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Microbiology > Chapter 14 > Flashcards

Chapter 14 Flashcards

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Biology 101 flashcards
1
Q

pathology

A

study of diseases

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2
Q

etiology

A

cause of a disease

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3
Q

pathogenesis

A

development of disease

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4
Q

infection

A

invasion or colonization of the body by pathogens

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5
Q

disease

A

abnormal state in which the body is not preforming normal functions

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6
Q

the human microbiome begins to established in the

A

utero

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7
Q

you get microorganisms acquired from

A

food, people, pets

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8
Q

human microbiome project

A

analyzes relationship between microbial communities on the body and human health

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9
Q

normal microbiota/flora

A

permanently colonize the host and do not cause disease under normal conditions

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10
Q

transient microbiota

A

may be present for days, weeks, or months and then disappear

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11
Q

distribution and composition of normal microbiota are determined by many factors, what are some of these factors

A

nutrients, physical and chemical factors, host defenses, mechanical factors

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12
Q

microbial antagonism (competitive exclusion)

A

is a competition between microbes

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13
Q

normal microbiota protect the host by

A

competing for nutrients
producing substances harmful to invading microbes
affecting pH and available oxygen

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14
Q

when the balance between normal microbiota and pathogenic is upset what can result

A

disease

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15
Q

the relationship between normal microbiota and host display what type of relationship

A

symbiosis

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16
Q

symbiosis

A

the realationship between normal microbiota and the host

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17
Q

commensalism symbiosis

A

one organism benefits, and the other is unaffected

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18
Q

Mutualism symbiosis

A

both organisms benefit

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19
Q

parasitism symbiosis

A

one organism benefits at the expense of the other

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20
Q

opportunistic pathogens

A

do not cause harm under normal conditions but if there is a change in immunity of health of the host these can cause disease

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21
Q

Kochs Postulates
1. the same __________ must be present in every case of the disease
2. the pathogen must be ________ from the diseased host and grown in pure culture
3. the pathogen from the pure culture must cause the _________ when its inoculated into a healthy susceptible lab animal
4. the pathogen must be isolated from the inoculated animal and must be shown to be the _________ ___________

A

pathogen, isolated, disease, original organism

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22
Q

Kochs postulates are used to prove the cause of an

A

infectious disease

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23
Q

some exceptions to kochs postulates

A

some pathogens can cause several disease conditions
some pathogens cause disease only in humans
some microbes have never been cultured

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24
Q

symptoms

A

changes in body function that are felt by the patient as a result of disease

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25
Q

signs

A

changes in a body that can be measured or observed as a result of disease

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26
Q

can symptoms be measured by observer

A

no, signs can be measured though

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27
Q

examples of signs

A

fever, lesions, edema

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28
Q

syndrome

A

specific group of signs and symptoms that accompany a disease

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29
Q

communicable disease

A

disease that is spread from one host to another

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30
Q

contagious disease

A

disease that are easily and rapidly spread from one host to another

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31
Q

noncommunicable disease

A

disease that is not spread from one host to another

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32
Q

incidence

A

number of people who develop a disease during a particular time period

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33
Q

incidence is the indicator of the

A

spread of the disease

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34
Q

prevalence

A

number of people who develop a disease at a specific time, regardless of when it first appeared

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35
Q

prevalence takes into account

A

new and old cases

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36
Q

prevalence is an indicator of

A

how seriously and how long a disease affects a population

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37
Q

sporadic disease

A

disease that occurs only occasionally

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38
Q

endemic disease

A

disease constantly present in a population

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39
Q

epidemic disease

A

disease acquired by many people in a given area in a short time

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40
Q

pandemic disease

A

worldwide epidemic

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41
Q

acute disease

A

symptoms develop rapidly but the disease lasts only a short time

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42
Q

chronic disease

A

symptoms develop slowly

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43
Q

subacute disease

A

intermediate between acute and chronic

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44
Q

latent disease

A

causative agent is inactive for a time but then activates and produces symptoms

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45
Q

herd immunity

A

immunity in most of a population

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46
Q

where there is herd immunity outbreaks are limited to

A

sporadic cases because there is not enough susceptible individuals to support the spread to epidemic proportions

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47
Q

local infections

A

pathogens are limited to a small area of the body

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48
Q

systemic (generalized) infection

A

an infection throughout the body

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49
Q

focal infection

A

infection that began as local infection but is able to enter the blood or lymph vessels and spread to another specific region of the body

50
Q

spepsis

A

toxic inflammatory condition arising from the spread of microbes, especially bacteria or their toxins, from a focus of infection

51
Q

bacteremia

A

bacteria in the blood

52
Q

septicemia

A

also known as blood poisoning, growth of bacteria in the blood

53
Q

toxemia

A

toxins in the blood

54
Q

viremia

A

viruses in the blood

55
Q

primary infection

A

acute infection that causes the initial illness

56
Q

secondary infection

A

opportunistic infection after a primary (predisposing) infection

57
Q

subclinical disease

A

no noticeable signs or symptoms (inapparent infection)

58
Q

predisposing factors

A

make the body more susceptible to disease

59
Q

examples of predisposing factors

A

gender
genes
climate
lack of vaccination
fatigue
age
lifestyle
nutrition
medications like chemotherapy

60
Q

is the development of a disease similar in acute and chronic?

A

yes

61
Q

incubation period

A

interval between initial infection and first signs and symptoms

62
Q

prodromal period

A

short period after incubation; early, mild symptoms

63
Q

period of illness

A

disease is most severe

64
Q

period of decline

A

signs and symptoms subside

65
Q

period of convalescence

A

body returns to its predeceased state

66
Q

reservoirs of infection are __________ sources of infection

A

continual

67
Q

human reservoirs

A

carriers may have inapparent infections or latent diseases

68
Q

animal reservoirs

A

zoonoses are diseases transmitted from animals to humans

69
Q

nonliving reservoirs

A

soil and water

70
Q

3 types of transmission of a disease

A

contact
vehicle
vector

71
Q

types of contact transmission

A

direct contact
congenital
indirect contact
droplet

72
Q

direct contact transmission

A

requires close association between the infected and susceptible host (EX: kissing)

73
Q

congenital transmission

A

transmission from mother to fetus or newborn at birth

74
Q

indirect contact transmission

A

spreads to a host by a nonliving thing called a FOMITE (EX: stethoscopes)

75
Q

droplet transmission

A

transmission via airborne droplets that travel very short distances (EX: sneezing)

76
Q

3 types of vehicle transmission

A

airborne, waterborne, foodborne

77
Q

vehicle transmission is by an _________ reservoir

A

inanimate

78
Q

airborne

A

spread of infectious agents by droplet nuclei in dust that are capable of traveling more than one than one meter from reservoir to host due to their small size

79
Q

waterborne

A

pathogens are spread by water that is usually contaminated with untreated or poorly treated sewage

80
Q

foodborne

A

pathogens are transmitted through foods that haven’t been cooked all the way, poorly stored, prepped under unsanitary conditions, can occur via cross contamination

81
Q

vectors arthropods examples

A

fleas, ticks, mosquitoes

82
Q

vectors transit disease by what 2 methods

A

mechanical, biological

83
Q

mechanical transmission

A

arthropod carries pathogen on its feet

84
Q

biological transmission

A

pathogen reproduces in the vector; transmitted via bites or feces

85
Q

HAIs/Nosocomial infections

A

acquired while receiving treatment in health care facility

86
Q

5 major types of HAI/nosocomial

A

UTI
surgical wound infection
lower respiratory infection
cutaneous infection
bactermia

87
Q

HAI/nosocomial result from

A

microorganism in the hospital environment
weekend status of the host
chain of transmission in a hospital

88
Q

compromised host

A

an individual whose resistance to infection is impaired by disease, therapy, or burns

89
Q

universal precautions

A

an approach to infection control to protect workers from HIV, HBV, and other bloodborne pathogens in human blood and certain other body fluids, regardless of a patients’ infection status.

90
Q

standard precautions

A

basic, minimum practices

91
Q

transmission-based precautions

A

supplemental to standard precautions; designed for known or suspected infections

92
Q

contact precautions

A

used for patients with infections that can be passed through contact with body fluids, feces, equipment or contaminated surfaces

93
Q

droplet precautions

A

for patients with infections that can be spread through close contact with droplet nuclei

94
Q

airborne precautions

A

for patients with infections that can be spread by droplet nuclei over long distances

95
Q

emerging infectious diseases

A

diseases that are new, increasing in incidence or showing potential to increase in the near future

96
Q

most emerging infectious diseases are ___________, of viral origin and likely to be vector borne

A

zoonotic

97
Q

EID genetic recombination example

A

E. coli 0157 and avian influenza (H5N1)

98
Q

EID evolution of new strains example

A

vibrio cholerae 0139

99
Q

EID widespread use of antibiotics and pestisides

A

antibiotic resistance strains

100
Q

EID changes in weather patterns examples

A

hantavirus

101
Q

EID modern transportation examples

A

zika virus, chikungunya, west nile encephalitis

102
Q

EID insect vectors

A

Ades aegypti, A. albopictus

103
Q

EID ecological disaster, war, and expanding human settlement

A

coccidioidomycosis

104
Q

EID animal control measures

A

Lyme disease

105
Q

epidemiology

A

study of where and when diseases occur and how they are transmitted in populations

106
Q

epidemiologist roles

A

determine etiology of disease
identify other important factors concerning the spread of a disease
develop methods for controlling a disease
assemble data and graphs to outline incidence of disease

107
Q

3 famous people who participated in epidemiology

A

John Snow
Ignaz Semmelweis
Florence Nightingale

108
Q

John Snow 1848-49

A

mapped the occurance of cholera in London

109
Q

Ignaz Semmelweis 1846-48

A

showed that hand washing decreased the incidence of puerperal sepsis

110
Q

Florence Nightingale 1858

A

showed that improved sanitation decreased the indigence of epidemic typhus

111
Q

descriptive epidemiology

A

collection of data and analysis

112
Q

who displayed descriptive epidemiology

A

Snow

113
Q

analytical epidemiology

A

analyzes a particular disease to determine its probable cause

114
Q

who displayed analytical epidemiology

A

Nightingale

115
Q

experimental epidemiology

A

involves a hypothesis and controlled experiments

116
Q

who displayed experimental epidemiology

A

Semmelweis

117
Q

CDC collects and analyzes

A

epidemiological information in the United States

118
Q

morbidity

A

incidence of a specific notifiable disease

119
Q

mortality

A

deaths from notifiable diseases

120
Q

notifiable infectious dieases

A

diseases that require occurrence reporting by physicians

121
Q

morbidity rate

A

number of people affected in relation to the total population in a given time period

122
Q

mortality rate

A

number of deaths from a disease in reaction to the population in a given time

Microbiology (20 decks)

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