Exam 2: Host-Parasite Relationships: Pathogenesis of Infections Flashcards

1
Q

In any host-pathogen encounter, what are the 2 principal determinants of the outcome?

A

Virulence of the parasite

Resistance of the host

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What are opportunistic pathogens?

A

Bacteria or fungi that are generally harmless in their normal habitat but can cause disease when they gain entrance to other sites or tissues
They have a low potential to cause disease, but once disease is established, they can be difficult to treat

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is an obligate pathogen?

A

Organisms that always cause disease when it encounters a host

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is pathogenicity?

A

The capacity of an organism to cause disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is virulence?

A

The measure of the degree of pathogenicity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is infectivity?

A

The capacity of an organisms to become established in the tissues of the host
It involves the ability to penetrate the tissue, survive the host’s defenses, and disseminate within the animal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is toxigenicity?

A

The ability of certain organisms to produce exotoxins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

There are both toxigenic and nontoxigenic strains of Clostridium perfingens. Which has the ability to cause disease?

A

Toxigenic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is virulence factor?

A

A bacterial product or strategy that contributes to its ability to cause infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is the classical method to definitively determine whether an agent is causing disease?

A

Koch’s postulates

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What are Koch’s postulates?

A

The suspected agent is present in all cases of the disease
The agent is isolated from such disease and propagated serially in pure culture, apart from its natural host
Upon introduction into an experimental host, the isolate produces the original disease
The agent can be reisolated from this experimental infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What are the 2 basic mechanisms that bacteria cause disease by?

A

Direct damage of host cells

Indirectly by stimulating exaggerated host inflammatory/immune response

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is involved with direct damage of host cells?

A

Extracellular pathogens

Intracellular pathogens

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What are extracellular pathogens?

A

Secreted exotoxins or effector proteins cause damage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What do intracellular pathogens do?

A

Destruction of host cells or alteration of host cells’ function

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What are the 2 categories of virulence factors?

A

Those that cause damage to the host

Those that do not directly damage the host but promote colonization and survival of infecting bacteria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What are exotoxins?

A

Protein molecule liberated from intact living and lysed bacteria
They are antigenic and can elicit protective antitoxic antibodies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What can many exotoxins be converted to?

A

Nontoxic immunizing agents termed toxoids by treatment with formalin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What are the 3 roles of exotoxins in disease?

A

Ingestion of preformed toxin (botulism)
Colonization of wound or surface followed by toxin production
Exotoxin produced by bacteria in tissues to aid growth and spread

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What are the different types of exotoxins?

A

A-B toxins (intracellular acting)
Membrane disrupting (surface damaging)
Superantigens
Extracellular enzymes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What are A-B toxins composed of?

A

Two parts: A and B portions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What does the B portion of A-B toxins do?

A

The B potion mediates binding to a specific host cell receptor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What happens after the B part of A-B toxins bonds to the host cell?

A

The A portion is translocated into host cells and has biological activity against an intracellular target

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What do membrane disrupting exotoxins do?

A

Cause damage or disruption of plasma membranes, which leads to osmotic lysis and cell death

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What are many membrane disrupting exotoxins known to cause?

A

Damage to host tissues and contribute to virulence

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What 3 types of membrane disrupting toxins?

A

Enzymes that hydrolyze phospholipids
Toxins with detergent-like surfactant activity that disrupt by membrane solubilization
Pore forming toxins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What are pore forming toxins?

A

Proteins that insert in the host membrane and form a hydrophilic pore

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What are superantigens?

A

Toxins that bind directly to MHC II on macrophages and form a crosslink with T cell receptors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What does crosslinking with superantigens cause?

A

Stimulation of up to 1 in 5 T cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What does excessive IL-2 production from superantigens result from?

A

The massive stimulation of T helper cells, which causes nausea, malaise, and fever

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What does the stimulation of other cytokines by IL-2 with superantigens lead to?

A

Shock

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What do extracellular enzymes do?

A

Break down host macromolecules

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What do extracellular enzymes often play a role in?

A

Disease development by providing a source of carbon and energy or aiding in dissemination

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What can extracellular enzymes cause?

A

Extensive tissue damage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

How do some vaccines or bacterins elicit protective immunity from extracellular enzymes?

A

By neutralizing their activity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What is an endotoxin?

A

Lipopolysaccharide produced by pathogenic and nonpathogenic gram-negative bacteria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Describe lipopolysaccharide

A

Lipid A is the toxic portion

It is only release to exert its effect when bacteria lyse

38
Q

What is released LPS bound by?

A

LPS binding proteins in plasma, which the binds CD14

39
Q

What do CD14-LPS complexes bind?

A

Toll-like receptor 4 on macrophages and monocytes, which release cytokines causing prostaglandins and leukotriene release which activate complement and coagulation cascades

40
Q

What happens in bacteria sepsis with endotoxins?

A

The inflammatory response is triggered throughout the body

41
Q

When does septic shock (endotoxic shock) occur?

A

When bacterial products reach high enough levels in the blood to trigger complement activation, cytokine release, and coagulation cascade activation in many parts of the body

42
Q

What can the amount of endotoxin be determined by?

A

The limulus amebocyte lysate assay, which can detect nanogram amounts

43
Q

Describe limulus amebocyte lysate assay

A

Endotoxin reacts with proteins from horseshoe crab blood cells to produce a gel

44
Q

In gram-positive bacteria, although they lack LPS, what is septic shock like?

A

It is very similar to those with LPS by it is triggered by TLR2 or TLR1

45
Q

What does TLR2 bind?

A

Lipoproteins/teichoic acids

46
Q

What does TLR1 bind?

A

Peptidoglycan

47
Q

What is host damage caused by during invasion?

A

Direct disruption of function

An exaggerated immune response that compromises tissue function or homeostasis

48
Q

What are the invasive bacteria classified as?

A

Facultative Intracellular parasites
Obligate intracellular parasites
Extracellular parasites

49
Q

Describe facultative intracellular parasites

A

Not confined to cells

Some can multiple in professional phagocytic cells

50
Q

What happens with facultative intracellular pathogens when a balance is established between the bacterium and phagocyte?

A

The bacteria may survive in this intracellular state of relative equilibrium for months or years

51
Q

Describe obligate intracellular parasites

A

Can only propagate inside host cells

52
Q

Describe extracellular parasites

A

Cause tissue damage while they are outside phagocytes and other cells and do not have the ability to survive long periods in cells

53
Q

What are the steps in bacterial invasion?

A

Motility
Adherence
Invasion of host cells
Manipulation of host cell functions

54
Q

What is the best characterized thing for motility?

A

Flagella

55
Q

What is flagella adapted for?

A

Low viscosity fluids

56
Q

What are other types of motility?

A
Corkscrew type (spirochetes)
Gliding motility
57
Q

What is the corkscrew type motility best in?

A

Viscous solutions

58
Q

What is gliding motility?

A

Movement over solid surfaces

59
Q

What is chemotaxis?

A

Directional swimming using a gradient

60
Q

How does chemotaxis occur?

A

1: Bacteria senses the concentration gradient of the attractant and move through the medium in the direction of the attractant
2: When moving to an area of higher concentration, the peritrichous flagella twist together and the bunched flagella rotate as one in a counterclockwise direction
3: When rotating in a clockwise direction, the flagella spread apart. The force of many flagella on the cell causes a tumbling motion to occur

61
Q

What are the 2 common strategies of adherence?

A

Fimbriae and monomeric protein adhesins

62
Q

Describe fimbriae

A

Receptors are usually carbohydrate residues of glycoproteins or glycolipids
Attachement is more fragile
Highly specific binding, often mediated by adhesins, can be blocked by antibodies, often specific for host tissue type/location

63
Q

What are the 2 types of bacterial-mediated invasion?

A

Zippering

Triggering

64
Q

What is zippering?

A

Bacteria present ligands on their surface allowing them to bind to host cells and initiate the entry process

65
Q

What is triggering?

A

Bacteria inject effectors into host cells via T3SS to regulate phagocytosis

66
Q

What happens following attachment to host cells?

A

Pathogens cause changes in host cell cytoskeleton that cause the pathogen to be internalized

67
Q

What can some pathogens utilize to move through host cells?

A

Actin fiber intracellularly

68
Q

What may invasins do?

A

Mediate uptake of bacteria into professional phagocytic cells in a way that bypasses normal phagosome formation

69
Q

What can bacterial pathogens do to host cell functions?

A

They are often very manipulative of them

Both extracellular and intracellular pathogens will cause host cells to perform functions favorable to the pathogen

70
Q

What does a type III secretion system that some bacterial pathogens have do?

A

Forms a needle-like structure that injects effector proteins directly into the host cell cytoplasm

71
Q

What can the effector proteins injected by T3SS do?

A

Serve as receptors in the host membrane for bacterial attachment
Mobilize cytoskeleton to cause phagocytosis
Can induce or prevent apoptosis

72
Q

What must bacteria be able to do during infection?

A

Obtain all of their essential nutrients

73
Q

What is a very nutrient rich environment?

A

Host cytoplasm

74
Q

How do extracellular pathogens obtain nutrients?

A

They often lyse cells

75
Q

How do intracellular pathogens obtain nutrients?

A

They either escape from phagosomes to enter the nutrient rich cytoplasm or modify the vacuole so they can get nutrients from cytoplasm

76
Q

What are host tissues very low in iron?

A

Because it is bound to transferrin, lactoferrin, ferritin, and heme

77
Q

What are the bacterial strategies for obtaining iron?

A

Siderophores
Direct binding of host transferrin, lactoferrin, ferritin, or heme by bacteria surface receptors
Exotoxins that lyse host cells

78
Q

What are siderophores?

A

Low MW compounds that chelate iron with very high affinity

Secreted and taken up by bacteria surface receptors

79
Q

What is serum resistant to?

A

Complement

80
Q

What is serum resistance defined as?

A

The ability to prevent bacterial lysis by the C5b-CP MAC

81
Q

How does capsule mediate serum resistance to complement?

A

Preventing C3b binding

Promoting C3bH complex formation instead of C3bBb

82
Q

How can O polysaccharide mediate serum resistance to complement?

A

Having sialic acid attached to promote C3bH formation

Having long O polysaccharide side chains that prevent MAC killing after C5b binds

83
Q

What allows for resistance to opsonization/phagocytosis?

A

Capsule
LPS O polysaccharide if it has sialic acid
S-layer
Extracellular products

84
Q

What are the extracellular products that contribute to resistance to opsonization/phagocytosis?

A

Enzymes that inactivate C5a chemoattractant
Toxins that kill phagocytes
Inhibit migration
Reduce oxidative burst

85
Q

What are strategies for surviving phagocytosis?

A

Escape from phagosome before fusion with lysosome
Prevent phagosome-lysosome fusion
Express factors that allow survival in harsh phagolysosome conditions

86
Q

How does evading antibody response occur?

A

sIgA proteases
Phase variation or antigenic switching
Masking

87
Q

Describe virulence gene regulation

A

Regulon-coordinated control of group of virulence factors that are activated or deactivated in response to environmental signal
Allows bacterial pathogen to adapt to varying host conditions

88
Q

What can virulence gene expression be triggered by?

A

When a pathogen senses environmental cues from the host environment

89
Q

What is virulence gene expression triggered by?

A

Quorum sensing

90
Q

What is quorum sensing?

A

When a pathogen detects sufficient bacterial numbers are present

91
Q

What can mutations in regulatory genes do?

A

Either deactivate multiple virulence genes or cause inappropriate expression