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Spinal > Exam 1 > Flashcards

Exam 1 Flashcards

1
Q

4 basic tissues of human body

A

Epithelial
Muscle
Neural
Connective

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2
Q

Osteoblasts function

A

Form bone

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3
Q

Osteocyte function

A

Maintain/ nurture bone

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4
Q

Osteoclasts function

A

Remodel bone

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5
Q

Primary constituent of ground substance

A

GAGS

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6
Q

Types of GAGs predominate in bone

A

Chondroitin sulfate
Keratin sulfate
Hyaluronic acid

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7
Q

Principal type of protein fiber in bone

A

Collagen type 1

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8
Q

Most frequently described deposit in bone

A

Hydroxyapatite

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9
Q

Bone is also repository for these ions…

A 
Sodium
Magnesium
Fluoride
Lead
Strontium
Radium
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10
Q

Wolff’s Law

A

Living tissue will respond to stressors such as anxiety, tension, or pressure

Bone is formed or absorbed in response to these same stressors

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11
Q

3 responses of “living” bone

A

Heal
Remodel under stressors (anxiety, tension, pressure)
Age

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12
Q

Bone is embryological derivative of which CT?

A

Mesenchyme and/or cartilage

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13
Q

Name given to patter of ossification in mesenchyme

A

Intramembranous ossification

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14
Q

Timing for appearance of intramembranous ossification

A

2-3 months in utero

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15
Q

What part of axial skeleton is primarily formed by intramembranous ossification?

A

Skull

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16
Q

Name given to pattern of ossification in cartilage

A

Endochondral ossification

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17
Q

Timing for appearance of ossification in cartilage

A

2-5 months in utero

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18
Q

Which skull bones are ossified by both endochondral and intramembranous ossification?

A

Mandible
Sphenoid
Temporal bone
Occipital bone

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19
Q

Which bone of appendicular skeleton is formed by both endochondral and intramembranous ossification?

A

Clavicle

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20
Q

Names given to centers of ossification based on time of appearance?

A

Primary centers- appear before birth

Secondary centers- appear after birth

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21
Q

Mature bone composed of what areas based on bone density?

A

Cortical/compact bone

Spongy/cancellous/trabecular bone

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22
Q

Name given to bone below an articulating surface?

A

Subchondral bone

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23
Q

Name of outer fibro-cellular covering of bone

A

Periosteum

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24
Q

Name given to fibro-cellular lining of bone

A

Endosteum

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25
Q

Primary sources of variation observed in bone

A

Sexual dimorphism
Ontogenic variation
Geographic/population-based variation
Idiosyncratic variation

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26
Q

Sexual Dimorphism

A

Differences based on gender

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27
Q

Ontogenic variation

A

Differences based on age or developmental variation

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28
Q

Geographic Variation

A

Differences based on ethnicity or locational variation

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29
Q

Idiosyncratic variation

A

Differences based on uniqueness between individuals

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30
Q

Primary constituent of bone mineral

A

Calcium
Phosphate
Citrate
Carbonate ions

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31
Q

Bone cells embedded in….

A

Amorphous matrix consisting of ground substance, protein fibers, and various minerals

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32
Q

6 classifications of bone

A 
Long bones
Short bones
Flat bones
Irregular bones
Paranasal sinus/pneumatic bones
Sesamoid bones
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33
Q

Which classification of bone are characteristic of appendicular skeleton?

A

Long bones, short bones, sesamoid bones

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34
Q

What is characteristic feature of long bone?

A

Longer than it is across

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35
Q

Names given to parts of long bone

A 
Diaphysis (shaft)
2 epiphyses (extremities)
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36
Q

Primary characteristic of short bones

A

Cuboidal

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37
Q

Examples of short bones

A

Most bones of carpus and tarsus

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38
Q

Characteristic of sesamoid bones

A

Bone develops within tendon

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39
Q

Examples of sesamoid bone

A

Patella

Pisiform

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40
Q

Classifications of bones characteristic of axial skeleton

A

Flat, irregular, paranasal sinus/pneumatic bones

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41
Q

What are flat bones?

A

Thin layer of spongy bone between 2 layers of compact bone

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42
Q

Examples of flat bone

A

Parietal bone

Sternum

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43
Q

Characteristic of irregular bone

A

Numerous projections/ irregular outlines

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44
Q

Examples of irregular bones

A

Vertebrae

Innominate bones

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45
Q

Characteristic of pneumatic bone

A

Air spaces within bone

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46
Q

Examples of pneumatic bone

A

Frontal, ethmoid, maxilla, sphenoid, temporal

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47
Q

What bones contain paranasal sinuses?

A

Frontal, ethmoid, maxilla, sphenoid

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48
Q

Classifications given to abnormal bone

A

Accessory and heterotopic bone

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49
Q

Name given to bone formed from existing bone

A

Accessory bone

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50
Q

Examples of accessory bone

A

Para-articular processes and bony spurs of vertebrae

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51
Q

Name given to bone formed in non-bone location

A

Heterotopic bone

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52
Q

Examples of heterotopic bone

A

Calcific deposits in pineal gland, heart, and ligaments

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53
Q

How many bones form appendicular skeleton

A

126

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54
Q

How many bones form axial skeleton

A

80

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55
Q

What bones form axial skeleton

A

Skull, hyoid, vertebral column, sternum

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56
Q

Long bone definition

A

Length of the bone is greater than the breadth

Consists of shaft (diaphysis) and two ends (epiphyses)

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57
Q

Short bone definition

A

Appearance is cuboidal

-Ex: carpus and tarsus

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58
Q

Sesamoid bone definition

A

Round or oval bones located within tendons

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59
Q

Sesamoid bone examples

A

Patella, pisiform, and fabella

  • also between metacarpals/tarsals and proximal phalanges of hand and foot
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60
Q

Flat bone definition

A

Thin layer of spongy bone sandwiched between two layers of compact bone
**can be curved

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61
Q

Spongy bone of “flat” bone

A

Diploe

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62
Q

Irregular bone definition

A

Numerous projections or irregular outlines

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63
Q

Irregular bone examples

A

Scapula
Skull bones (except parietal bone)
Vertebrae

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64
Q

Paranasal bone

A

Associated with paranasal sinuses

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65
Q

Paranasal bone examples

A

Frontal
Ethmoid
Maxilla
Sphenoid

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66
Q

Pneumatic bone

A

Exhibits small air spaces within the bone

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67
Q

Pneumatic bone examples

A

Frontal, ethmoid, maxilla, sphenoid, temporal

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68
Q

Accessory bone

A

Formed from periosteum of existing bone

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69
Q

Accessory bone examples

A

Para-articular processes

Bony spurs

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70
Q

Heterotopic bone

A

Formed from cells within nonbone-related tissues as a result of healing process, disease, stress, and/or age

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71
Q

Location examples of heterotopic bone

A

Pineal gland
Heart
Ligaments

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72
Q

Four general categories of surface features of bones

A

Elevations
Depressions
Tunnels/passageways
Facets

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73
Q

Axial skeleton components

A 
Skull
Hyoid bone
Vertebral column
Sternum
Ribs
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74
Q

Number of bones in axial skeleton

A

80

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75
Q

Number of bones in appendicular skeleton

A

126

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76
Q

3 parts of skull classification

A

Neurocranium
Facial skeleton/splanchnocranium
Auditory ossicles

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77
Q

Number of bones in skull

A

28

**sometimes 22 if not counting auditory ossicles

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78
Q

Neurocranium definition

A

Bones that surround brain (8)

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79
Q

Neurocranium bones

A

Ethmoid, sphenoid, occipital, frontal (unpaired)

Temporal and parietal (paired)

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80
Q

Facial skeleton/splanchnocranium

A

Bones that support the face/front of the head (14)

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81
Q

Facial skeleton/splanchnocranium bones

A

Vomer and mandible (unpaired)

Nasal, lacrimal, palatine, maxilla, zygomatic and inferior nasal concha (paired)

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82
Q

Splanchnocranium (visceral cranium)

A

Consists of the bones of the facial skeleton minus the mandible

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83
Q

Auditory ossicles

A

Bones of middle ear located within temporal bone

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84
Q

Auditory ossicle names

A

Stapes (stirrup)
Incus (anvil)
Malleus (hammer)
**all paired

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85
Q

Hyoid bone location

A

Below the tongue and above the larynx

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86
Q

Number of bones in adult vertebral/spinal column

A

26

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87
Q

Number of bones in spine

A

24

**sacrum and coccyx left out

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88
Q

Sternum regions

A

Manubrium sterni
Corpus sterni (gladiolus/body)
Xiphoid process

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89
Q

Number of ribs

A

24 ribs (12 pairs)

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90
Q

Number of adolescent vertebrae

A

33 segments

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91
Q

Number of vertebrae in adult

A

26 segments

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92
Q

What constitutes the spine?

A

24 presacral segments; cervical, thoracic, and lumbar vertebrae

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93
Q

How many segments unite to form the typical sacrum?

A

5 segments

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94
Q

How many segments unite to form the coccyx?

A

4 segments

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95
Q

What does ‘cervical’ refer to?

A

Region of neck

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96
Q

Typical number of segments in cervical region?

A

7 segments

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97
Q

What does ‘thoracic’ refer to?

A

Breast plate or chest

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98
Q

Other term used to ID vertebral segments of the chest?

A

Dorsal segments

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99
Q

Number of segments in dorsal/thoracic region

A

12 segments

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100
Q

What does ‘lumbar’ refer to?

A

Region between rib and hip

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101
Q

Number of segments in lumbar region

A

5 segments

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102
Q

What does ‘sacrum’ mean

A

Holy bone

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103
Q

What does coccyx refer to

A

Cuckoo bird’s bill

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104
Q

Which region of the spine is more stable in terms of the number of segments/vertebrae?

A

Cervical region

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105
Q

Length of typical male spinal column

A

70 cm

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106
Q

Length of typical female spinal column

A

60 cm

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107
Q

Difference in length between male and female spinal column

A

3 inches

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108
Q

Length of male cervical region

A

12 cm

5 in

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109
Q

Length of male thoracic region

A

28 cm

11 in

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110
Q

Length of male lumbar region

A

18 cm

7 in

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111
Q

Length of male sacrum

A

12 cm

5 in

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112
Q

What is the length of the male spine?

A

58 cm

23 in

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113
Q

How does the vertebral column participate in protection of neural tissues?

A

Spinal cord and beginning PNS are located in vertebral segments

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114
Q

How does vertebral column participate in protection of viscera?

A

Ribs are attached to vertebrae to form the thorax plus protecting the heart and lungs

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115
Q

What parts of the body are supported by vertebral column?

A

Head, upper extremities, ribs, viscera, and pelvis

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116
Q

How does the vertebral column participate in skeletal formation?

A

Ribs are formed from the costal process of embryonic vertebral template

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117
Q

What levels of vertebral column specifically accommodate weight-bearing transfer?

A

S1-S3 at Auricular surface

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118
Q

Motion

A

Movement without travel

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119
Q

Locomotion

A

Movement to a new site or location

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120
Q

What is responsible for shape and position of human frame?

A

Comparative anterior vs. posterior height of vertebral body and comparative anterior vs. posterior height of intervertebral disc

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121
Q

How does the vertebral column accommodate transmission?

A

Peripheral nerve communicates with central nerve system via the intervertebral foramen

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122
Q

What organs are specifically associated with the horizontal axis of the skull?

A

Eye and vestibular apparatus of the inner ear

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123
Q

How is the vertebral column involved in stabilization of visceral function?

A

Integrity of spinal column enhances appropriate nerve system control of viscera

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124
Q

When does embryonic disc form?

A

2nd wk in utero

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125
Q

When does gastrulation occur (3 layered embryo form)

A

3rd wk in utero

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126
Q

What are the 3 layers of embryo called?

A

Ectoderm, mesoderm, endoderm

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127
Q

Invagination of ectoderm along primitive streak gives rise to what embryonic structure?

A

Notochord

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128
Q

What is the name given to mesoderm that will give rise to vertebral column

A

Paraxial mesoderm

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129
Q

What does paraxial mesoderm give rise to that will form vertebral column

A

Somites

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130
Q

Areas of cellular differentiation formed within somite

A

Sclerotome
Myotome
Dermatome

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131
Q

Part of somite that gives rise to vertebral column

A

Sclerotome

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132
Q

Order of successive vertebral columns formed during development

A

Membranous, cartilaginous, skeletal/osseous

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133
Q

Migration of sclerotomes to surround notochord forms what developmental feature?

A

Perichordal blastema

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134
Q

Perichordal blastema gives rise to what processes?

A

Neural processes and costal processes

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135
Q

Name of artery between adjacent perichordal blastemae

A

Intersegmental artery

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136
Q

Cell proliferation within perichordal blastema will result in what feature

A

Loose cranial sclerotomite and dense caudal sclerotomite

137
Q

What forms between sclerotomites of perichordal blastema

A

Intrasclerotomal fissure

138
Q

Intrasclerotomal fissure gives rise to what developmental feature

A

Perichordal disc

139
Q

Perichordal disc in what location of adult

A

Intervertebral disc

140
Q

Earliest embryonic feature that will identify position of adult intervertebral disc

A

Intrasclerotomal fissure

141
Q

Dense caudal sclerotomite + loose cranial sclerotomite from adjacent perichordal blastema give rise to

A

Vertebral blastema

142
Q

Vessel adjacent to vertebral blastema

A

Segmental artery

143
Q

When will cartilage first form membranous vertebral blastema

A

Beginning in 6th embryonic week

144
Q

Name given to replacement of mesoderm by cartilage

A

Chondrification

145
Q

Chondrification first ID’ed in which region of embryonic vertebral column

A

Cervical region

146
Q

Names given to centers of chondrification within vertebral blastema

A

Centrum center
Neural arch center
Transverse process center

147
Q

How many centers of chondrification typically appear in vertebral blastema

A

6

2 for centrum
2 for neural arch
2 for each transverse process

148
Q

Earliest time centers of ossification appear in cartilaginous vertebrae?

A

7th embryonic wk

149
Q

Ossification begins in which region of embryonic vertebral column

A

Lower cervical- upper thoracic region

150
Q

Ratio of primary to secondary centers of ossification for vertebrae

A

3 primary : 5 secondary

151
Q

Names of primary centers of ossification for typical vertebra

A

Centrum centers and neural arch centers

152
Q

How many primary centers of ossification appear in typical vertebra

A

3

1 for centrum
2 for neural arches

153
Q

Classification of joint forming between primary centers of ossification

A

Cartilage synchondrosis / amphiarthrosis synchondrosis

154
Q

Names of synchondroses forming between primary centers of ossification in vertebrae

A

Neurocentral synchondrosis and neural arch synchondrosis

155
Q

Names of 5 secondary centers of ossification

A

Tip of transverse process
Tip of spinous process
Epiphyseal plate centers

156
Q

How many secondary centers of ossification

A

5

1 for tip of each transverse process
1 for tip of spinous process
1 for each epiphyseal plate

157
Q

Classification of joint forming between secondary centers of ossification and rest of vertebrae

A

Cartilage synchondrosis/ amphiarthrosis synchondrosis

158
Q

Names of synchondroses forming between secondary centers of ossification and rest of vertebrae

A

Tip of transverse process synchondrosis, tip of spinous process synchondrosis, epiphyseal ring synchondrosis

159
Q

Range of appearance for secondary centers of ossification

A

Puberty; ages 11-16 years old

160
Q

3 basic osseous parts of vertebrae

A

Vertebral body, vertebral arch, apophyseal regions

161
Q

What is formed by vertebral body and vertebral arch

A

Vertebral foramen

162
Q

What is shape of vertebral body of cervicals

A

Rectangular

163
Q

Shape of vertebral body of thoracics

A

Triangular

164
Q

Shape of vertebral body of lumbars

A

Reniform

165
Q

Name given to compact bone at superior and inferior surfaces of vertebral body

A

Superior epiphyseal rim

Inferior epiphyseal rim

166
Q

Cartilage found at superior and inferior surfaces of developing vertebral body

A

Superior epiphyseal plate

Inferior epiphyseal plate

167
Q

Openings found around margins of vertebral body

A

Nutrient foramina or vascular foramina

168
Q

Vessel entering nutrient or vascular foramen

A

Osseous artery

169
Q

Large vessel exiting back of vertebral body

A

Basivertebral vein

170
Q

Semicircular region of bone attached to back of vertebral body

A

Vertebral arch

171
Q

Anterior part of vertebral arch

A

Pedicle

172
Q

Posterior part of vertebral arch

A

Lamina

173
Q

Intermediate part of vertebral arch where transverse process and articular processes attach

A

Lamina-pedicle junction

174
Q

Feature located at upper and lower surfaces of pedicle

A

Superior vertebral notch

Inferior vertebral notch

175
Q

Generic orientation of pedicle for each region of the spine

A

Cervical- posterolateral
Thoracic- posterior, slight lateral
Lumbar- posterior

176
Q

All Lamina oriented in what direction?

A

Posterior and median

177
Q

Overlap of laminae seen on X-ray

A

Shingling

178
Q

Ligament attached to lamina

A

Ligamentum flavum

179
Q

Abnormal bone at attachment site of ligamentum flavum

A

Para-articular process

180
Q

Classification of bone for the para-articular processes

A

Accessory bone

181
Q

Lamina-pedicle junction at each region of the spine

A

Cervical- articular pillar

Thoracic and lumbar- pars interarticularis

182
Q

Junction of vertebral arch-spinous process on lateral X-ray

A

Spinolaminar junction

183
Q

Tubular bone growth regions of vertebral arch

A

Apophyseal regions

184
Q

Orientation of transverse process at each region of spine

A

Cervical- anterolateral
Thoracic- posterolateral
Lumbar- lateral

185
Q

All non-rib bearing vertebra of spine retain what feature

A

Costal element

186
Q

Rounded elevation at end of transverse apophysis or transverse process

A

Transverse tubercle

187
Q

What will cause the transverse process to alter its initial direction in cervical region?

A

Cervical spinal nerves are pulled forward and downward to form the cervical and brachial plexuses, thus remodeling the transverse process to accommodate their new position

188
Q

What will cause the transverse process to alter its initial direction in thoracic growth?

A

Growth of lungs remodel the shape of the ribs which in turn push the transverse processes backward

189
Q

Articular process supports….

A

Articular facet

190
Q

Joint formed between articular facets of vertebral couple

A

Zygapophysis

191
Q

Bone surface at front of zygapophysis

A

Superior articular facet

192
Q

Bone surface at back of zygapophysis

A

Inferior articular facet

193
Q

Part of vertebrae which supports the front of the zygapophysis

A

Superior articular apophysis
Superior articular process
Pre-zygapophysis

194
Q

Part of vertebra which supports back of zygapophysis

A

Inferior articular apophysis
Inferior articular process
Post-zygapophysis

195
Q

In vertebral couple, the part of vertebra which lies anterior to zygapophysis

A

Pre-zygapophysis

196
Q

In vertebral couple, part of vertebra which lies posterior to zygapophysis

A

Post-zygapophysis

197
Q

Part of vertebra forming pre-zygapophysis

A

Superior articular process

198
Q

Part of vertebra forming post-zygapophysis

A

Inferior articular process

199
Q

Method of calculating angle of spinous process

A

Calculate angle formed between undersurface of spinous process and horizontal plane

200
Q

Normal overlap of spinous processes on X-ray

A

Imbrication

201
Q

Rounded elevation at tip of spinous process

A

Spinous tubercle

202
Q

Orientation of spinous process at each region of spine

A

Cervical- slight angle inferiorly
Thoracic- noticeable angle inferiorly
Lumbar- no inferior angle

203
Q

What will form posterior boundary of typical intervertebral foramen

A

Inferior articular process (post-zygapophysis)
Superior articular process (pre-zygapophysis)
Capsular ligament
Ligamentum flavum

204
Q

What will form superior boundary of intervertebral foramen

A

Inferior vertebral notch

205
Q

What will form inferior boundary of intervertebral foramen

A

Superior vertebral notch

206
Q

What will form anterior boundary of intervertebral foramen

A

Vertebral body of segment above, vertebral body of segment below, intervertebral disc, posterior longitudinal ligament

207
Q

Opening located within vertebral body - vertebral arch enclosure

A

Vertebral foramen

208
Q

Union of all vertebral foramina forms vertical cylinder called

A

Vertebral canal / spinal canal

209
Q

What neural structures will occupy the vertebral foramen until level L2

A

Spinal cord
Proximal part of peripheral nerve system
Meninges

210
Q

Typical shape/outline of vertebral foramen at each region of spinal column

A

Cervical- triangular
Thoracic- oval
Lumbar-triangular
Sacrum- triangular

211
Q

What vertebral level will spinal cord typically terminate

A

L1

212
Q

Vertebral level dural sac terminates

A

S2

213
Q

All segmental arteries of vertebral column

A 
Vertebral 
Ascending cervical
Deep cervical
Superior intercostal
Posterior intercostal
Subcostal
Lumbar
Iliolumbar
Lateral sacral and medial sacral
214
Q

Segmental arteries arising in C spine

A

Vertebral artery, ascending cervical artery and deep cervical artery

215
Q

Segmental arteries of t spine

A

Deep cervical artery, superior intercostal artery, posterior intercostal artery and subcostal artery

216
Q

Segmental arteries of lumbar spine

A

Lumbar arteries, iliolumbar artery, lateral sacral artery and median sacral artery

217
Q

Segmental arteries of 5th lumbar vertebra

A

Iliolumbar artery, lateral sacral artery and median sacral artery

218
Q

Segmental arteries of sacrum

A

Iliolumbar artery, lateral sacral artery and median sacral artery

219
Q

Segmental levels supplies by vertebral artery

A

C1-C6

220
Q

Segmental levels supplies by ascending cervical artery

A

C1-C6

221
Q

Segmental levels supplied by deep cervical artery

A

C7-T1

222
Q

Segmental levels supplied by superior intercostal artery

A

T1

T2

223
Q

Segmental levels supplied by posterior intercostal artery

A

T3-T11

224
Q

Segmental levels supplied by subcostal artery

A

T12

225
Q

Segmental levels supplied by lumbar arteries

A

L1-L4

226
Q

Segmental levels supplied by median sacral artery

A

L5
S1-S5
Coccyx

227
Q

Segmental levels supplied by lateral sacral artery

A

L5
S1-S5
Coccyx

228
Q

Vertebra with greatest number of segmental arteries associated with it

A

L5

229
Q

Segmental arteries for L5

A

Iliolumbar artery
Median sacral artery
Lateral sacral artery

230
Q

Branch of segmental artery supplying vertebra and paravertebral region

A

Dorsospinal artery

231
Q

Artery primarily observed in distal part of intervertebral foramen

A

Spinal artery

232
Q

Branch of dorsospinal artery that penetrates meninges to enter subarachnoid space

A

Spinal artery

233
Q

Branches of spinal artery supplying contents of epidural space

A

Osseous artery
Anterior spinal canal artery
Posterior spinal canal artery

234
Q

Arteries observed in epidural space near posterior longitudinal ligament

A

Anterior spinal canal artery and plexus

235
Q

Arteries observed in epidural space near ligamentum flavum

A

Posterior spinal canal artery and plexus

236
Q

Branches of spinal artery that supply contents of subarachnoid space

A

Anterior radicular artery
Posterior radicular artery
Anterior medullary feeder artery
Posterior medullary feeder artery

237
Q

Vessel that supplies ventral nerve rootlet and nerve root

A

Anterior radicular artery

238
Q

Vessel that supplies dorsal Nerve rootlet, nerve root and nerve root ganglion

A

Posterior radicular artery

239
Q

Artery that enlarges and forms medullary feeder artery

A

Radicular artery

240
Q

Artery that lies in fron of spinal cord along its length

A

Anterior spinal artery

241
Q

Anterior spinal artery is branch of which artery

A

Vertebral artery

242
Q

Is the Anterior spinal artery a single, continuous artery along spinal cord?

A

No

243
Q

As anterior spinal artery continues along spinal cord, which arteries unite along its length to give the appearance of a single continuous vessel

A

Anterior medullary feeder arteries

244
Q

Posterior spinal artery is branch of

A

Posterior inferior cerebellar artery

245
Q

Position of posterior spinal artery relative to spinal cord

A

Lies in posterolateral sulcus along spinal cord

246
Q

Posterior spinal artery a single, continuous artery along spinal cord?

A

NO

247
Q

As Posterior spinal artery continues along spinal cord, which arteries unite along its length to give appearance of single continuous vessel

A

Posterior medullary feeder arteries

248
Q

What forms arterial vasa corona

A

Anterior spinal arteries
Posterior spinal arteries
Communicating arteries

249
Q

Generic name given to arteries that penetrate spinal cord

A

Intermedullary arteries

250
Q

Intramedullary branches of arterial vasa corona

A

Pial perforating arteries

Central perforating arteries

251
Q

What artery gives off ventral perforating arteries

A

Anterior spinal artery

252
Q

What arterial vasa corona branches supply gray matter and most of spinal cord

A

Ventral perforating arteries

253
Q

What intramedullary branches supply about 1/3 of spinal cord

A

Pial perforating arteries

254
Q

Source for pial perforating arteries

A

Pial plexus

255
Q

What arteries form pial plexus

A

Posterior spinal arteries and communicating arteries

256
Q

Arteries responsible for supplementing arterial vasa corona along cord

A

Anterior medullary feeders

Posterior medullary feeders

257
Q

What veins drain spinal cord

A

Pial veins

258
Q

What will pial veins drain into

A

Venous vasa corona

259
Q

Which vessels form venous vasa corona

A

Anterior longitudinal veins
Posterior longitudinal veins
Communicating veins

260
Q

Vessels that drain venous vasa corona

A

Anterior medullary veins

Posterior medullary veins

261
Q

Which vessels drain ventral nerve roots

A

Anterior radicular veins

262
Q

Which vessels will drain dorsal nerve roots

A

Posterior radicular veins

263
Q

What vessel will drain dorsal nerve root ganglion

A

Posterior radicular veins

264
Q

What veins are observed in epidural space near posterior longitudinal ligament

A

Anterior internal vertebral venous plexus

Basivertebral vein

265
Q

What lumenal feature of anterior internal vertebral venous plexus vessels may function like valves of typical veins

A

Trabeculae

266
Q

Veins observed in epidural space near ligamentum flavum

A

Posterior internal vertebral venous plexus

267
Q

Venous vessels in intervertebral foramen

A

Intervertebral veins

268
Q

Unique feature of veins along spinal canal

A

Lack bicuspid valve of typical veins

269
Q

Meninges of spinal cord

A

Dura, arachnoid and pia maters

270
Q

Accepted meaning of dura mater

A

Tough mother

271
Q

Accepted meaning of arachnoid mater

A

Spider mother

272
Q

Accepted meaning of pia mater

A

Delicate mother

273
Q

Name of fluid within epidural space

A

Interstitial fluid

274
Q

Vascular contents of epidural space

A

Anterior and posterior spinal canal artery & plexus
Anterior and posterior internal vertebral venous plexus
Basivertebral vein

275
Q

Fluid present in subdural space

A

Serous fluid

276
Q

Neural content of epidural space

A

Recurrent meningeal nerve

277
Q

Ligaments associated with epidural space

A

Hofmann/anterior dural/meningovertebral ligaments
Ligamentum flavum
Posterior longitudinal ligament

278
Q

Blood vessels of epidural space near vertebral body

A

Anterior spinal canal artery & plexus
Anterior internal vertebral venous plexus
Basivertebral vein

279
Q

Nerves of epidural space found near vertebral body

A

Recurrent meningeal nerve

280
Q

Ligaments of epidural space found near vertebral body

A

Hofmann ligaments and posterior longitudinal ligaments

281
Q

Blood vessels of epidural space found near lamina

A

Posterior spinal canal artery & plexus

Posterior internal vertebral venous plexus

282
Q

Which meningeal space is thought to be a potential space

A

Subdural space

Between dura and arachnoid

283
Q

Name given to fluid in subarachnoid space

A

Cerebrospinal fluid

284
Q

Ligaments present in subarachnoid space

A

Dentate/denticulate ligament

285
Q

Name given to lateral extension of pia mater along spinal cord

A

Dentate ligament

286
Q

Unique feature of veins along spinal canal

A

Lack bicuspid valve of typical veins

287
Q

Spinal cord enlargement locations

A

C3-T1 cervical enlargement

T9-T12 lumbar enlargement

288
Q

Greatest transverse diameter of spinal cord

A

C6

289
Q

Spinal nerve that originate from lumbar enlargement

A

L1-S3 spinal nerves

290
Q

Caudal end of spinal cord

A

Conus medullaris

291
Q

Spinal nerves originate from conus medullaris

A

S4, S5 and Co1 typically

292
Q

Which vertebral foramen will conus medullaris typically be observed

A

L1

293
Q

Name given to nerve roots below L1

A

Cauda equina

294
Q

Continuation of pia mater below conus medullaris

A

Filum terminale internum

295
Q

Location and name given to area where all meninges first converge at caudal part of vertebral column

A

Typically S2, dural cul de sac

296
Q

What part of filum terminale has neural tissue been identified

A

Proximal part of filum terminale internum

297
Q

Neural tissue associated with filum terminale internum appears to innervate

A

Lower limbs and external anal sphincter

298
Q

Last arterial vasa corona creates what feature on angiogram

A

Cruciate anastomosis

299
Q

Name given to caudal attachment of meninges

A

Coccygeal medullary vestige

300
Q

Name given to condition in which conus medullaris located below L1 and filum terminale is thickened

A

Tethered cord symdrome

301
Q

Relationship between scoliosis and tethered cord syndrome

A

Column will change normal curvatures to mitigate damage to spinal cord caused by a tethered cord

302
Q

At the IVF, what is the relationship between spinal nerve number and vertebral number along the cervical spine?

A

In the cervical spine, spinal nerves exit above the segment they are numbered after (C8 nerve is the exception to this rule). C3 nerve exits above C3 or between C2/C3

303
Q

At the IVF, what is the relationship between spinal nerve number and vertebral number along the thoracic and lumbar spine and the sacrum?

A

Spinal nerves exit below the segment they are numbered after (Co1 nerve is the exception).

T6 nerve exits below T6 or between T6/T7

304
Q

What is the relationship between spinal nerve number, rib number and vertebral number in a thoracic intervertebral foramen?

A

The spinal nerve number relates to the upper segment number in the vertebral couple the rib number relates to the lower segment number in the vertebral couple

ie T3 nerve exits the intervertebral foramen formed by T3/T4 and rib 4 joints with this vertebral couple

305
Q

The osseous modification observed on the front of the anterior arch of C1

A

The anterior tubercle

306
Q

What is observed on the back of the anterior arch of C1?

A

The fovea dentis

307
Q

What attaches behind the anterior arch of C1

A

Lateral mass

308
Q

What is the name of the rounded elevation on the medial aspect of the lateral mass of C1?

A

Tubercle for the transverse atlantal ligament

309
Q

What is identified in the midline at thee back of the posterior arch of C1?

A

Posterior tubercle

310
Q

What superior surface modification of the posterior arch of C1 is present near the lateral mass?

A

Groove/sulcus for the vertebral artery

311
Q

What superior surface modification is present near the posterior tubercle of the posterior arch of C1?

A

The accurate rim

312
Q

What attaches to the accurate rim of the posterior arch of atlas and to the superior articulate process of the lateral mass of atlas?

A

A complete ponticulus porticus

313
Q

Based on the amount of bone union between the superior articulate process and the accurate rim of C1 what structure will form?

A

An incomplete ponticulus ponticus or a complete ponticulus posticus

314
Q

What names are given to the opening formed by the ponticulus posticus?

A

Accurate foramen or retroarticular canal

315
Q

What is observed on the undersurface of the posterior arch of C1?

A

The inferior vertebral notch

316
Q

What is the name given to the anterior part of the transverse process of C1?

A

The costal element

317
Q

What is the name given to the posterior part of the transverse process of C1?

A

True transverse process

318
Q

What is the distal most part of the transverse process of C1?

A

The posterior tubercle

319
Q

What unique vertebral body modification is characteristic of C2?

A

The dens or odontoid process

320
Q

What surfaces are present on the odontoid process of C2?

A

Facet for fovea dentis, groove for transverse atlantal ligament, attachment sites for the alar ligaments, attachment site for the apical-dental ligament

321
Q

What feature is identified on the anterior surface of the vertebral body of C2?

A

The longus colli muscle attachment

322
Q

What feature is identified on the anterior surface of thee inferior epiphyseal rim of C2?

A

The anterior lip

323
Q

What feature is identified on the posterior surface of the inferior epiphyseal rim of C2?

A

The posterior rim

324
Q

What features arise from the posterolateral margins of thee vertebral body of C2?

A

The pedicles

325
Q

What lies on the upper surface of the pedicles of C2?

A

The superior articular process

326
Q

What is the location of the superior vertebral notch of C2?

A

On the lamina-pedicle junction

327
Q

What feature is identified on the lower surface of the pedicles of C2?

A

The inferior vertebral notch or inferior vertebral incisure

328
Q

What is the location of the inferior articular process of C2?

A

On the lamina-pedicle junction behind the inferior vertebral notch

329
Q

What osseous parts of the typical cervical transverse process are present at C2?

A

Costal element, posterior tubercle and true transverse process

330
Q

What is the characteristic appearance of the C2 spinous process in humans?

A

It is bifid

331
Q

What are the modifications of the the superior epiphyseal rim of a typical cervical?

A

Anterior groove, posterior groove, right and left uncinate processes

332
Q

Wat are the names of the lateral modifications of the superior epiphyseal rim of a typical cervical?

A

Uncinate process, uniform process, uncovertebral process, uncus or lateral lip

333
Q

What are the modifications of the inferior epiphyseal rim of the typical cervical?

A

Anterior lip, posterior lip, right and left lateral grooves

334
Q

What bony feature is attached to the posterior end of the pedicles?

A

The articular pillar

335
Q

What is the name of the surface feature observed between the ends of the articular pillar?

A

The groove/ sulcus for the dorsal Remus of a cervical spinal nerve

336
Q

What ligament attaches to the laminate of a typical cervical?

A

Ligamentum flavum

337
Q

Ossification of the ligamentum flabby at the attachment site on the lamina will result in what feature?

A

Para-articular processes

338
Q

List, in order, the osseous parts of the typical cervical vertebra transverse process beginning at the vertebral body

A

Costal element, anterior tubercle,, costotransverse bar, posterior tubercle, true transverse process

Spinal (27 decks)

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