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healthcare fundamentals > exam 1 > Flashcards

exam 1 Flashcards

1
Q

modifiable risk factors

A

behaviors and exposures that can raise or lower a person’s risk and measures that can be taken to reduce the risk

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2
Q

nonmodifiable risk factors

A

conditions that increase the risk of developing a disease. Nonmodifiable factors include genetics, ethnicity/race, age, and family health history.

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3
Q

the social determinants of health

A
  • education access and quality
  • health care access and quality
  • neighborhood and built environment
  • social and community context
  • economic stability
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4
Q

healthy people initiative

A
  • national health promotion and disease prevention objectives developed every ten years to improve the health of all Americans
  • launched by 1979
  • original focus was reducing preventable death and injury
  • healthy people 2023 is in its fifth edition
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5
Q

health promotion

A

enhancing people’s influence over and improving their health

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6
Q

primary prevention

A

the act of intervening before negative health effects occur
- something before a health effect occur

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7
Q

secondary

A

detection and treatment of preclinical changes to reduce the impact if disease or injury and limit disability
- detection

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8
Q

tertiary

A

aims to reverse, minimize, or delay effects of a disease or disability

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9
Q

EMTALA

A

Passed in 1986 to prevent “patient dumping,” the practice of one health
care organization moving a client based on their inability to pay or lack of
insurance coverage.
* Ensures that any individual presenting to an Emergency Department will
receive, at minimum, a medical screening examination and treatment until
stabilized.

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10
Q

self-care

A
  • It is of the utmost importance that
    clinicians engage in self-care
    practices to maintain their
    emotional well-being, and prevent
    burnout, moral distress, or lack of
    compassion.
  • Self-care is an inclusive group of
    activities used to promote one’s
    mental health and overall well-being.
  • Burnout is a progressive loss of
    idealism, energy, and purpose
    experienced by people in the helping
    professions as a result of the
    conditions of their work.
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11
Q

passive communication

A

Avoids conflict, expressing feelings or opinions, or standing up for themselves when boundaries are crossed.

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12
Q

assertive communication

A

most effective because they communicate clearly and honestly. They advocate for their opinions, rights, and needs without violating the rights of others.

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13
Q

aggressive communication

A

communication that is verbally, and sometimes physically, abusive.

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14
Q

passive aggressive

A

communication that appears passive on the surface, but often, the individual is demonstrating anger in a subtle, indirect, or secretive way.

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15
Q

modes of communication

A

verbal
non-verbal
auditory
emotional
energetic
written
electronic

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16
Q

developmental and cognitive factors of communication barriers

A

Autism Spectrum Disorder
Down Syndrome
Dementia
Other Cognitive Disabilities
Psychiatric Disorders

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17
Q

environmental factors for communication barriers

A

Noise
Extreme Temperatures
Lighting
Outside Distractions

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18
Q

situational factors for communication barriers

A

Strong Emotions
Illicit Drug Use
Medications

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19
Q

cultural factors for communication barriers

A

language
religion
ethnicity

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20
Q

demographic factors of communication barriers

A

sexual orientation
age
gender

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21
Q

therapeutic communication

A
  • helps build trust between the nurse and client
  • encourages open communication
  • allows for immediate feedback
  • allows the client to feel heard
22
Q

therapeutic communication techniques

A

open-ended questions
silence
active listening
accepting
giving recognition
restating/summarizing/paraphrasing
reflection

23
Q

motivational interviewing

A

a form of therapeutic communication that allows the nurse and client to develop plans to promote the client using several techniques

24
Q

OARS

A

open-ended questions
affirmations
reflective listening
summarizing

25
Q

nontherapeutic techniques

A

opposite of therapeutic communication
- not listening
- rejecting what the client is saying
- being critical
- trying to reassure by dismissing concerns
- giving advice

26
Q

nontherapeutic techniques can?

A

hinder relationships
have poor outcomes
discourages communication

27
Q

whistleblowing

A

an act when a person formally reports on illegal, wrongdoing, or unethical practice

28
Q

chain of command

A

an organizational hierarchy identifying the lines of authority within an organization

29
Q

novice to expert

A

1 - the novice
2 - advanced beginner
3 - competence
4 - proficient
5 - expert

30
Q

transactional leader

A

establish standards, highlight obligations, concentrate on monitoring behaviors, and use rewards or punishments on how tasks are completed

31
Q

transformational leader

A

establish a common mission and vision and, in turn, encourage employees to heighten their level of performance

32
Q

Laissez-Faire leader

A

hands-off leader that oversees and encourages their team to work independently, providing little direct control over decision making

33
Q

bureaucratic leader

A

a “by-the-book” leader who relies heavily on consistency and adherence to rules within a top-down decision-making organization

34
Q

situational leader

A

transition or move from one leadership style to another depending on the circumstances

35
Q

the code of ethics

A
  • Refers to the ideals, duties, and obligations that nurses are expected to
    uphold as members of the nursing profession.
  • Developed by the ANA, this document outlines rules for nurses about client
    privacy, nursing conduct, and nursing behaviors to protect clients and the
    profession.
36
Q

professionalism

A

Embodies the actions, behaviors, and attitudes of an individual that are
reflective of the core values, ethical principles, and regulatory guidelines of the profession
- Clear Communicator
- Self-Reflective
- Responsible
- Respectful
- Advocate
- Trustworthy

37
Q

unprofessional

A

Refers to conduct that does not adhere to the standards of practice or the
code of ethics.
* Misconduct is often cited as “conduct unbecoming of a nurse,” which
means to dishonor, disgrace, or harm the standing or reputation of the
profession in the eyes of the public.

38
Q

incompetence

A

places the client in jeopardy of in harms way

39
Q

impairment

A

unable or unfit to practice

40
Q

the levels of communication

A

sender
receiver
message
feedback
channel

41
Q

electronic health record

A
  • Provides comprehensive records
    of a person’s health history
  • Is a means of communication for
    all health care providers involved in
    a client’s care.
  • Accounts for every treatment,
    diagnosis, and provider visit for
    billing
  • All components of an EHR can be
    used in a court of law
42
Q

The joint commission

A

an independent, nonprofit organization that accredits healthcare organizations in more than nine different types of healthcare settings

43
Q

types of documentation

A
  • Source-oriented medical records
  • Problem-oriented medical records
  • Subjective, objective, assessment, and plan charting (SOAP notes)
  • Problem–intervention–evaluation charting (PIE model)
  • Focus charting
  • Charting by exception (CBE)
44
Q

source-oriented documentation

A

traditional format for documenting for all disciplines.
- divided into sections:
history and physical
progress notes
nurses’ notes
lab reports
diagnostics

45
Q

problem-oriented medical records

A
  • developing a database
  • identifying and numbering specific problems based on history
  • formulating a plan of action
  • noting ongoing progress for each problem
46
Q

SOAP

A

subjective
objective
assessment
plan

47
Q

PIE

A

problem
intervention
evaluation

48
Q

focus charting

A

centers on specific healthcare:
problems
changes in condition
client events
concerns
DAR- data, action, response

49
Q

charting by exception

A

documents only unexpected or unusual findings

50
Q

FACT

A

factual
accurate
complete
timely

healthcare fundamentals (29 decks)

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