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Microbiology > Exam #3 Study Guide > Flashcards

Exam #3 Study Guide Flashcards

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1
Q

central dogma

A

overall flow of genetic information

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2
Q

genetics

A

study of genes, how they carry information, how information is expressed and how they are replicated

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3
Q

gemine

A

all the genetic information

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4
Q

chromosome

A

structures containing DNA that physically carry hereditary information, contains genes

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5
Q

gene

A

segment of DNA that encode functional products

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6
Q

genetic code

A

set of rules that determines how a nucleotide sequence is converted to an amino acid sequence in a protein

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7
Q

geneotype

A

genetic makeup of an organism and represents potential expression

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8
Q

pheotype

A

expression of actual genes, represents actual expression

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9
Q

genomics

A

the sequencing and molecular characterization of genomes

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10
Q

DNA gyrase

A

relaxes supercoiling ahead of the replication fork

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11
Q

DNA ligase

A

makes covalent bonds to join new strands, Okazaki fragments and new segments in excision repair

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12
Q

DNA polymerase

A

synthesize DNA, proofreading and facilitating DNA repair

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13
Q

topoisomerase

A

relaxes supercoiling ahead of the replication fork and separates DNA circles at the end of DNA replication

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14
Q

helicase

A

separates stands

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15
Q

replication fork

A

The point at which the two strands of DNA are separated to allow replication of each strand.

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16
Q

top stand is the

A

3’-5’

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17
Q

the lagging stand is

A

5’-3’

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18
Q

top strand is the

A

leading strand

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19
Q

primase places

A

RNA primers

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20
Q

transcription

A

transcribe the DNA in to a message

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21
Q

transcription occurs in the _________ in eukaryotic cells

A

nucelus

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22
Q

RNA polymerase transcription role

A

copies RNA from a DNA template

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23
Q

transcription begins when RNA polymerase binds to the

A

promoter sequence

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24
Q

in transcription only

A

one strand is transcribed

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25
Q

3 stages of transcription

A

initiation, elongation, termination

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26
Q

initation
RNA polymerase binds to the DNA and recognizes a site called _________ at the end of 3’ end of the template strand of the target gene. When RNA polymerase finds a promoter it breaks ___________ ______ holding the DNA strands together at the site of the promoter and __________ begins

A

promoter, hydrogen bond, transcription

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27
Q

RNA polymerase does not bind to all promoters with equal __________

A

affinity

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28
Q

the difference in promoter strength is one way that cells can control _______ __________. The more strongly RNA polymerase binds to a particular promoter the more likely the gene is to be ___________

A

gene expression, transcribed

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29
Q

in elongation one strand of the DNA serves as the _______ ________ and the RNA is transcribed from this

A

template strand

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30
Q

elongation continues until it reaches the

A

Terminator

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31
Q

at the termination site the

A

RNA polymerase and the newly synthesized RNA transcript are released

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32
Q

termination can occur in 2 mechanisms

A

self termination and enzyme dependent termination

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33
Q

self termination

A

RNA sequence transcribed at the terminator causes the RNA to hydrogen bond with itself forming a stem loop structure which essentially pulls the RNA polymerase off

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34
Q

enzyme dependent termination

A

termination protein binds to the terminator and pushes RNA polymerase off the DNA

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35
Q

codons

A

groups of 3 mRNA nucleotides the code for a particular amino aicd

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36
Q

degeneracy

A

each amino acid is coded by several codons

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37
Q

START

A

AUG

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38
Q

STOP

A

UAA, UAG, UGA

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39
Q

what components are needed for translation

A

ribosome, tRNA, mRNA

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40
Q

translation step 1
on the assembled ribosome a tRNA carrying the first amino acid isa pried with the ______ ______ on the mRNA. The place where this first tRNA sits is called the _______ site

A

start codon, P site

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41
Q

translation step 2
the second codon of the mRNA pairs with a tRNA carrying the second amino acid at the ___ site. The first amino acid joins to the second by a _______________ bond. this attaches the polypeptide to the tRNA in the __ site

A

A site, polypeptide, P site

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42
Q

translation step 3
the ribosome moves along the mRNA until the second tRNA is in the __ site. The next codon to be translated is brought into the ___ site. The first codon now occupies the ___ site

A

P, A, E

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43
Q

translation step 4
the second amino acid joins to the third by another ________ _______ and the first tRNA is _______ from the E site

A

peptide bond, released

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44
Q

translation step 5
when the ribosome reaches a stop codon

A

the polypeptide is released

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45
Q

prokaryotes transcription location

A

cytoplasm

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46
Q

eukaryotes transcription location

A

nucelus

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47
Q

prokaryotes: can translation begin BEFORE transcription is complete

A

YES

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48
Q

eukaryotes: can translation begin BEFORE transcription is complete

A

NO

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49
Q

prokaryote translation location

A

cytoplasm

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50
Q

eukaryote translation location

A

cytoplasm

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51
Q

3 things that are unique to just eukaryotic cells

A

exons, introns, snRNPs

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52
Q

exons

A

regions of DNA that code for proteins

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53
Q

introns

A

regions of DNA that do NOT code for proteins

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54
Q

snRNPs (small nuclear ribonucleoprotein)

A

remove introns and splice exons together

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55
Q

mutation

A

permanent change in the base sequence of DNA

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56
Q

mutagens

A

agents that cause mutations

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57
Q

Ames test

A

exposes mutant bacteria to mutagenic substances to measure the rate of reversal of the mutagen
indicates the degree to which substance is mutagenic

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58
Q

2 types of repairs to fix mutagens

A

photolyases
nucleotide excision repair

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59
Q

photolyses use what to break apart what

A

use visible light to break apart thymine dimers

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60
Q

nucleotide excision reapir

A

enzymes cut out incorrect bases and fill in correct

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61
Q

nucleotide excision repair are also called

A

dark reactions
but can occur with or with out lighr

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62
Q

2 ways to identify mutagens

A

positive (direct) selection
negative (indirect) selection

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63
Q

positive (direct) selection

A

detects mutant cells because they grow/appear different than unmuated cells

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64
Q

negative (indirect) selection

A

detects mutant cells that cannot grow or preform a certain function

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65
Q

auxotroph

A

mutant that has a nutritional requirement absent in the parent

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66
Q

how to identify a auxotroph

A

replica plating

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67
Q

constitutive genes

A

expressed at a fixed rate (not regulated but constantly produced at this rate)

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68
Q

operons

A

segment of DNA where RNA polymerase imitates transcription of structural genes

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69
Q

operon consists of

A

promoter and operator

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70
Q

promoter

A

segment of DNA where RNA polymerase imitates transcription of structural genes

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71
Q

operator

A

segment of DNA that controls transcription of structural genes

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72
Q

all of the structural genes of an operon are transcribed into a single _____ which is then translated into this entire set of _________

A

mRNA, proteins

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73
Q

pre transcriptional contro;

A

epigenetic control, repression, induction

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74
Q

epigenetic control, how do you turn nucleotides off

A

methylating them

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75
Q

methylated genes can be or cannot be passed to offspring

A

can

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76
Q

is epigenetic control permeant or not

A

not permanent

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77
Q

repression

A

inhibits gene expression and decrease enzyme synthesis

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78
Q

repressor is mediated by

A

repressors

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79
Q

repressors are

A

proteins that block transcription

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80
Q

the default position for repression is

A

on

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81
Q

repressible operons

A

are always transcribed unless deactivates by a repressor

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82
Q

induction

A

turns genes on

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83
Q

induction is initiated by an

A

inducer

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84
Q

default position of induction is

A

off

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85
Q

inducible operons

A

not transcribed unless they are activated by an inducer

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86
Q

example of inducible operon

A

lac operon of E. coli

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87
Q

3 parts of lac operon

A

promoter, operator, 3 structural genes

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88
Q

the 3 structural genes of lac operon encode for proteins involved in

A

catabolism of lactose

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89
Q

when lactose is available to the cell the operon is _______________ to produce the proteins of lactose catbolism

A

induced/stimulated

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90
Q

e.coli has a regulator gene near lac operon and this gene is constantly transcribed and translated to produce

A

repressor protein

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91
Q

the repressor protein binds to the operator DNA at lac operon physically preventing

A

RNA polymerase from moving beyond the promotor

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92
Q

when a repressor protein is bound the genes for lactose catabolism can to cannot be transcribed

A

cannot

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93
Q

when lactose is present in the cell some of it is converted to

A

allolactose

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94
Q

allolactose binds to the repressor proteins and

A

inactivates them which prevents them from binding to the operator

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95
Q

once the repressor proteins are inactivates the structural genes are now transcribed resulting in the production

A

of the enzyme needed to catabolize lactose

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96
Q

in lac operon the inducer is ____________ because it stimulates transcription of lac operon

A

alloactose

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97
Q

an example of a repressible operon is

A

trp operon in e.coli

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98
Q

3 parts of tap operon

A

promoter, operon and 5 structural genes

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99
Q

5 structural genes encode for proteins involved in the biosynthesis fo

A

tryptophan

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100
Q

when excess tryptophan is available to the cell the operon is ___________ ending the production of the proteins of tryptophan biosynthesis

A

repressed

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101
Q

e coli contains a regulatory gene near the trp operon and this gene constantly transcribed and translated to produce

A

repressor proteins

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102
Q

repressor proteins of trp operon are inactive unless

A

excess tryptophan is avaibale

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103
Q

the repressor proteins of trp operon can be activated by

A

tryptophan

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104
Q

once the repressor protein is activated by tryptophan it can bind to the trp operon preventing

A

RNA polymerase from moving beyond the promotor

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105
Q

when a repressor protein is bound to trp operon the genes for tryptophan biosynthesis cannot be transcribed into

A

mRNA

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106
Q

post transcriptional control

A

riboswitch
microRNAs

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107
Q

riboswitch

A

part of an mRNA molecule that binds to a substrate and changes the mRNA structure
translation is initiated or stopped

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108
Q

mircoRNAs

A

base pair with mRNA to make it double stranded
double stranded RNA is enzymatically destroyed preventing production of a protein

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109
Q

positive regulation

A

catabolite repressoin inhibits cells from using carbon sources other than glucose

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110
Q

cAMP

A

builds up in the cell when glucose is not available

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111
Q

cAMP binds to

A

CAP

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112
Q

CAP binds to

A

lac promotor

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113
Q

lac promotor

A

imitates transcription allowing the cell to use lactose

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114
Q

genetic recombination

A

exchange of genes between two DNA moleules; creates genetic diversity

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115
Q

crossing over

A

two chromosomes break and rejoin resulting in there insertion of foregin DNA into the chromosome

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116
Q

vertical gene transfer

A

transfer of genes from an organism to its offspring

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117
Q

horizontal gene transfer

A

transfer of genes between cells of the same generation

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118
Q

2 types of mobile genetic elements

A

plasmids and transposons

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119
Q

mobile genetic elements

A

move from one chromosome to another or from one cell to another

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120
Q

are plasmids self replicating or not

A

self repliating

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121
Q

plasmids are what shape

A

circular

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122
Q

plasmids often code for proteins that enhance the

A

pathogenicity

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123
Q

3 types of plamsids

A

conjugative plasmid, dissimilation plasmids, resistance factors

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124
Q

conjugative plasmids

A

carries genes for sex villi and transfer of the plasmid

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125
Q

dissimilation plasmid

A

encode enzymes for catabolism of unusual compunds

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126
Q

resistance factors

A

encode antibiotic resistance

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127
Q

two groups of resistance factor genes

A

RTF, and r determinant

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128
Q

transposons

A

segments of DNA that can move from one region of DNA to another

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129
Q

transposons contain

A

insertion sequences

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130
Q

insertion sequences code for

A

transposes that cuts and reseals DNA

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131
Q

2 types of transposons

A

simple and complex

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132
Q

simple transposons

A

only contain the essential elements needed for trans positioning

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133
Q

simple transposons are compose of

A

transposes gene flanked by an inverted repeat

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134
Q

simple transposons are complete units capable of effecting their own movement from

A

one location to another

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135
Q

inverted repeat sequin is a region of DNA in which the sequence of nucleotides is

A

identical to an inverted sequence in the complementary strand

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136
Q

the transposase enzyme recognizes this inverted repeat in a target site and

A

inserts the transposon or a copy into the DNA moleules at such target site

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137
Q

the transposase gene codes for the enzyme that

A

facilitates the movement of the transposon

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138
Q

transposase cuts the DNA so the transposon can

A

leave its original position

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139
Q

transposase also cuts the DNA in new positions where the

A

transposon inserts itself and creates the covalent bond between the transposon and its new host DNA

140
Q

simple transposons move through 2 types of mechanisms

A

cut and paste and replicative

141
Q

cut and paste

A

the entire transposon moves to another location

142
Q

replicative

A

transposon is copied to a new location

143
Q

complex transposons

A

carry other genes and transposase gene

144
Q

complex transposons consist of

A

two simple transposons with another sequence of DNA between them

145
Q

in a complex transposon the other gene is often something that gives

A

select advantage to the organism containing the transposon

146
Q

ends of complex transposons are

A

insertion sequences

147
Q

the insertion sequences are capable of

A

moving/coping themselves independent of the rest of the complex transposons

148
Q

the element in the middle of the complex transposon can or cannot move on its own

A

cannot

149
Q

3 types of horizontal gene transfer

A

transformation, conjugation, transduction

150
Q

transformation

A

genes transferred from one bacterium to another as ‘naked’ DNA

151
Q

transformation
some bacteria are capable of taking up fragments of DNA from

A

their surroundings and integrating the fragments into their own chromosome by recombiniation

152
Q

competent

A

cells capable of taking up DNA from their environment

153
Q

species that is naturally compenent

A

streptococcus pneumoniae

154
Q

species that can be MADE compenent

A

e. coli

155
Q

conjucation

A

plasmids transferred from one bacterium to another

156
Q

conjugation requires cell to cell contact via

A

sex pilli

157
Q

2 types of conjucation

A

f factor and Hfr

158
Q

F factor F+ cells

A

cells containing an F factor and serve as DNA donors during conjucation

159
Q

F factor F- cells

A

cells lacking F factor and serve as DNA recipients during conjucation

160
Q

conjucation F factor
Conjucation pills extends from an _____ cell to an ____ cell and pulls the cells together, the cells come together and stabiliz. Transfer of DNA begins. A _________ stranded copy of the F factor is transferred from F+ to F-. each cell synthesizes a complementary strand of plasmid resulting in a __________ copy of the plasmid in each cell.

A

F+, F-, single, complete

161
Q

Hfr conjugation contains the F factor on the

A

chromosome

162
Q

Hfr conjucation
Occasionally an F factor integrates into the E.coli __________ converting the F+ cell to an ________ cell. Hfr form conjucation pili and cells come together and stabilize. Transfer of DNA. DNA transfer begins in the _________ of the F factor within the HFr cells chromosome, the result is the F- cell does not receive a full copy of the F factor since the recipient cell does not revieice a full copy of the F factor it is still ___. However the DNA from the donor can recombine with recipient chromosome giving the recipient new chromosomal ________

A

chromosome, Hfr, middle, F-, genes

163
Q

transduction

A

DNA is transferred from donor cell to recipient via bacteriophage

164
Q

2 types of transduction

A

general and specialized

165
Q

general transduction

A

random bacterial DNA is packaged inside a phage and transferred to a recipient cell

166
Q

specialized transdcution

A

specific bacterial genes are packaged inside a phage and transferred to a recipient cell

167
Q

mutations and recombination create

A

diverity

168
Q

natural selection

A

acts on populations of organisms to ensure the survival of organisms within a particular environment

169
Q

biotechnology

A

use of microorganisms, cells or cell components to make a product

170
Q

example of products from biotechnology

A

foods, antibiotics, vitamins, enzymes

171
Q

biotechnology selection

A

selecting for a naturally occurring microbe the produces a desired product

172
Q

biotechnology mutation

A

mutagens cause mutations that might result in a microbe with desirable trait

173
Q

biotechnology site directed mutagensis

A

a targeted and specific change in a gene

174
Q

recombinant DNA (rDNA) technology

A

insertion or modification of genes to produce desired proteins

175
Q

examples of rDNA

A

gene encoding for a protein for pest resistance
gene encoding segregative enzyme to clean up toxic waste
human growth hormone
amylase, cellulase and other enzymes prepare for clothing manufacture

176
Q

vector

A

self replicating DNA molecule used to transport foregin DNA into a cell

177
Q

vector can carry new DNA to

A

desired ell

178
Q

a vector MUST

A

BE ABLE TO SELF REPLICATE

179
Q

what can be used as a vector

A

plasmids and viruses

180
Q

shuttle vectors

A

exist in several different species and can move cloned sequences among various organisms

181
Q

clone

A

population of genetically identical cells arising from one cell; each carries the vector

182
Q

restriction enzymes

A

cut specific sequences of DNA

183
Q

restriction enzymes ____________ phosphodiester bonds between individual nucleotides at specific recognition sequences on both strands of DNA and they are able to ____ or ______ the DNA sequence the same way everytime

A

hydrolyze, cut, digest

184
Q

restriction enzymes occur naturally in bacterial cells and are able to destroy

A

invading DNA

185
Q

restriction enzymes create blunt ends or staggered cuts known as sticky ends. what one is better for cloning

A

sticky ends

186
Q

polymerase chain reaction (PCR)

A

process of increasing samll quants of DNA for analysis

187
Q

PCR is used diagnostic tests for

A

genetic diseases and detecting pathogens

188
Q

3 steps of PCR

A

denaturation
priming
extension

189
Q

denaturation

A

DNA is incubated at high temps which causes strands to separate by breaking the hydrogen bonds between each base pair

190
Q

priming

A

DNA is incubated at a relatively low temp allowing primers to attach to the single stranded target DNA

191
Q

extension

A

DNA is incubated at an intermediate temp at which the DNA polymerase rapidly replicates DNA

192
Q

PCR occurs in what machine

A

thermocylcer

193
Q

target DNA

A

piece of DNA being amplified in the PCR reaction

194
Q

Reverse transcriptase PCR

A

uses mRNA as template and reverses the normal flow of genetic information utilizing the enzyme reverse transcriptase, mRNA is used to create cDNA

195
Q

ways DNA can be incorporated into the cell

A

transformation, electroporation, protoplast fusion, gene gun, microinjection

196
Q

transformation

A

cells take up DNA from the surrounding environment

197
Q

electroporation

A

electrical current forms pores in plasma membrane

198
Q

protoplast fusion

A

removing cell walls from 2 bacteria allows them to fuse

199
Q

gene gun is used in

A

plant

200
Q

microinjection

A

technique that uses a glass micropipette with a diameter much smaller than that of the cell and is able to puncture the plasma membrane so that DNA can be injected through it

201
Q

genomic libraries are collection of

A

clones containing different DNA fragments

202
Q

complementary DNA is made from mRNA by

A

reverse transcriptase

203
Q

cDNA is used for obtaining eukaryotic genes because eukaryotic genes have

A

introns

204
Q

synthetic DNA

A

builds genes using DNA synthesis machine

205
Q

selecting a clone

A

blue white screening, colony hibridization

206
Q

blue white screening uses a plasmid vector containing

A

amplicllin resistance gene and b-galactpsidease

207
Q

blue white screening

A

bacteria is grown in media containing amplicllin and X gal only the bacteria that have picked up the plasmid will grow because they are now ampicillin reistance

208
Q

white colonies

A

bacteria that have picked up the recombinant plasmid will not hydrolyze lactose

209
Q

blue colones

A

bacteria with the intact lacZ gene will hydrolyze the x-gal

210
Q

colony hybridization

A

common method of identifying cells that cary a specific gene

211
Q

colony hybridization uses

A

DNA probes

212
Q

DNA probes are

A

short segments of single stranded DNA complementary to the desired gene

213
Q

gene produces are frequently the reason for

A

genetic modifcation

214
Q

E. coli advantages

A

easily grown
genomics are known

215
Q

E. coli disadvantages

A

produces endotoxins

216
Q

saccharomyces cerevisaiae

A

easily grown and larger genome
express eukaryotic genes easily
likely to continuously secrete product

217
Q

plant cells

A

express eukaryotic genes easily
easily grown
large scale
low cost

218
Q

mammalian cells

A

express eukaryotic genes easily
can make products for medical use
harder to grow

219
Q

2 ways to silence genes

A

siRNAs
RNAi

220
Q

siRNA

A

bind to mRNA which is then destroyed by RNA induced silencing complex

221
Q

RNAi

A

inserts DNA encoding siRNA into a plasmid and transferred into a cell`

222
Q

viruses are obligatory intracellular parasites meaning

A

require living host cells to multiply

223
Q

viruses contain

A

DNA/RNA

224
Q

viruses have a _________ coat

A

protein

225
Q

viruses have no

A

ribosomes and ATP-generating mechanisms

226
Q

viruses are sensitive to

A

interferon

227
Q

host range

A

spectrum of host cell a virus can infect

228
Q

most viruses infect only specific types of cells in one

A

host

229
Q

bacteriophages

A

viruses that infect bacteria

230
Q

genus

A

-virus

231
Q

family

A

-viridae

232
Q

order

A

-ales

233
Q

subspecies are designates by a

A

number

234
Q

viral species

A

a group of viruses sharing the same genetic information and ecological niche (host)

235
Q

viruses must be grown in

A

living cells

236
Q

bacteriophages are grown in

A

bacteria

237
Q

bacteriophages form

A

plaques

238
Q

plaques are

A

clearings on lawn of bacteria on the surface of agar

239
Q

each plaque corresponds to a single

A

virus

240
Q

plaques can be expressed as

A

plaque forming units

241
Q

growing animal viruses

A

in living animals
embryonate cells
cell cultures

242
Q

embryonated eggs

A

virus injected into the eggs
viral growth is signaled by changes or death

243
Q

what is the most convientiet way

A

cell cultures

244
Q

cell cultures

A

tissues are treated with enzymes to separate cells

245
Q

in cell cultures _______ cell lines are used

A

continuous

246
Q

normal cells grow in __________ across the container

A

monolayer

247
Q

transformed cells

A

do not grow in monolayer

248
Q

viral identification

A

cytopathic effects
serological tests
nucleic acids

249
Q

seroglical test example

A

western blotting

250
Q

western blotting

A

reaction of the virus with antibodies

251
Q

nucleic acids example

A

RFLPs
PCR

252
Q

for a virus to multiply it must

A

invade host cell and take over hosts machinery

253
Q

bacteriophage 2 cycles

A

lytic and lysogenic

254
Q

lytic cycle causes

A

death of host

255
Q

what bacteria go through lytic cycle

A

T-even

256
Q

lytic cycle steps
attachment

A

phage attaches by the tail fibers to host cell

257
Q

lytic cycle steps
penetration

A

phage lysozyme opens the cell wall; tail sheath contracts to force the tail core and DNA into cell

258
Q

lytic cycle steps
biosynthesis

A

production of phage DNA and proteins

259
Q

lytic cycle steps
maturation

A

assembly of phage particles

260
Q

lytic cycle steps
release

A

phage lysozyme breaks cell wall

261
Q

lysogenic cycle

A

phage DNA is incorporated in the host DNA

262
Q

lytic cycle uses what transduction

A

general

263
Q

lysogenic cycle uses what transduction

A

specialized

264
Q

what cycle does bacteriophage lambda use

A

lysogenic

265
Q

lysogeny

A

phage remains latent

266
Q

during lysogenic cycle phage DNA incorporates into

A

host cell DNA

267
Q

prophage

A

inserted phage DNA

268
Q

during lysogenic cycle when the host cell replicates its chromosome

A

it also replicates prophage DNA

269
Q

lysogenic cycle results in

A

phage conversion

270
Q

phage conversion

A

host cell exhibits new properties

271
Q

in temperate bacteriophages the phage DNA forms a ______ which can either replicate and be transcribed to produce phage components in the lytic cycle or proceed to __________ ______

A

circle, lysogenic cycle

272
Q

multiplication of animal viruses steps

A

attachment, biosynthesis, maturation

273
Q

attachment of animal viruses

A

viruses attach to the cell membrane

274
Q

entry of animal viruses by

A

receptor mediated endocytosis or fusion

275
Q

biosynthesis of animal virsues

A

production of nucleic acids and proteins

276
Q

maturation of animal viruses

A

nucleic acid and capsid proteins assemble

277
Q

animal viruses vary based on

A

nucleic acids, naked or enveloped

278
Q

naked viruses

A

without an envelope
bind to surface of host cell and inject their DNA

279
Q

membrane fusion

A

infect their host by binding to receptors on host cell
envelope of the virus merges with the host membrane and then capsid enters the cell, the capsid opens and released the viral genetic material into cytoplasm

280
Q

phagocytosis

A

host cell envoploes the viral envelope and absorbs the virus and once it has entered the host the outer and inner part of the envelope merge together and the capsid is released into the cytoplasm

281
Q

biosynthesis of DNA viruses, they replicate their DNA in ____________ of the host using ______ ____________

A

nucleus, viral enzymes

282
Q

adenovirus strands

A

double

283
Q

adenovirus envelope

A

no

284
Q

adenovirus diease

A

respiratory infection

285
Q

poxviridae strands

A

double

286
Q

poxviridae envelope

A

yes

287
Q

poxviridae diease

A

skin lesions, smallpox

288
Q

herpesvirdae strands

A

double

289
Q

herpesvirdae envelope

A

yes

290
Q

herpesvirdae diease

A

cold sores, chickenpox, mononucleosis, kaposis sarcoma

291
Q

papoviridae strands

A

double

292
Q

papoviridae enveloped

A

no

293
Q

papoviridae diease

A

warts and cancer

294
Q

hepadenaviridae strands

A

double

295
Q

hepadenaviridae enveloped

A

yes

296
Q

hepadenaviridae diease

A

Hep B

297
Q

biosynthesis of RNA virsues

A

virus multiples in the host cells cytoplasm using RNA dependent RNA polymerase

298
Q

biosynthesis of RNA virsues
ssRNA +(sense) strand

A

viral RNA serves as mRNA for protein

299
Q

biosynthesis of RNA virsues
ssRNA- (antisense) strand

A

viral RNA is transcribed to a + strand to serve as mRNA for protein synthesis

300
Q

picornaviridae strand

A

single

301
Q

picornaviridae envolpoed

A

non

302
Q

picornaviridae disease

A

enterovirus: poliovirus and coxsackievirus
rhinovirus: common cold

303
Q

togaviridae strand

A

single

304
Q

togaviridae enveloped

A

yes

305
Q

togaviridae disease

A

alphavirus
rubivirus: rubella

306
Q

rhabdovirdae strand

A

single

307
Q

rhabdovirdae diease

A

lyssgavirus: rabies

308
Q

reoviridae strand

A

double

309
Q

reoviridae envoloped

A

no

310
Q

reoviridae diease

A

reovirus, rotavirus

311
Q

biosynthesis of RNA to produce DNA

A

use reverse transcriptase to produce DNA from viral genome

312
Q

oncogenesis

A

transform normal cells into cancerous cells

313
Q

oncogenic virus

A

become integrated into host cells DNA and induce tumors

314
Q

transformed cell

A

harbors a tumor specific transplantation antigen on surface and a T antigen in the nucelus

315
Q

why would viral cancer go without detection

A

most of the particles of certain viruses may infect cells without inducing cancer
may develop after long viral infection
cancers caused by viruses are not contagious

316
Q

2 types of viral cancers

A

sarcoma and adenocarcinoma

317
Q

sarcoma

A

cancer of connective tissue

318
Q

adenocarcinoma

A

cancer of glandular epithelial tissue

319
Q

DNA oncogenic viruses non cancer

A

adenovirus, herpesvirdae, poxvirdiae

320
Q

herpesviridae

A

epstein barr

321
Q

DNA oncogenic viruses cancer

A

papovaviridae, hepadnaviridae

322
Q

papovaviridae leads to

A

cervical and anal cancer

323
Q

hepadnaviridae leads to

A

hep b which leads to liver cancer

324
Q

RNA oncogenic viruses

A

retroviridae

325
Q

retroviridae

A

viral RNA is transcribed to DNA (using reverse transcriptase) which can integrate into host DNA

326
Q

retroviridae can lead to HTLV1 and 2 and lead to adult T cell

A

leukemia and lymphoma

327
Q

provirus

A

viral DNA that is integrated into the host cells DNA

328
Q

oncolytic viruses

A

1900-1920, able to selectively infect and kill tumor cells or induce an immune response genetically modified to removed virulence genes and add CSF genes that promote WBS

329
Q

oncolytic viruses can treat

A

melenoma

330
Q

latent virus

A

remains asymptomatic in host cell for long periods

331
Q

latent virus may reactivate due to change in

A

immunity

332
Q

persistent virus

A

occurs gradually over long periods of time

333
Q

examples of latent

A

cold sores, leukemia, shingles

334
Q

examples of persistent

A

cervical and liver cancer, HIV/AIDS

335
Q

plant viruses enter how

A

through wounds caused by insects

336
Q

plant viruses normally are protected from disease by

A

cell wall

337
Q

viroids

A

short pieces of naked DNA

338
Q

virusoids

A

viriods enclosed in protein coat

339
Q

prions are

A

proteinaceous infectious particles

340
Q

prions are inherited via

A

ingestion, transplant, surgical instruments

341
Q

example of transmissible spongiform encephalopathies

A

mad cow diease
sheep scrapie
creutzfeldt-jakob diease
GSS diease
fatal familial insomnia

342
Q

PrP c

A

normal cellular prion protein on cell surface

343
Q

PrP sc

A

scrapie protein, accumulates in brain cell forming plaques

344
Q

normally PcP folds into a functional form with several

A

a helices

345
Q

prion protein is capable of forming

A

B pleated sheets

346
Q

infectious prions convert normal prions into more infectious ones by folding into

A

beta pleated sheet

347
Q

infectious prions group into multimers which are very stable and resistance to

A

protease

Microbiology (20 decks)

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