Domain III: Management of Food and Nutrition Programs and Services: Quality Management and Regulatory Compliance Flashcards

1
Q

____ organizations certify, manage, and promote quality improvement

A

Accreditation

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2
Q

____ ___ Healthcare accreditation program validates Medicare compliance

A

DNV GL

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3
Q

The ____ ____ accredits and certifies healthcare organizations

A

Joint Commission

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4
Q

____ is a health insurance program for people over 65 or of any age with end-stage renal disease (employers and employees pay)

A

Medicare

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5
Q

A ____ ____ is provided by the Affordable Care Act to Medicare beneficiaries; RDNs are listed as eligible medical professionals who may screen and counsel Medicare beneficiaries

A

Wellness Visit

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6
Q

Medicare Part A covers ____ ____ ___ under the Prospective Payment System using predetermined rates for hospital discharges

A

Inpatient hospital stays

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7
Q

Medicare Part B is ____ insurance for supplementary benefits

A

Optional

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8
Q

____ ____ ____ is a benefit for obese patients under Medicare B; coverage is granted only in the primary care setting for those with BMI > 30

A

Intensive Behavioral Therapy

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9
Q

With Intensive Behavioral Therapy, there is continued treatment contingent on ____ ____ assessed at the seventh month of treatment; can only be provided by a physician

A

Weight loss

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10
Q

_____ is a federal law administered by states for the payment of medical care for all eligible needy (all ages, blind, disabled, dependent children)

A

Medicaid

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11
Q

The ACA Patient Protection and Affordable Care Act allows for opportunities to provide ____ under the benefit category of “Preventative and Wellness Services”

A

MNT

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12
Q

The Children’s Health Insurance Plan (CHIP) is under the ____ ___ ____

A

Social Security Act

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13
Q

The Children’s Health Insurance Plan is a partnership between the federal and state governments expanding health coverage to ____ children whose families earn too much income to qualify for Medicaid but too little to afford private coverage

A

Uninsured

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14
Q

A ____-____ Medical Home focuses on the relationship between the patient and their personal physician; the physician takes responsibility for all aspects of the health care for the patient and coordinates and communicates with other providers as needed; if specialty care is needed, the physician is responsible for ensuring that the transition is seamless (the RDN should be considered part of the medical home treatment plan

A

Patient-Centered

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15
Q

An ____ ____ ____ is a healthcare organization that ties provider reimbursements to quality metrics and reductions in the cost of care; in the U.S, they are formed from a group of coordinated healthcare practitioners

A

Accountable Care Organization (ACO)

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16
Q

An ____ ____ ____ is a payment approach that gives added incentive payments to provide high-quality and cost-efficient care; they can apply to a specific critical condition, a care episode, or a population (ex: fee-for-service)

A

Alternative Payment Model

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17
Q

The ICD-10-CM describes an individual’s ____ or ___ ___

A

Disease or medical condition

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18
Q

The ICD-10-CM codes for malnutrition are…

A

E43-E46

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19
Q

The Codes for Current Procedural Terminology are five-digit codes that describe the ____ rendered

A

Services

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20
Q

MNT Codes for Current Procedural Terminology are 97802-97806, and are used to report ____-provided services

A

RDN

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21
Q

A ____ ____ form is used to submit non-institutional claims to Medicare/Medicaid to healthcare services

A

CMS 1500

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22
Q

____-____ studies determine whether the goal of the intervention is worthwhile in terms of cost; the value of the benefits derived from the intervention must outweigh the costs of providing the intervention

A

Cost-benefit

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23
Q

A ____-____ analysis assumes that the goal of the project is worthwhile; the question to resolve is which methods of intervention is the most effective (in terms of value) in achieving the goal; it compares the costs of alternative strategies using the results of outcomes research

A

Cost-effectiveness

24
Q

An ____ is a formal study that retrospectively monitors performance (did performance meet the standards?)

A

Audit

25
Q

Total quality management (TQM) is a problem-solving technique for coordinating process _____

A

Improvement

26
Q

TQM may include the ____ cycle

A

PDCA (plan, do, check, act)/PDSA (plan, do, study, act)

27
Q

____ ____ ____ is an integral part of total quality management; based on the notion that systems and performance can always improve

A

Continuous Quality Improvement

28
Q

Continuous Quality Improvement is not an ___ ___ in quality efforts, it uses outcome assessment

A

Endpoint

29
Q

_____ are measurement tools that monitor and evaluate important aspects of patient care and management functions

A

Indicators

30
Q

Indicators serve as flags to direct attention to specific issues; they are not intended to be direct measures of _____, but describe events, complications, or outcomes

A

Quality

31
Q

_____ for evaluation (% numbers) is the level at which a stimulus is strong enough to signal a need to respond; then begin the process to determine why the threshold was crossed

A

Threshold

32
Q

A ___-___ indicator (comparative rate indicator) explains what will happen with the NEST care (thresholds between 1% and 99%) (ex: 95% of high-risk patients are assessed within 24 hours)

A

Rate-based

33
Q

____ event indicators are serious events that require further investigation each time they occur; undesirable but unavoidable events (ex: 0% food poisoning; dish machine area is 100% dry; 100% of oncology patients are fed within 5 days)

A

Sentinel

34
Q

Outcome management systems evaluate ____ and ____

A

Effectiveness and efficiency

35
Q

____ refers to the degree to which an exchange helps to achieve your objectives (doing the right thing)

A

Effectiveness

36
Q

_____ refers to the minimization of resources you must spend to achieve that desired level of exchange (doing things right)

A

Efficiency

37
Q

____ is collected and analyzed in a timely manner so that performance can be adjusted and improved

A

Data

38
Q

Data findings are compared with past levels of performance and other standards or ____ of optimal performance

A

Benchmarks

39
Q

The goal of outcome management is to improve the _____ of services offered

A

Quality

40
Q

___ ____ is a data-driven approach for improving quality by removing defects and their causes; it is a statistical unit of measurement used to define standard deviation

A

Six Sigma

41
Q

Achieving Six Sigma (6 standard deviations from the mean) means that there is very little ____ in a process

A

Variation

42
Q

Six Sigma helps organizations focus on developing and delivering near-_____ products and services; if you can determine how many errors occur in a process, you can systematically determine how to eliminate them and get as close to zero as possible

A

Perfect

43
Q

One approach to Six Sigma is the DIMAC approach, which stands for…

A

-Define
-Measure
-Analyze
-Improve
-Control

44
Q

The ____ philosophy suggests making continuous and small incremental improvements in process on a daily basis, rather than large revolutionary changes; focuses on teamwork, discipline, improved morale, quality circles, and suggestions for improvements (“good change”)

A

Kaizen

45
Q

The ____ method uses less human effort, less space, less capital, and less time to make products exactly as the customer wants with few defects; use videotaping and stopwatches to capture work being done; reorganize workflow, duties, and practices in order to reduce food costs, increase efficiency, and customer satisfaction

A

Lean

46
Q

The Standards of Practices and Standards of Professional Performance are tools for credentialed dietetics practitioners to use in ____ ____ (as guides for self-evaluation and to determine the education and skills needed to advance an individual level of practice)

A

Professional development

47
Q

The Standards of Practices and Standards of Professional Performance are not regulations, but may be used to determine ______

A

Competency

48
Q

The Standards of Practice in Nutrition Care describes in general terms a ____ level of nutrition care practice as shown by the NCP (problem-solving method used to think critically and make decisions to provide safe, effective, and high-quality nutrition care)

A

Competent

49
Q

The Standards of Practice in Nutrition Care are used for those who work in ____ patient care

A

Direct

50
Q

The Standards of Practice in Nutrition Care include…

A

-Diabetes care
-Oncology nutrition care
-Behavioral health care
-Nutrition support
-Management of food and nutrition systems
-Sports dietetics
-Education of dietetics practitioners
-Pediatric nutrition
-Nephrology care

51
Q

The Standards of Professional Performance describes a competent level of ____ in the professional role (6 domains of professionalism)

A

Behavior

52
Q

What are the 6 domains of professionalism?

A

-Provisions of services
-Applications of research
-Communication and application of knowledge
-Utilization and management of resources
-Quality in practice
-Competency and Accountability

53
Q

Included in the AND Code of Ethics is ____-____ is the intent to not inflict harm

A

Non-maleficence

54
Q

Another term included in the AND Code of Ethics is ____, which is integrity in personal and organizational behaviors and practice

A

Autonomy

55
Q

Another term included in the AND Code of Ethics is ____, which is included in professionalism and means to take positive steps to benefit others

A

Beneficence

56
Q

Another term included in the AND Code of Ethics is ____, which supports fair, equitable, and appropriate treatment for individuals and fair allocation of resources

A

Justice