Q

coenocytic hypahe

A

do not contain septa

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14
Q

vegetative hyphae

A

obtain nutrients

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15
Q

aerial hyphae are involved with

A

reproduction

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16
Q

yeasts are non filamentous/filamentous and multicellular/unicellular

A

non filamentous and unicellular

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17
Q

filamentous fungi can reproduce _________ by fragmentation of their hyphae

A

asexually

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18
Q

fungi can reproduce sexually and asexually via the formation of

A

spores

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19
Q

spores involved with reproduction detach from parent and ___________ into a new mold

A

germinate

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20
Q

two types of reproduction in yeasts

A

budding and fission

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21
Q

zygomycota

A

conjugation fungi with coenocytic hyphae; they produce asexual sporangiospores and sexual zygospores (forms when nuclei of two similar cells fuse

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22
Q

microsporidia

A

obligate intracellular parasites with no mitochondria and sexual reproduction probably occurs in a host (hasn’t been observed)

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23
Q

Ascomycota

A

sac fungi with septate hyphae. They can be teleomorhic but some are anamorphic. Asexual spores are known as conidiospores, and sexual spores are called ascospores (nuclei that are morphologically similar or dissimilar rise in a saclike ascus)

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24
Q

basidimycota

A

club fungi with septate hyphae that are formed externally on a base pedestal called a basidium. produced asexually are called conidiophores, produced sexually called basidiospore

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25
Q

teleomorphic

A

produce sexually and asexually

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26
Q

anamorphic

A

produce only asexually

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27
Q

define mycorrhizae

A

symbiotic fungi that help plants to absorb minerals and water through roots

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28
Q

describe the difference between budding yeasts and fission yeasts

A

budding yeasts divide unevenly while fission yeasts divide evenly

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29
Q

what are dimorphic fungi

A

refer to fungi that are able to exhibit two forms of growth either yeastlike or mold like, these are temperature dependent and at 37 degrees C they are yeastlike while 25 degree C they are moldlike

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30
Q

teleomorphic fungi

A

able to produce sexual and asexual spores

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31
Q

Anamorphic fungi

A

have lost the ability to sexually reproduce and only reproduce asexually

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32
Q

systemic mycoses

A

occur deep within the body, spores that are typically found in the soil are transmitted through inhalation (first infect the lungs and then spread to other body tissues)

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33
Q

subcutaneous mycoses

A

occur beneath the skin and are usually acquired by gardeners or farmers (spores or fragments enter through a puncture wound in the skin)

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34
Q

cutaneous mycoses

A

affect hair, skin and nails

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35
Q

superficial mycoses

A

localized (hair shafts and superficial epidermal tissue, these are prevalent in tropical climates)

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36
Q

opportunistic mycoses

A

caused by fungi that are usually harmless in their normal habitat but can become pathogenic in a compromised host

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37
Q

lichen is a mutualistic organism that is a combination of

A

green algae and fungus

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38
Q

lichen is classified based on the

A

fungus

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39
Q

in a lichen the alga produces and secretes

A

carbs

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40
Q

in a lichen the fungus provides

A

holdfast

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41
Q

in a lichen the _______ protects the ____ from desication

A

fungus, algae

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42
Q

lichens are characterized by three different morphoglical types

A

crustose, foliose, fruticose

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43
Q

the thallus of lichens is made of a __________ composed of _________ that grow around algal cells

A

medulla, hyphae

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44
Q

in a lichen the hyphae projections below the body serve as host fasts that are known as

A

rhizines

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45
Q

in lichen a protective coating called the ________ covers the algal layer

A

cortex

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46
Q

lichens seen as food for

A

herbivores

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47
Q

lichens can survive where

A

fungi or algae could not survive alone

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48
Q

some significant roles in nature of algae

A

able to fix CO2 into organic molecules
produce 80% of earths O2
many are symbionts of animals
able to produce algal blooms

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49
Q

brown algae are they multicellular or unicellular

A

multicellular

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50
Q

what do brown algae have in their cell walls

A

cellulose and alginic acid

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51
Q

brown algae grow fast or slow

A

fast

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52
Q

red algae have __________ thalli

A

branched

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53
Q

red algae are most unicellular or multicellular

A

multicellular

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54
Q

why can red algae inhabit greater depths of the ocean

A

they can absorb blue light

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55
Q

red algae can be harvested for

A

agar, human food (produced by Gracilaria)

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56
Q

green algae are they multi or unicellular

A

both

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57
Q

green algae contain chlorphyll

A

a and b

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58
Q

green algae have what in the cell walls

A

cellulose

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59
Q

green algae store

A

starch

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60
Q

green algae are thought to give rise to

A

terrestrial plants

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61
Q

Diatoms are unicellular or

A

filamentous

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62
Q

Diatoms have what in their cell walls

A

pectin, silica cell walls

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63
Q

Diatoms are able to store

A

oil

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64
Q

Diatoms are able to produce

A

domoic acid

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65
Q

Diatoms domoic acid produce

A

neurological disease

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66
Q

dinoflagellates also known as

A

plankton

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67
Q

dinoflagellates are free floating organisms that are unicellular or multicellular

A

unicellular

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68
Q

dinoflagellates contain what in plasma membrane

A

cellulose

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69
Q

some dinoflagellates neurotoxins called __________ which clue paralytic shellfish poisoning

A

saxitoxins

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70
Q

Oomycota also known as _____ molds

A

water

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71
Q

Oomycota are _____heterotropic with _______ in the cell walls

A

chemo, cellulose

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72
Q

Oomycota produce

A

zoospores

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73
Q

oomycota are __________ and ______ __________

A

decomposer, plant parasites

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74
Q

protozoa are unicellular/multicellular and eukaryotic/prokaryotic

A

unicellular eukaryotic

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75
Q

protozoa inhabit

A

soil and water

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76
Q

protozoa feeding and growing form is known as

A

trophozoite

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77
Q

protozoa asexual reproduction is by

A

fission, budding, schizogony

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78
Q

protozoa sexual reproduction is by

A

conjugation

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79
Q

some protozoa produce _____ in order to survive adverse conditions

A

cysts

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80
Q

protozoa require a large supply of _______

A

water

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81
Q

protozoa have an outer protective pellicle requiring specialized structures to take in

A

food

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82
Q

ciliates wave cilia toward moutlike

A

cytosome

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83
Q

amebae ___________ food

A

phagocytize

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84
Q

in amebae food is digested in ___________ and wastes eliminated through an anal pore

A

vacuoles

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85
Q

excavata include those with characteristic

A

feeding grooves

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86
Q

excavata include

A

diplomonads, parabasalids, euglenoids

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87
Q

diplomonads

A

no mitochondria
multiple flagella

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88
Q

parabasalids

A

undulating membrane
no cyst stage

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89
Q

euglenoids

A

photoautotrophs/facultative chemotrophs
include: hemoflagellates

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90
Q

hemoflagellate can be transmitted by

A

bites of blood feeding insects

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91
Q

amebae move by

A

extending pseudopods

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92
Q

apicomplexa

A

non motile
obligate intracellular parasites
complex life cycles

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93
Q

ciliates

A

move by short projections

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94
Q

helminths include

A

free living and parasitic worms

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95
Q

platyhelminths

A

flatworms

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96
Q

nematodes

A

roundoworms

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97
Q

platyhelminths include

A

trematodes, cestodes

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98
Q

trematodes or flukes

A

flat and leaf shaped with a ventral and oral sucker
able to absorb food through a cuticle

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99
Q

cestodes also known as

A

tapeworms

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100
Q

cestodes have a _________ or headscolex

A

scolex

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101
Q

cestodes scolex have

A

sucker for attachment

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102
Q

cestodes scolex absorb food through a

A

cuticle

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103
Q

cestodes contain body segements called

A

proglottids

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104
Q

cestodes proglottids contain

A

male and female reproductive organs

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105
Q

Nematoda also known as

A

roundworms

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106
Q

roundworms are ____________ shape

A

cylindrical

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107
Q

do roundworms have a complete or incomplete digestive system

A

complete

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108
Q

roundworms are dioecious which means

A

the Nematoda contains male spicule for guiding sperm

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109
Q

cellular slime molds resemble

A

ameba

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110
Q

cellular slime molds ingest

A

fungi and bacteria

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111
Q

how do cellular slime molds ingest food

A

phagocytosis

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112
Q

cellular slime mold cells aggregate to form _____ and ______ _____that differentiate into spores

A

stalks, spore caps

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113
Q

plasmodial slime molds are a mass of __________ with multiple _____

A

protoplasm, nuclei

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114
Q

plasmodial slime molds are able to move as

A

giant ameba

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115
Q

what is able to conduct cytoplasmic streaming

A

plasmodial slime molds

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116
Q

cytoplasmic streaming is when the protoplasm moves and changes ________ and __________ to distribute ________ and _________

A

speed, directions, oxygen, nuttients

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117
Q

how are parasitic helminths specialized in order to live within their hosts

A

may lack digestive system
reduced nervous system
reduced or lacking locomotion
complex reproductive system

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118
Q

what is the organism responsible for causing granulomatous amebic encephalitis

A

balamuthia

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119
Q

fungi hyphae filaments

A

mycelium, setate, coenocytic

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120
Q

mycelium

A

mass of hyphae

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121
Q

septate hyphae

A

contains cross walls

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122
Q

coenocytic hyphae

A

do not contain cross walls

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123
Q

vegetative hyphae

A

obtain nutrients

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124
Q

aerial hyphae

A

involved with reproduction

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125
Q

when do dimorphic fungi grow like yeasts

A

37 C

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126
Q

when do dimorphic fungi grow like mold

A

25 C

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127
Q

asexual spores are produced via

A

mitosis and cell division

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128
Q

2 types of asexual spores

A

conidospore
sporangiospore

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129
Q

condiospore

A

not enclosed in a sac

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130
Q

sporangiospore

A

enclosed in a sac at the end of aerial hypha

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131
Q

sexual spore in the fusion of nuclei from

A

two opposite mating strains

132
Q

3 phases of sexual spores

A

plasmogamy
karyogamy
meisosis

133
Q

plasmogamy

A

haploid donor cell nucleus (+) penetrates cytoplasm of recipient cell (-)

134
Q

karyogamy

A

+ and - nuclei fuse and form diploid zygote

135
Q

meiosis

A

diploid nucleus produces haploid nuclei (sexual spores)

136
Q

zygomycota

A

conjugative fungi
coenocytic hyphae
produce asexual and sexual

137
Q

zygomycota asexual

A

sporangiospore

138
Q

zygomycota sexual

A

zygospore

139
Q

microsporida

A

no sexual reproduction is observed but probably occurs in host
no mitochondria or micotubules
obligate intracellular parasites

140
Q

ascomycota

A

sac fungi
septate hyphae
telomorphic and anamorphic
sexual and asexual

141
Q

ascomycota sexual

A

ascospore

142
Q

ascomycota asexual

A

condiospore

143
Q

basidomycota

A

form mushrooms
club fungi
septate hyphae
sexual and asexual

144
Q

basidomycota asexual

A

condiospores

145
Q

basidomycota sexual

A

basidospores

146
Q

basidospores are formed externally on a base pedestal called

A

basidum

147
Q

telomorphs

A

able to reproduce sexual and asexual

148
Q

anamorphs

A

ascomycetes that have lost the ability to reproduce sexually

149
Q

mycosis

A

fungal infection

150
Q

5 types of mycosis

A

systemic
subcutaneous
cutaneous
superficial
opportunistic

151
Q

systemic mycoses

A

deep within body

152
Q

subcutaneous mycoses

A

beneath skin

153
Q

cutaneous mycoses

A

affect hair, skin and nails

154
Q

superficial mycoses

A

localized

155
Q

opportunistic mycoses

A

fungi harmless in normal habitat but pathogenic in compromised host

156
Q

what are some economic effects

A

bread, wine, hep B, citric acid, cellulase, kills termites

157
Q

3 ways lichens grow

A

crustose
foliose
fructose

158
Q

crustose

A

encrusted on the substratum

159
Q

foliose

A

leaf life

160
Q

fruticose

A

finger like

161
Q

lichen thallus is made of

A

medulla
rhizine
cortex

162
Q

lichen medulla

A

hyphae grown around algal cells

163
Q

lichen rhizine

A

hyphae projection below the body

164
Q

lichen cortex

A

protective coating over algal layer

165
Q

lichens are normally the first _______ to colonize newly exposed ____ or ____

A

lifeforms, soil, rock

166
Q

lichens secrete _______ acids that chemically weather rock

A

organic

167
Q

algae in lichen produce and secrete

A

carbs

168
Q

fungus in lichen provides

A

holdfasts

169
Q

algae are ____________ that lack roots, stems, leaves of plants

A

photoautotrophs

170
Q

algae location depend on

A

nutrient availability
wavelength of light
surfaces on which they can attach

171
Q

algae thallus

A

body of large multicellular algae

172
Q

holdfasts are for

A

attachment

173
Q

all alge reproduce

A

asexually

174
Q

what gives dinoflagellates a rigid structure

A

cellulose in plasma membrane

175
Q

oomycota are

A

chemoheterotrophic

176
Q

protozoa schizogony

A

multiple fission

177
Q

dioecious

A

separate male and female

178
Q

monoecious

A

male and female reproductive systems in one animal

179
Q

life cycle of parasites

A

egg, larva, adult

180
Q

humans as definitive hosts

A

eggs from proglottids are ingested, hatch into larvae and bore into intestinal wall

181
Q

humans as intermediate hosts

A

eggs are ingested and hatch in the intestine
larvae migrate to the liver or lungs and develop a hydatid cyst

182
Q

eggs infective for humans

A

raccoon roundworm
whipworm
pinworm

183
Q

larvae infective for humans

A

heart worm
reemerging infection

184
Q

arthropods

A

animals with segmented bodies, hard external skeletons and jointed legs

185
Q

vectors

A

arthropods that carry pathogenic microorganisms

186
Q

arachnida

A

eight legs

187
Q

crustacea

A

four antenae

188
Q

insecta

A

six legs

189
Q

pathology

A

study of disease

190
Q

etiology

A

cause of a disease

191
Q

infection

A

invasion/colonization of the body by a pathogen

192
Q

disease

A

abnormal state in which the body is not preforming normal functions

193
Q

when does human microbe begins to establish

A

utero

194
Q

how do more microorganism become acquired into the microbe

A

people, food, pets

195
Q

normal microbe

A

permently colonize the host and do not cause disease under normal conditions

196
Q

transient microbe

A

may be present for days, weeks, months and then disappear

197
Q

commensalism

A

one organism benefits and other is unaffected

198
Q

mutualism

A

both organism benefit

199
Q

parasitism

A

one organism benefits at the expense of the other

200
Q

microbial antagonism

A

competition between microbes

201
Q

kochs postulates

A

same pathogen must be present in every case of disease
pathogen must be isolated from the disease host and grown in pure culture
pathogen from pure culture must cause the disease in lab animal
pathogen must be isolated from the inoculated animal and must be shown to be original organism

202
Q

what are kochs postulates used to prove

A

cause of infectious disease

203
Q

exceptions to kochs postulates

A

some pathogens cause several disease conditions
some pathogens cause disease in only humans
some microbes have never been cultured

204
Q

incidence is the

A

number of people who develop a disease during a particular time period

205
Q

incidence is the indicator of

A

spread of the disease

206
Q

prevalence

A

number of people who develop the disease at a specified time, regardless of when it first appeared

207
Q

prevalence is the indicator of

A

how seriously and how long a disease affects a population

208
Q

what one takes in account old and new cases, prevalence or incidence

A

prevalence

209
Q

terms that describe occurrence of a disease

A

sporadic
endemic
epidemic
pandemic

210
Q

sporadic

A

disease that occurs occasionally

211
Q

endemic

A

disease that is constantly present in a population

212
Q

epidemic

A

disease acquired by many people in a given area in a short time

213
Q

pandemic

A

worldwide epidemic

214
Q

terms describing the severity/duration of a disease

A

acute
chronic
subacute
latent

215
Q

acute

A

symptoms develop rapidly but the disease lasts only a short time

216
Q

chronic

A

symptoms develop slowly

217
Q

subacute

A

intermediate between acute and chronic

218
Q

latent

A

causative agent ins inactive for a long time but then activates and produces symptoms

219
Q

herd immunity

A

immunity in most of a population

220
Q

predisposing factor

A

makes the body more susceptible to disease

221
Q

steps to the development of disease

A

incubation
prodromal
period of illness
period of decline
period of convalescence

222
Q

incubation

A

interval between initial infection and first signs and symptoms

223
Q

prodromal

A

short period after incubation; early, mild symptoms

224
Q

period of illness

A

disease is most severe

225
Q

period of decline

A

signs and symptoms subside

226
Q

period of convalescnce

A

body returns to its predeceased state

227
Q

3 reservoirs of infection

A

human
animal
nonliving

228
Q

human reservoirs

A

carriers may have inapparent infections or latent diseases

229
Q

animal reservoirs

A

zoonoses are diseases transmitted from animals to humans

230
Q

nonliving reservoirs

A

soil and water

231
Q

3 ways of transmission

A

contact transmission
vehicle
vector

232
Q

types of contact transmission

A

direct contact
congenital transmission
indirect contact transmission
droplet transmission

233
Q

direct contact transmission

A

requires close association between the infected and a suseptible host

234
Q

example of direct contact transmission

A

kissing

235
Q

congenital transmission

A

transmission to mother to fetus or newborn at birth

236
Q

indirect contact transmissions

A

spreads to host by a nonliving object called a fomite

237
Q

example of indirect contact transmission

A

stethoscopes

238
Q

droplet transmission

A

transmission via airborne droplets that travel very short distances

239
Q

example of droplet transmission

A

sneezing

240
Q

vehicle transmission types

A

airborne
waterborne
foodborne

241
Q

vector transmission

A

arthropods, especially fleas, ticks, and mosquitos

242
Q

2 types of vector transmission

A

mechanical and biological

243
Q

mechanical transmission

A

arthropod carries pathogen on its feet

244
Q

biological transmission

A

pathogen reproduces in the vector, transmitted via bites, feces

245
Q

what vector type is a passive process

A

mechanical

246
Q

what vector type is an active process

A

biological

247
Q

standard precautions

A

basic minimum practices

248
Q

transmitted based precautions

A

supplemental to standard precautions; designed for known or suspected infections

249
Q

emerging infectious diseases

A

diseases that are new, increasing in incidence, or showing a poetical increase in the near future

250
Q

contributing factors to emerging infectious diseases

A

genetic recombination
evolution of new strains
widespread use of antibiotics
changes in weather
modern transportation
insect vectors

251
Q

epidemiology

A

study of where and when diseases occur and how they are transmitted in populations

252
Q

epidemiologists

A

determine etiology of a disease
identify other important factors concerning the spread
develop methods for controlling the disease
assemble data and graphs to outline incidence of a disease

253
Q

descriptive epidemiology

A

collection of analysis of data

254
Q

experimental epidemiology

A

involves a hypothesis and controlled experiments
clinical trial: test and control group

255
Q

analytical epidemiology

A

analyzes a particular disease to determine its probable cause

256
Q

John snow
mapped the occurrence of cholera in London
what type of epidemiology is this?

A

descriptive

257
Q

Ignaz Semmelweis
showed that hand washing decreased the incidence of puerperal sepsis
what type of epidemiology is this

A

experimental

258
Q

Florence Nighingale
showed that improved sanitation decreased the incidence of epidemic typhus
what type of epidemiology is this

A

analytical

259
Q

pathogenicity

A

the ability to cause disease by overcoming host defenses

260
Q

virulence

A

degree of pathogenicity

261
Q

examples of portals of entry

A

mucous membranes
skin
parental route

262
Q

mucous membranes include the

A

GI tract
respiratory tract
genitourinary tract
conjuctiva

263
Q

parental route is when it is deposited directly into tissues when barriers are

A

penetrated

264
Q

examples of parental route

A

bites, cuts, punctures, injections, surgery, splitting of skin

265
Q

ID50

A

infectious dose for 50% of a sample population

266
Q

LD50

A

lethal dose for 50% of a sample population

267
Q

what does ID50 measure

A

virulence of a microbe

268
Q

what does LD50 measure

A

potency of a toxin

269
Q

adherence

A

process in which almost all pathogens attach to host tissues

270
Q

adhesions

A

on the pathogen that bind to receptors on host cells

271
Q

where could adhesions bind to

A

glycocalyx
fimbriae
pili
flagella

272
Q

microbes form biofilms that secrete

A

glycocalyax

273
Q

capsules

A

glycocalax around the cell

274
Q

why do capsules increase virulence

A

impair phagocytosis

275
Q

coagulase

A

coagulate fibrinogen

276
Q

kinases

A

digest fibrin clots

277
Q

hyaluronidase

A

digests polysaccharides that hold cells together

278
Q

collagenase

A

breaks down collagen

279
Q

IgA protease

A

destroy IgA

280
Q

antigenic variation

A

pathogens alter their surface antigens and antibodies are rendered ineffective

281
Q

invasions

A

surface protein produced by bacteria that rearrange actin filaments of the cytoskeleton

282
Q

invasions cause membrane

A

ruffling

283
Q

biofilm bacteria is more resistant to phagocytosis how?

A

shielded by extracellular polymeric substance (EPS) of biofilm

284
Q

microorganism can damage host cells by 4 ways

A

using hosts nutrients
causing direct damage
producing toxins
induing hypersensitivity

285
Q

example of microorganism using the host nutrients

A

siderophores

286
Q

siderophores

A

proteins secreted by pathogen that bind iron more tightly than host

287
Q

ways microorganism cause direct damage

A

disrupts host cell function
uses host cell nutrients
produces waste products
multiplies in host cells and cause rupture

288
Q

toxins

A

poisonous substance produced by microogranisms

289
Q

toxigenicity

A

ability of a microorganism to produce a toxin

290
Q

intotoxications

A

causes by the presence of a toxin

291
Q

toxemia

A

presence of toxin in the hosts blood

292
Q

exotoxins, protein or lipid

A

protein

293
Q

exotoxins are secreted by what type of bacteria

A

gram pos or neg

294
Q

exotoxins A-B toxins contain

A

enzyme component (A)
binding component (B)

295
Q

are exotoxins soluble in bodily fluids

A

yes

296
Q

are exotoxins disease specific

A

yes

297
Q

do exotoxins or bacteria produce the specific signs and symptoms of the disease

A

exotoxins

298
Q

antitoxins

A

antibodies against specific exotoxins

299
Q

toxoids

A

inactivated exotoxins used in vaccines

300
Q

genotoxins

A

damage DNA

301
Q

membrane disrupting toxins

A

lyse host cells by disrupting plasma membrane

302
Q

superantigens

A

cause an intense immune response due to release of cytokines from host cells

303
Q

are endotoxins protein or lipid

A

lipid

304
Q

endotoxin lipid portion

A

lipid A

305
Q

where is lipid A located

A

LPS of gram neg bacteria

306
Q

endotoxins do they cause the same signs and symptoms no matter the disease

A

yes but they don’t all produce effects to same degree

307
Q

when are endotoxins released

A

bacterial multiplication or when a gram neg dies

308
Q

endotoxins stimulate macrophages to release

A

cytokines

309
Q

endotoxins cause

A

DIC or shock

310
Q

limulus amebocyte lysate is used to test for

A

endotoxins

311
Q

limulus amebocyte lysate is the blood of

A

horseshoe crabs

312
Q

plasmids

A

may carry genes for toxins, production of antibiotics, enzymes

313
Q

lysogenic conversion

A

changes characteristics of a microbe due to incorporation of a prophage

314
Q

CPE (cytopathic effects)

A

visible effects of viral infection on cell

315
Q

examples of CPE

A

stopping cell synthesis
using cell lysosomes to release enzyme
fussing cells to create a syncytium
loss of contact inhbititon

316
Q

alpha and beta protect the host cells __________ cells from viral infection

A

neighboring

317
Q

2 ways alpha and beta work to prevent the spread

A

inhibit synthesis of viral proteins in host cell proteins
kill virus infected host cells by apoptosis

318
Q

fungi ergot

A

alkaloid toxins that cause hallucinations

319
Q

fungi alfatotoxins

A

carcinogen toxin

320
Q

mycotoxin

A

neurotoxins produced by mushrooms

321
Q

protozoa avoid host defenses by

A

digesting cells and tissue fluids
growing in phagocytes
antigenic variation

322
Q

most common portals of exit

A

respiratory and GI tract

323
Q

examples of portals of exit of respiratory

A

coughing and sneezing

324
Q

examples of portals of exit GI tract

A

feces and salvia

325
Q

examples of portals of exit genitourinary tract

A

urine, secretions from gentials

326
Q

examples of portals of exit skin infections

A

drainage from wounds

327
Q

examples of portals of exit blood

A

arthropods that bite
needles, syringes

Microbiology (20 decks)

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