Exam 1 Flashcards
1
Q
Large Volume Parenteral
A
more than 100 ml
2
Q
Small Volume Parenteral
A
equal or less than 100ml
3
Q
Common standard filter that filters all fungi and bacteria
A
0.22 microns
4
Q
What is the rated pore size that filters particulates?
A
1-5 microns
5
Q
IND for patients with life-threatening or severely debilitating illnesses, where no satisfactory alternative exist–
A
Expanded Access IND
6
Q
Crystalline form of drug more likely to change over time– (Metastable or stable)
A
metastable
7
Q
Drugs of what polarity are more likely to be reabsorbed in the kidney?
A
Non-polar
8
Q
The intradermal injection volume is
A
0.1 mL
9
Q
Intraosseous- route
A
into bone marrow cavity
10
Q
Intraperitoneal- route
A
into space between layers of parietal+visceral peritoneum
11
Q
The larger the catheter + needle gauges, the ____ will be the diameter
A
smaller
12
Q
The ideal IV tonicity range is
A
240-340 mOsm/L
13
Q
Intrapleural- route
A
into pleural cavity ( space between parietal + visceral layers of pleura)
14
Q
Embolism is …
A
obstruction of blood vessel
15
Q
Efflorescence is…
A
the release of water if hydration from a crystal hydrates.
16
Q
Type of infusion where a 2nd IV fluid is placed through a connection (Y-port) in the primary IV infusion set is…
A
Piggyback infusion
17
Q
Biopharmaceutics is…
A
the study of physical and chemical properties of drugs and their proper dosage related to the onset, duration, and intensity of drug action.
18
Q
In aqueous solution, these type of excipients called _____, help solubilize drugs by reducing solvent polarity to better match solute polarity.
A
Cosolvents
19
Q
If IV is > 500 mOsm/L, consider _____ administration because of possible phlebitis.
A
Central
20
Q
The unionized form of a drug will have a (larger or smaller) P than ionized form.
A
Larger
Unionized= Nonpolar=lipophilic=larger P
21
Q
Intra-articular…
A
into the synovial sacs of joints
22
Q
This preservative cannot be given to neonates (newborns)
A
Benzyl alcohol
liver too immature to detoxify preservative
23
Q
granuloma…
A
a mass of granulation tissue produced in response to chronic infection, inflammation, a foreign body, or unknown causes.
24
Q
Bacterial endotoxin…
A
lipopolysaccharide (LPS) associated with outer membrane of gram-negative bacteria (pyrogen)
25
Bacterial endotoxin are too (small or large) for sterilizinng filters
too small
26
The critical portion of bacterial endotoxin is ...
Lipid A
| cause shock/fever
27
Pyrogen is difficult to eliminate because they are ....
small, soluble, and inanimate
28
Effective inactivation of pyrogens are ...
Dry Heat + Alkylation
29
Vehicle is ...
a carrying agent for a drug substance (no therapeutic activity and nontoxic)
30
Hypodermic route of administration called _____, the fat tissue below the dermis (composed of connective and adipose tissue)
Subcutaneous (SC)
31
Bolus (push) is ...
a concentrated medication/solution given rapidly (1-5 minutes)
32
In the pre-clinical stage of drug development, what is the term for the area of investigation that involves studying the biochemical and physiological effects of the drug?
Pharmacodynamics
33
The degree of a drug's ionization can be important for ....
drug's absorption, dissolution, and receptor interactions
34
What best explains why a metastable crystalline form of a solid drug exhibited greater bioavailability than its stable counterpart?
metastable form had greater solubility
35
_____ is an expedited program for a serious condition where preliminary clinical evidence indicates that the drug may demonstrate substantial improvement over available therapy on a clinically significant endpoint.
Breakthrough therapy
36
____ would be the best choice of agent for altering the solubility of a drug if the goal is to reduce solvent polarity to better match solute polarity.
Glycerin
37
In the FDA's expedited programs for serious conditions, a marker that is thought to predict clinical benefit is called...
Surrogate Endpoint
38
The more lipophilic the drug the (greater or lesser) the partition coefficient (P)
greater
39
The (more or less) lipophilic the drug the greater the partition coefficient
more
40
The partition coefficient is calculated by...
the concentration of the drug in the organic phase (nonpolar) divided by the concentration in the aqueous phase (polar).
41
Renal excretion of drugs-- albumin-bound drug (is or is not) readily filtered through the capillaries of the glomeruli
is not
42
Renal excretion of drugs-- some drugs experience active reabsorption into the bloodstream by ...
uptake transporters in the proximal tubules
43
Renal excretion of drugs-- some drugs experience active secretion into the proximal tubules by...
various efflux transporters
44
Renal excretion of drugs-- nonpolar and relatively lipophilic drugs tend to (remain in or diffuse out) the filtrate.
Diffuse out
45
_____ is an Intravenous administration of fluid over 1-5 minute time period.
Bolus
46
____ is a Noyes-whiney equation parameter that is most likely affected when a pharmacist agitates the medium in order to speed the dissolution of a drug.
H, thickness of the static boundary layer
47
In the oxidation of drugs, chain-initiating radicals can be generated by ...
Light, Heat, Transition Metals
48
Parenteral routes of CNS drug administration that involve administering the medication directly into the CSF are ....
Intrathecal or intraventricular
49
A highly concentrated solute layer around a dissolving solid where solute movement is stagnant relative to movement in the bulk liquid is ...
static boundary layer
50
phlebitis is ...
the inflammation of a vein (injury to endothelial cells)
51
Most common site for self-injection is...
Subcutaneous
52
____ a controlled method of prolonged drug infusion that includes the ability to control delivery rate.
continuous infusion
53
Cosolvents are blended with ____ to achieve optimal polarity
water
54
type of plastic that is transparent, flexible, has high water and oxygen permeability, and plasticizer leaching as a problem
Polyvinylchloride (PVC)
55
Polyvinylchloride has ____ as a problem
plasticizer leaching (release of components into content)
56
(Multiple or single) dose parenteral products must have preservatives.
Multiple
57
Dry heat sterilization is better for
heat stable, moisture-labile entities
58
____ an IV catheter inserted into a peripheral vein but with its tip in central IV site
PICC line
| Peripherally inserted central catheter
59
____ cuts off flow of primary line to prevent mixing
back-check valve
60
___ is the patient population used for Phase 1 clinical trials.
Healthy volunteers
61
Thrombus is a...
blood clot
62
IM + SC pH range is ...
4 - 9
63
IM injection sites are ...
Gluteal (buttocks)
Deltoid (upper arm)
Vastus Lateralis (lateral thigh)
64
IM injection site suitable for children under 3 years old is ...
Vastus lateralis
65
Accelerated stability studies are used by manufacturers to predict ...
shelf-life
66
Intrathecal ...
into subarachnoid space in lumbar region of spinal cord (between pia + arachnoid that contains CSF)
67
Cellulitis...
an acute, inflammation of connective tissue of the skin resulting from staph, strep, or other bacterial infection
68
Embolus is...
a mass of undissolved matter present in blood or lymphatic vessel brought here by the blood or lymph current (may be solid, gas, or liquid)
69
Most common vehicle for parenteral is...
water
70
3 Major processes involved in renal excretion is ....
1. Glomerular filtration
2. Secretion
3. Reabsorption
71
Epidural...
space between dura mater and connective tissue lining the vertebral canal (on or over dura mater)
72
Ideal pH range for parenteral are ...
7 - 7.8
73
Intraoccular...
injection into the eyeball
74
_____ an expedited program allows drug approval based on surrogate endpoint.
accelerated approval
75
Accelerated approval is an expedited program that allows drug approval based on ______
surrogate endpoint
76
Some examples of chelators are...
citric acid, tartaric acid, EDTA
77
Chelators are ...
synergistic/antioxidant agents that minimize metal content
78
Surfactants are..
amphiphilic molecules that have a tendency to accumulate (absorb) at the interface between 2 phases
79
NDA phase that occurs after the drug is approved by FDA is...
Phase 4/ Post-Marketing
80
_____ type of interaction allows poorly soluble drugs to fit within the hydrophobic core of the cyclodextrin.
noncovalent interaction
81
Amorphous form is...
no repeating (periodic) arrangement, most readily soluble crystal form
82
_____ are colloidal-size structure, formed by surfactants, helps solubilize nonpolar drugs within its hydrocarbon core.
Micelle
83
ADME Studies... Stands for..
Absorption, Distribution, Metabolism, Excretion
84
Drug metabolism that occurs before reaching the systemic circulation is called...
first-pass metabolism
85
The internal structure of the crystal determines its...
habit
86
Propagation of free radicals....
free radicals grow in number
87
The purpose of Phase 2 clinical trials is ....
mainly effectiveness + short-term safety
88
Lyophilization...
to make "solvent loving" freeze-drying
89
Cyclodextrin solubilization...
"Host" lipophilic "guest compounds (drugs)" in their hydrophobic core
90
Drugs distribute (faster or slower) to well-perfused organs such as liver, kidney, + brain
faster
91
____ preferred administered injection if you want the drug to be directly administered into circulation.
Intravascularly (Intravenous IV-most common)
92
Thickness of the static boundary layer can be decreased by ....
agitation
93
Contents of glass ampules must be ____ after breaking.
filtered
94
The pharmacy has run out of Drug X (monohydrate) and instead fills Drug X (Dihydrate). Is this acceptable?
NO,
| Because hydrates are less soluble than their anhydrous counterparts
95
Are hydrates (less or more) soluble than their anhydrous counterparts?
less
96
____ type of NDA for generic drug products
Abbreviated New Drug Application (ANDA)
97
____ + _____ are two primary locations where First-pass metabolism may occur following oral drug administration.
Enterocytes + Hepatocytes
98
Cyclodextrin...
type of excipient, molecule composed of glucose subunits that helps to solubilize drugs within its hydrophobic cavity.
99
solubility is...
the concentration of a solute in a saturated solution at a certain temperature (amount dissolved per volume)
100
Prior to FDA approval, drug manufacturing facilities will be inspected to ensure they are in compliance with...
FDA's Current Good Manufacturing Practice Standards
101
_____ must be filed with the FDA after clinical trials before a drug can be considered for approval.
New Drug Application (NDA)
102
Coring is...
plugging the needle with a piece of rubber
103
The melting point of two polymorphs of a drug will be (same or different)...
different, because of different molecular arrangements within the crystal
104
Organoleptic properties are...
susceptible to sensory impressions (ex. smell, color, taste)
105
Examples of Reactive Oxygen Species (ROS) are...
Superoxide
Hydrogen Peroxide
Hydroxyl Radical
106
Metastable is...
being in an unstable and transient but relatively long-lived state of a chemical/physical system (may change over time to a more stable form)
107
Liberation...
release of the drug from its dosage form
108
____ has an important role in restricting easy passage of drugs into CNS interstitium.
tight junctions
109
Indication...
specific (FDA approved) use for a drug
110
Partition is the ...
movement of a molecule from one phase into another phase (between polar and nonpolar phases)
111
Benefits for drug manufacturers developing drugs for orphan diseases include...
Tax incentive
Financial support (clinical trials)
7 year exclusivity
112
A 10 degree Celsius rise in temperature produces a ___ fold decay rate increase.
2 to 5
113
Stability would be greater if the degradation rate constant was (also greater or lower)
lower
114
ADME properties depend largely on ____ properties of the drug.
physiochemical
115
Which would more easily be formulated as an aqueous solution, naproxen or naproxen sodium?
Naproxen Sodium
| because salt form is ionized in crystalline state, thus more easily go into solution
116
Cosolvents are...
solvents used in combination to increase solute's solubility ("like dissolves like")
117
Stratification...
process of arranging in layers
118
It takes ____ months to get a response on an NDA.
10
119
Effective pH range of buffers are determined by ...
buffer's pKa
120
Hit (Drug Discovery) is...
when a molecule interacts with its target
121
Size of Solid particle and exposed surface area (inversely or proportionately) related.
Inversely
Inc. Size = Dec. SA
122
Crystal Habit is...
description of the outer appearance of a crystal
123
Where does drug have the most difficulty passing into the interstitial fluid?
CNS- efflux transporters and tight junctions between endothelial cells restrict easy passage of drugs
124
The nature of a drug (weak acid or weak base) can be made into a maleate salt.
```
Weak base
(positively charged)
```
125
To be considered a chronic disease, it must last at least ___
3 months
126
Noyes-Whitney equation describes ...
dissolution rate
| solid --> liquid
127
Two main purposes of using buffer (adjust to pH) ...
1. Solubility
| 2. Stability
128
What patient population is used in Phase 2 and 3 in clinical trials?
patients suffering from indicated condition
129
EDTA (chelator) binds to ____ to prevent creation of chain-initiating radicals.
trace metals
130
It takes ___ months to get a response on an NDA with Priority Review
6
131
Example of Water-soluble antioxidants are...
ascorbic acid (vitamin C), sodium sulfite
132
99.9% of drug will be fully ionized at 3 pH units (below or above) pKa for Bases
below
133
99.9% of drug will be fully ionized at 3 pH units (below or above) pKa for Acids
above
134
3 drug targets that do not require systemic circulation to reach....
1. Intestinal Lumen (oral)
2. Dermis (Topical)
3. Bronchioles (Inhalation)
135
Bioavailability less than 100% for extravascular routes, reasons includes...
1. Incomplete dissolution
2. Incomplete absorption (epithelia)
3. Bypass absorptive area
4. Pre-systemic metabolism (first-pass)
5. Chemical degradation
136
Most drugs, Shelf-life is the time for ____% degradation
10%
137
Most prodrugs are created with ____ linkage
ester
138
After passing through the glomeruli, drugs that are _____ tend to remain in the filtrate and are subsequently excreted into the urine
polar or ionized
139
With lower aqueous solubility, less drug is dissolved in gastric fluid and there is (more or less) drug that is susceptible to chemical degradation
less
140
First Order degradation, the conc. vs. T graph is ____
not a straight line ??
141
Subcutaneous injection volume is ....
up to 2 mL
142
____ administration catheter tip reside mainly in the basilic, cephalic, or branchial veins.
Midline
143
Lead (Drug Discovery) is...
a prototype chemical that has the desired biological or pharmacological activity.
144
Extravasation is...
the escape of fluids into surrounding tissue
145
KVO (Keep-Vein-Open) is...
slow intravenous infusion of a fluid for the purpose of keeping the vein open in anticipation of future therapy
146
Drug must have enough ____ to pass through membrane.
lipophilicity
147
Dissolution rate (Fastest to slowest) for solid form is...
Amorphous>Metastable>Stable
148
___ group at the entrance of cyclodextrins are responsible for interacting with water.
hydroxyl (-OH)
149
____ type of IV administration has advantages of no repeated venipunctures, no x-ray needed to confirm placement, longer term than peripheral, better dilution, good if limited to peripheral access
Midline
150
Laminar flow is ...
air that moves with a uniform velocity along parallel lines to reduce turbulence
151
Amber is the common color of pharmaceutic containers that can help limit photooxidation by blocking ____ light
Ultraviolet
152
Zero-order degradation can occur when ...
there is a reservoir of drug to replace drug that is lost to decomposition.
153
Y-port...
connect a secondary administration set or inject fluids with a syringe
154
Worst type of glass to be used for parenterals....
NP- General purpose soda-lime glass
155
Pseudo first-order degradation...
when the degradation rate is apparently independent of the concentration of one of the reactants, even though it is consumed in the reaction
156
Purpose of Phase 3 Clinical Trials is ....
confirm effectiveness and longer-term safety
157
Purpose of Phase 1 Clinical Trials is...
Determine safety and dosage
158
Candidate (Drug Discovery) is...
the lead that is most suitable for further investigation
159
____ is the application that must be submitted to the FDA prior to beginning clinical studies.
Investigational New Drug Application (IND)
160
FDA programs that exist to expediate development and review of drugs to address an unmet medical need are ...
1. Fast Track
2. Breakthrough Therapy
3. Accelerated Approval
4. Priority Review
161
Vesicants...
any agent that produces blisters (or other tissue injury)
162
UV light is mainly limited to air and surfaces because of ______
poor penetration
163
Upon dissolution of the salt of the weak acid such as phenytoin sodium in water, the resulting pH of the solution be (alkaline or acidic)
Alkaline,
| because negatively charged drug will remove protons from the water molecules upon dissolution, therefore rise in pH
164
____ type of NDA for changes in labeling, method of synthesis, formulation, analytical standards, container, manufacturing facilities, and adding a new indication.
Supplemental New Drug Application (SNDA)
165
The pH at which a drug is 50% ionized ....
pKa
166
The letter a pharmaceutical company receives from the FDA indicating that the application is not ready for approval is the ...
complete response letter
167
SC injection sites include...
outer surface of upper arm, lower portion of abdomen, anterior surface of thigh
168
Steps of free radical oxidation are...
1. initiation
2. propagation
3. termination
169
Size of particulate that can get lodge in arterioles or capillaries are...
8 microns or larger
170
Septicemia is....
presence of pathogenic bacteria in the body (via bloodstream)
171
Ringer's Components ...
NaCl, KCl, CaCl2
172
Pseudopolymorph...
describes a drug (or excipient) that can crystallize as a combination of pure durg plus the solvent of crystallization
173
Polymorphism...
capacity for appearing in many forms (drugs may exist in different molecular arrangements)
174
pH of maximum stability is the point in which K is the (lowest or highest)
lowest
175
Osmotic pressure...
pressure that develops when two solutions of different concentrations are separated by a semipermeable membrane
176
Orphan disease are....
rare disease or condition that affects fewer than 200,000 patients in the U.S.
177
On the InK vs pH graph, base catalysis has a _____ slope
positive
178
On the InK vs pH graph, acid catalysis has a _____ slope.
negative
179
Examples of oil-soluble antioxidants includes...
alpha-tocopherol (Vitamin E), buylated hydroxytoluene (BHT), propyl gallate
180
Oil cannot be administered ____
IV (droplets are emboli)
181
Mass Transport...
the movement of molecules of solutes or solvents from one region to another
182
Major nerve in dorsogluteal region is...
Sciatic Nerve
183
Main difference between needles and catheters are ...
flexibility
184
Lactated Ringer's Components are...
NaCl, KCl, CaCl, Sodium Lactate
185
Intraventricular ...
into lateral ventricles of the brain
186
Intrathecal pH range ...
7 - 7.6 (avoid aseptic meningitis)
187
Intradermal injection site is...
between epidermis and dermis
188
Intra-aterial injection site is ...
into the artery
189
Intermittent infusion...
IV therapy administered at prescribed intervals with intermediate infusion time (30-60mins)
190
Infiltration is...
the process of seepage or diffusion into tissue of intravenous infusate
191
IND filed during Phase 1 or 2 to allow treatment of desperately ill before full FDA approval is....
Treatment Protocol for Compassionate Use
192
In the termination stage of free radical mechanisms of oxidation, free radicals ...
combine to form chemically inert products
193
The IM injection site that can withstand the largest volume is ...
gluteal (buttocks) -- 5mL per buttock (up to 10mL)
194
IM and SC pH range is...
4 - 9
195
Hypodermoclysis is the term for continuous ____ infusion used to maintain hydration (e.g. used in nursing home patients)
subcutaneous
196
Hygroscopicity is...
the tendency of a substance to take up atmospheric moisture
197
How do micelles help solubilize nonpolar drugs?
dissolve within lipophilic pool within hydrocarbon core
198
How do micelles help solubilize amphiphilic drugs?
will intersperse among surfactants ???
199
Prodrug are...
synthetic derivative of a drug that is transformed in vivo to liberate an active drug molecule
200
Solvate are...
crystal containing solvent molecules within the crystal lattice
201
Drug must be in ____ form to leave the vasculature.
Free (unbound)
202
Amphoteric is...
having an acidic and basic moiety
203
Micelle...
aggregate formed from self-association of surfactant monomers.
204
Critical Micelle Concentration is...
the concentration of surfactant at which surfactant molecules will self-associate to form micelle
205
Drug Stability
"the extent to which a drug product retains, within specified limits, and throughout its period of storage and use (shelf-life), the same properties and characteristics that it possessed at the time of its manufacture"
206
Functional groups that make the drug susceptible to hydrolytic cleavage are ....
Esters, amides, lactams, lactones
207
Autoxidation is...
type of oxidation that involves the uncatalyzed oxidation of a substrate by molecular oxygen (slow)
208
Functional groups that make the drug susceptible to oxidation are...
phenols, catechols, thiols, tertiary amines, polyunsaturated hydrocarbons
209
Deliquescence is..
the dissolution of a solid upon uptake of atmospheric moisture
210
Zero-order degradation, the concentration vs time graph is a ____line
straight
211
Central IV administration site ...
catheter tip is located in superior vena cava, or right atrium
212
Advantage of Central IV over Peripheral IV is...
rapid dilution (large vessel) and less risk of irritation
213
Peripheral IV administration site...
hand, lower/upper arm, anticubital fossa (inner elbow) and scalp (under 6 months old)
214
Peripheral IV administration site for patient under 6 months old is ___
the scalp
215
Heparin or Saline Lock ...
a small intermittent infusion device that remains in the vein between uses. It is flushed with heparin or saline to maintain patency (keeps vein ready for the next infusion)
216
HEPA Filters ...
high efficiency particulate air filter.., removes 99.97% of particles 0.3 microns and larger.
217
Gas Sterilization used for surgical supplies, disposable syringes, etc. because it _____ well
penetrates
218
USP sterility test, different growth conditions are used to detect...
different microbes
219
Two USP Sterility test methods are ...
Direct transfer + membrane filtration
220
Direct Transfer (USP Sterility Test)...
sample of sterile culture media
221
Membrane Filtration (USP Sterility Test)...
important for antibiotics and preserved products, filter through 0.45 micron
222
Not common rated pore size filtration that fills fungi and most bacteria (but used in membrane filtration/USP) is ...
0.45 microns
223
Filtration sterilization is mainly used for ...
solutions
224
Why is ampicillin sodium is very soluble in water, whereas ampicillin is slightly soluble in water...
ampicillin sodium is salt form where ampicillin is more polar charged state within crystal lattice, therefore will go to aqueous solution more readily due to salt form.
225
Central IV pH range is...
3 - 10.5
226
Best type of glass is...
Type 1- Borosilicate
227
Based on Noyes-Whitney equation, taking medication with large glassful of water can increase dissolution rate of solid by (decreasing or increasing) concentration of solute in bulk liquid.
decreasing
228
Based on Noyes-Whitney equation, (increasing or decreasing) the liquid viscosity can slow dissolution by reducing diffusion of the solute in the dissolution medium.
increasing
229
Based on the Noyes-Whitney equation, agitation can (increase or decrease) dissolution rate of a solid by decreasing the thickness of the stagnant boundary layer.
increase
230
Bacteriostatic...
inhibiting/retarding growth of bacteria
231
Air in the sterile area has (positive or negative) pressure compared to surrounding areas.
positive, so we don't recycle dirty air or allow dirty air to flow into sterile area
232
ABC Transporters...
active transporters that utilize ATP for energy
233
Weak Acid would be expected to have (increase or decrease) water solubility as the pH rises above the pKa
increase,
| more will be in the ionized form
234
Weak Base would be expected to have (increase or decrease) water solubility as the pH rises above the pKa
decrease,
| more will be less polar, non-ionized form
235
Main mechanisms of antioxidants are...
stop propagation and preferentially oxidized
236
Types of pyrogen tests are ...
Rabbit + Limulus Amebocyte Lysate (LAL) Test
237
1 - 5 microns removes ...
particulates
238
0.45 microns removes...
fungi and most bacteria
239
0.22 microns removes...
all fungi and bacteria
240
Arrhenius Equation determines the effect of ______ on degradation rates, helps predict product's shelf-life at these different _____
Temperature(s)
241
Accelerated stability studies predict shelf-life by using _____
Arrhenius Equation
242
Most common solvate is a ...
hydrate
243
Hydrates are generally (more or less) soluble than their anhydrous counterparts.
less
244
Salt formation can significantly improve a drug's water solubility, due to (greater or lesser) degree of ionic dissociation of salt molecules...
greater
245
Increase dielectric constant = (greater or lesser) polarity of medium
greater
246
Dielectric constant is ...
ability of solvent to separate oppositely charged ions
247
Higher dielectric constant, polarity of molecules (reduces or increase)
reduces polarity
248
IV injects (more or less) volumes compared to IM
More
IV : 1ml - 3 L
IM: 1ml - 10mL
249
An example of solubilizing agent is...
polysorbate
250
____ describes a drug's pharmacodynamics.
Drug action
251
Purpose of Phase 1 of Clinical Trial is ...
Mainly safety
252
Which will not support an explanation as to why a drug (taken as a tablet) will not reach adequate blood levels in the patient?
- Drug was a substrate for enzyme found in hepatocyte
- Drug exhibits degradation in acidic conditions
- Drug did not dissolve completely
- Patient has gastrointestinal hypermotility
- Drug was a substrate for uptake transporter found in enterocytes
Drug was substrate for uptake transporter found in enterocytes
All other answers are correct explanations as to why the drug will not reach adequate blood levels however last statement describes reason why it does reach adequate levels.
253
Ionized Drug = more polar = (more or less) lipophilic
less lipophilic (harder to pass through membrane)
254
Higher Partition Coefficient = (more or less) lipophilic
more
255
Partition Coefficient can be useful for predicting the ____ of a drug across a lipid membrane
passive diffusion
256
First Pass Metabolism can significantly (limit or increase) an oral drug's bioavailability
limit
257
Injectable drugs (can or cannot) bypass first pass metabolism.
can, because injectables goes straight into blood
258
____ is the main metabolic site
Liver
259
Phase 1 (Drug Metabolism): ______ is the adding or uncovering a polar functional group (OH, N)
Functionalization Reactions
260
Phase ___ (Drug Metabolism): Conjugation reactions is the covalent conjugation of a polar functional group onto parent compound
2
261
____ is the main excretory organ for drugs and metabolites
Kidney
262
Protein-bound drugs (can or cannot) be filtered in the glomerulus in the kidneys
cannot
| too large to pass fenestrations
263
Metastable polymorphs leads to (higher or lower) bioavailability.
higher
264
Ionized form (is or is not) water soluble
is
265
Acid (donates or accept) hydrogen
donates, wants to be ionized
266
(Weak Acid or Weak Base) as you increase pH, solubility increase pH > pKa = deprotonation
weak acid
| loses H= donates proton
267
(Weak Acid or Weak Base) as you decrease pH, solubility increases pH < pKa = protonation
weak base
| gains H= accepts proton
268
pH > pKa (deprotonated or protonated)
deprotonated
269
Agitation can (increase or decrease) the stagnant boundary layer and speed up dissolution.
decrease
270
(increasing or decreasing) the medium viscosity tend to increase dissolution rate
decreasing
271
(First or zero) order degradation
Rate is Constant
Decay is Linear
Zero
272
(First or zero) order degradation
Rate is proportional to concentration
Exponential Decay
First
273
Lyophilization--Freeze drying to make the drug (more or less) solvent loving
more
274
_____ boiling process that removes oxygen then purged with inert gas
Distillation
275
Intralesional is a (local or systemic) action
local
