Exam 4 Flashcards

1
Q

the types of grief

A

normal
anticipatory
prolonged grief disorder
disenfranchised

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2
Q

normal grief

A

uncomplicated grief; which is caused by the death of a loved one or the ending of a relationship

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3
Q

anticipatory grief

A

○ Anticipatory grief – grief experienced before the loss of someone or something

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4
Q

prolonged grief disorder

A

○ Prolonged grief disorder (PGD) – previously known as complicated grief, is experienced by clients who are unable to accept the death of a loved one

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5
Q

disenfranchised grief

A

○ Disenfranchised grief – grief that is related to a relationship that does not coincide with what is considered by society to be a recognized or justified loss

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6
Q

the Kubler-Ross stages of grief

A

○ Denial – when the client refuses to believe reality. The first stage is an attempt to lessen the pain of the loss.
○ Anger – the second stage when the client is trying to adjust to the loss and is feeling severe emotional distress.
○ Bargaining – the third stage when a client will try to use a different approach to attempt to relieve or minimize the pain felt from the loss
○ Depression – the fourth stage where reality starts to set in, and the loss is deeply felt
○ Acceptance – the last stage in which the person still feels the pain but realizes eventually all will be well

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7
Q

dual process model of grief

A

○ This suggests that the process of grieving oscillates (shifts back and forth) between two types of responses loss-oriented and restoration grief

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8
Q

loss orientation of the dual process model of grief

A

■ During the loss-oriented process, grief is conveyed through intense thoughts and feelings. The person feels sad, longs for the person who has died, feels sad about how the person died, and believes it is unfair that the person will not be part of the griever’s future.

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9
Q

restoration grief of the dual process model of grief

A

■ The restoration grief process involves coping with other losses that come with the death of a loved one (secondary losses) and rebuilding one’s life without the loved one. The loss of a loved one brings about not only feelings of grief, but also changes that are a result of the loss. The restoration process is a time of thinking about the future, filled with new tasks and obligations.

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10
Q

N in the NURSE mnemonic

A

“This is overpowering.” Identify what the person stated a moment ago. The nurse is identifying the emotion expressed by the client.

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11
Q

U in the NURSE mnemonic

A

“There is a lot happening right now. What can I do to assist you?” The nurse demonstrates understanding by recognizing the client’s feelings and providing an opportunity for the client to discuss those feelings.

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12
Q

R in the NURSE mnemonic

A

“I’m very impressed with your ability to manage everything.” Voice your respect for the client under these circumstances.

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13
Q

S in the NURSE mnemonic

A

“I’m here all day for you.” Inform the client that you are available to them.

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14
Q

E in the NURSE mnemonic

A

“What is the most difficult aspect?” Asking an open-ended question will extend the conversation and provide a more detailed expression of the client’s feelings and beliefs.

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15
Q

physical signs of fight of flight response

A

○ Increased heart rate, rapid breathing, dilated pupils, tense muscles, increased blood flow to the area, sweating, dry mouth, shaking or trembling, increased blood pressure, release of stress hormones, gastrointestinal distress, heightened senses, dizziness, lightheadedness, cold or clammy hands.

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16
Q

fight or flight mode

A

○ When a situation is determined to be stressful, the hypothalamus secretes corticotropin releasing factor (CRF) which activates the sympathetic nervous system (SNS) to release norepinephrine, epinephrine, and dopamine also known as the “fight or flight” response which causes an increase in heart rate, blood pressure, cardiac output, dilation of bronchial airways, pupil dilation, and an increase in blood glucose levels.

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17
Q

the three stages of general adaptive syndrome

A

alarm
resistance
exhaustion

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18
Q

the three stages of general adaptive syndrome explained

A

○ Alarm – when the central nervous system becomes aroused, and the body defense mechanisms are mobilized. Then hormones are released, and the body goes into fight of flight mode
○ Resistance - the body resists and seeks to counter the stress. The parasympathetic nervous system attempts to return bodily functions back to a state of homeostasis. The body remains on alert while hormonal and other bodily functions return to normal and as the body repairs any damage caused by the threat.
○ Exhaustion - the body can no longer defend itself against the stressor. In this stage, when the body’s capacity to withstand or adapt to the stressor becomes depleted and the individual’s resources are exhausted, prolonged exposure to stress may result in illness or disease.

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19
Q

acute stress

A

○ Acute stress – the most common type of stress. It is usually brief, and triggers the fight or flight response

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20
Q

episodic acute stress

A

○ Episodic acute stress – characterized by frequent bouts of acute stress, usually associated with taking on too much responsibility

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21
Q

chronic stress

A

○ Chronic stress – occurs when stress is heightened, constant, and prolonged. The continuous activation of the nervous system can cause or exacerbate health problems

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22
Q

ego defense mechanism

A

Defense mechanisms are psychological strategies that help individuals separate from and put distance between themselves and unpleasant events, feelings, or thoughts. Common ego defense mechanisms include denial, rationalization, projection, repression, regression, and compartmentalization.

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23
Q

physiological stressor

A

factors or conditions that cause a strain or challenge to the body’s normal functioning, triggering a stress response.

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24
Q

psychological stressor

A

events or circumstances that challenge an individual’s mental or emotional well-being, often causing feelings of anxiety, worry, fear, frustration, or helplessness.

25
Q

● The pineal gland manufactures —-. This hormone does what for the body?

A

○ Produces the sleep hormone melatonin

26
Q

the lightest stage of sleep

A

■ Stage 1: (NREM), It begins when greater than 50% of the alpha waves are exchanged for low-amplitude, mixed-frequency activity. Stage 1 can last from 1 to 5 minutes and accounts for approximately 5% of the total sleep cycle.

27
Q

heart rate and body temp begin to drop in what stage of sleep

A

■ In stage 2 (NREM), a deeper sleep cycle

28
Q

when is the deepest sleep stage

A

■ Deepest sleep occurs in stage 3 (NREM)

29
Q

Rapid-eye-movement (REM) sleep occurs in which stage?

A

■ Stage 4, typically begins around 90 minutes after falling asleep

30
Q

in what stage of sleep does dreaming occur

A

in the fourth (REM) stage

31
Q

insomnia

A

○ Insomnia – ongoing ability to sleep despite having the opportunity to sleep

32
Q

central sleep apnea

A

○ Central sleep apnea – the reduction of the brain’s transmission to the respiratory muscles resulting in the cessation of breathing

33
Q

obstructive sleep apnea

A

○ Obstructive sleep apnea – recurrent episodes of upper airway collapse and obstruction while sleeping combined with waking from sleep

34
Q

narcolepsy

A

○ Narcolepsy – chronic sleep condition characterized by sudden sleepiness and sudden periods of sleep

35
Q

hypersomnia

A

○ Hypersomnia – a disorder of excessive daytime fatigue without improvement after more sleep

36
Q

ways to help promote sleep in individuals struggling with sleep quality

A

■ Avoid stimulants, such as caffeine, alcohol, and nicotine at least four to six hours before bedtime. Remove unnecessary light and noise. Establish a bedtime routine, such as taking a warm shower or bath. Keep the room dark, quiet, and at a comfortable, cold temperature. Go to bed only when tired. If no sleep in 20 minutes, go to another room and read or listen to music. Turn the clock away from view. Go to bed and wake up at the same time each day. Keep naps short and before 3 p.m. Complete exercise at least three hours before going to bed. Remove work items and televisions from bedroom when possible. The bedroom should be for sleep and sexual activity only.

37
Q

how does palliative care differ from hospice care

A

○ Hospice is provided when treatment will no longer cure or control the illness; the focus then becomes providing for comfort, dignity, and personal growth as the client faces death.
○ Palliative is done to improve quality of life and is provided throughout the lifespan for clients who are experiencing severe medical illness and particularly for those reaching end of life.

38
Q

what physiological signs might be present when the body is at the end of its life

A

breathing and respirations
Cheyenne stokes
pain
temperature
vision and hearing

39
Q

physiological changes at end of life

A

○ Physiological changes at the end of life follow a familiar pattern of signs and symptoms. The terminal phase of a client’s life is characteristically referred to as “actively dying” or “imminent death.”

40
Q

who can authorize organ donation

A

○ A nurse is not allowed to begin a dialogue about organ or tissue donation with the client or a family member. Only health care professionals who have completed a course provided or endorsed by an organ procurement organization (OPO) are permitted to initiate the request of the client or surrogate.

41
Q

what should occur during post mortem care

A

○ When a client dies, the nurse documents the date and time of death, the name of anyone notified, the location of the client’s belongings, and where the client’s body is moved (e.g., funeral home name). Interventions typically included in postmortem care include washing the body, making sure the client’s possessions are accounted for, and placing identification tags in a minimum of two areas (toe, arm, outside of body bag). The removal of invasive devices such as intravenous catheters and indwelling urinary catheters will vary according to specific policy of the health care agency.

42
Q

teeth in protecting against plaque and pathogens

A

○ Enamel of our teeth protects each layer and acts as a barrier to harmful pathogens.
○ Saliva contains enzymes, peptides, and protiens to help fight against and neutralize pathogens
○ Plaque is a natural ecosystem for beneficial bacteria when in normal amounts

43
Q

what are good hygiene practices important for

A

○ Essential for many things like; prevention of illness, personal health and benefit, social acceptance, mental and emotional well-being, protection against pathogens and protection for others.

44
Q

how to prevent the spread of C. Diff

A

○ Washing hands anytime we come into contact with a client with it.

45
Q

● Think about how you could make accommodations to promote independence and safety while bathing a client with any of the disabilities listed in your powerpoint on the “physiological considerations” slide.

A

■ Given them a voice and options within their care. Offer accommodations whether that be a shower chair, a bath, a bed bath, or some help
○ Ex:) Someone who only has 1 leg is at an increased risk for falls. How could you help keep that person from slipping/falling in the shower?

46
Q

what actions do you need to take when brushing a client’s dentures

A

○ Clean with the proper temperature of water, line the bottom of the sink with a washcloth so that if you drop the dentures they do not break.
○ Also make sure that the clients gums and mouth are also cleaned when the dentures are taken out to eat or be cleaned.

47
Q

● How should the perineal area be cleansed, especially in women due to the higher risk for UTIs?

A

○ In women the perineal area should be cleaned from front to back to help avoid from bacteria coming in to cause UTIs or other infections
■ Female – between the vulva and anus
■ Male – between the scrotum and anus

48
Q

What good hygiene practices should we focus on teaching adolescents/school-age children?

A

○ Bathing daily, washing hair at least every other day, using deodorant or an antiperspirant, using mild, non-comedogenic cleansers and soaps can help prevent oily skin

49
Q

● How does the skin act as the first line of defense against pathogens?

A

○ Serves as a physical barrier to offer protection to the internal parts of the body.
■ Contains Langerhans cells, whose role is to sense and kill pathogens that are found on the skin trying to enter the body

50
Q

Acute pain

A

Anticipated or predictable; lasts less than 6 months
- incision pain
- pain from heat or cold

51
Q

Chronic pain

A

Constant or recurring; lasts longer than 6 months
- arthritis
- back pain

52
Q

Nociceptive pain

A

Pain that is felt in the tissue, an organ, a damaged part of the body, or a referred pain

53
Q

Neuropathic pain

A

Nerve pain that arises from the somatosensory system, described as intense, burning, shooting
- intense, shooting, or burning, sometimes even referred to as “pins and needles”

54
Q

Cancer pain

A

A newly recognized category of pain that can involve pain, bone pain, and treatment-associated aids such as chronic pose-surgical pain

55
Q

Subjective pain

A

Data that is based upon the client’s feelings, perceptions, and assumptions
- can further identify pain by finding; location of pain, length of pain presented, what caused the pain, how the patent feels the pain

56
Q

Objective pain

A

Assessed, observed, or collected data that can be noticed by seeing, hearing, smelling, and feeling

57
Q

PQRST

A

P - what were you doing when the pain started
Q - describe what your pain feels like
R - show me the location of the pain
S - on a scale of 1-10 what is your pain
T - when did the pain first being? Have you experienced this pain before?

58
Q

Non-pharmacological pain management techniques

A
  • cutaneous stimulation (heat or cold)
  • proper positioning
  • TENS unit
  • Cognitive strategies like behavioral therapy
  • therapeutic touch