Domain III: Management of Food and Nutrition Programs and Services: Functions of Management Flashcards

1
Q

What are examples of functions of management?

A

-Plan
-Organize
-Staff
-Direct
-Control/evaluate

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2
Q

____ is the basic function of management

A

Planning

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3
Q

____ are predetermined goals toward which management directs its efforts

A

Objectives

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4
Q

Objectives serve as _____ and provide direction

A

Motivators

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5
Q

_____ are general decision-making guides and boundaries within you must operate (ex: all customer complaints will be addressed within one day)

A

Policies

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6
Q

_____ are chronological sequences of activities, specific guides for daily operations (ex: how to run the dish machine)

A

Procedures

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7
Q

___ ____ or ____ planning covers a period of 1 year or less; usually the operating budget (projected in days, weeks, months)

A

Short range; operational

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8
Q

Long-range planning plans for up to a ____ year cycle, focuses on goals and objectives

A

5

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9
Q

Long-range planning requires a ___ ____ of long-range vision

A

Mission statement

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10
Q

_____ planning makes decisions about intended future outcomes, and how success is measured and evaluated

A

Strategic

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11
Q

There are broad technological and competitive aspects to strategic planning, it sets the ____ for the organization

A

Direction

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12
Q

A ____ analysis may be done during strategic planning

A

SWOT

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13
Q

Strategic planning assesses the environment ___ and ____ the organization

A

Inside and outside

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14
Q

A ____ strategy targets specific, limited-sized market niche

A

Focus

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15
Q

Examples of a strategic goal:

A

Decrease hospital length of stay

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16
Q

A ____ ____ ____ involves a simulated emergency situation to test emergency plans

A

Table top drill

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17
Q

To be most prepared for an emergency, what should be done?

A

-Personnel should be screened
-Addresses and phone numbers should be updated
-Employees should have ID badges
-Orientation session should be held
-Practice drills should be conducted
-Plan should be posted and updated
-Emergency numbers and warning signals should be listed
-Evacuation route should be posted
-OSHA and HAZMAT numbers posted
-Location of emergency doors, supplies, menu
-Water safety supplies
-Backup storage for computer records

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18
Q

For procurement, receiving, and storage a ___ ___ ____ with vendors, lists of companies that supply foods, the name and ID of delivery persons; delivery routes, days, and times should be available

A

Memo of understanding

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19
Q

Inspect loading dock for ____ materials

A

Suspicious

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20
Q

What can be done to ensure security?

A

-Doors/windows locked when not in use
-Surveillance cameras on docks
-Security personnel

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21
Q

What can be done to avoid an emergency when it comes to production and service of food?

A

-Safe food practices followed
-Issued foods checked
-Hands washed
-Authorized personnel prepare and serve food

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22
Q

What is included in the organization and staffing function of management?

A

-Identify tasks and activities
-Divide tasks into positions
-Establish relationships among all other functions of management

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23
Q

An ____ ____ shows how the employee fits into the organization; shows the relationship of positions and functions; depicts lines of authority shown with solid lines (chain of command)

A

Organizational chart

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24
Q

The chain of command shows the command relationship from the ___ to the ___ level

A

Top; lowest

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25
Q

____ (staff) positions are shown with dotted lines on an organizational chart

A

Advisory

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26
Q

Advisory positions ____ and ____ the lines, but are not involved in day-to-day operations (Ex: consultant RD in a nursing home)

A

Advise and support

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27
Q

____ positions serve as both the line and the staff; has limited authority over a segment of activity because of specialized knowledge, units are defined by the nature of the work (the responsibility of purchasing may be given to a head of purchasing agent who oversees that function in all departments; efficient use of resources)

A

Functional

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28
Q

___ ___ ___ describes the number of individuals or departments under the direction of one individual

A

Span of control

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29
Q

With a ____ span of control, more levels are created and more managers are needed (needed with newly hired personnel)

A

Narrow

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30
Q

With a ____ span of control, there are fewer levels and fewer managers needed; used with highly trained and highly motivated workers

A

Wide

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31
Q

In conventional acute care facilities, staff should be budgeted for ____ minutes per meal or ___ meals per labor hour

A

17; 3.5

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32
Q

In extended care facilities, staff should complete ___ meals per labor hour

A

5

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33
Q

In a cafeteria, staff should produce ___ meals per labor hour

A

5.5

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34
Q

In school foodservice, staff should complete ___-___ meals per labor hour

A

13-15

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35
Q

When determining meals served, consider meal ____; if it takes as much time to produce 6 nourishments as it does 1 meal, then 6 nourishments are equal to in labor to 1 meal

A

Equivalents

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36
Q

Meal equivalents are a measure of ____ defined as the amount of all food sales divided by the average cost of a typical (prototype) meal

A

Productivity

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37
Q

A work schedule generally includes an 8-hour workday, a ____-minute lunch break, and one or two 15-minute breaks

A

30

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38
Q

The ____ schedule serves as the overall plan; includes days on and off, vacations; serves as the basis for developing the weekly schedule

A

Master

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39
Q

A ____ is a staffing pattern for a particular operation; defines positions and hours worked, number of days worked per week, and relief assignments

A

Shift

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40
Q

A ____ ____ is the time sequencing of events required to produce a meal; includes employee assignments and menu items as well as the quantity to prepare and the timing (what to do and when to do it)

A

Production schedule

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41
Q

The ____ full-time equivalent is the minimum number of employees needed to staff the facility; counts productive hours (hours actually worked)

A

Absolute

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42
Q

____ full-time equivalent takes into account the benefit days and days off

A

Adjusted

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43
Q

A full-time equivalent per day is labor hours worked during the day divided by ___ hours of normal workload

A

8

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44
Q

An FTE per week is labor hours worked during the week divided by ____ hours of normal workload

A

40

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45
Q

A FTE per year is labor hours worked during the year divided by ____ hours of normal workload

A

2080

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46
Q

When hiring ____ workers, approximately 1.55 employees are necessary for everyday coverage of full-time positions

A

Relief

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47
Q

Full-time employees generally are available, on average, ____ days per year because of off days and benefit days

A

236

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48
Q

To determine the actual number of employees needed, multiply the number of full-time positions by ____ (129/236) to get the number of relief workers needed to cover 365 days per year

A

0.55

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49
Q

Employees + relief employees = …

A

Total number of employees

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50
Q

Hospital food services positions cover a 7-day week; employees work 5 days and have 2 days off; a relief worker covers those ___ days off and can also work a 5-day week; so a relief worker can cover the “days off” of 2.5 full-time workers each week

A

2

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51
Q

____ is the efficiency with which a production or service activity converts inputs into outputs, expressed as ratios

A

Productivity

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52
Q

Inputs, or resources, are things like…

A

-Labor
-Money
-Materials
-Facilities
-Energy

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53
Q

Outputs, or units of services, are things like…

A

-Meals
-Patient days
-Consults

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54
Q

Examples of productivity ratios:

A

-Labor minutes worked per day
-Trays per minute
-Consults per labor hour

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55
Q

To increase the productivity, ____ the output or ____ the input

A

Increase; decrease

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56
Q

Work ____ procedures increase productivity and decrease costs

A

Simplification

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57
Q

The purpose of work simplification procedures is to eliminate ___ parts of the job and those that add no value

A

Unnecessary

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58
Q

Work simplification looks at the ____ parts of the job (hand movements, steps taken)

A

Smallest

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59
Q

___ ___ is a simplification procedure that works to reduce motions and time required; use shortest and straightest routes to move materials; movement should be simultaneous, symmetrical, natural, rhythmic, and habitual

A

Motion economy

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60
Q

____ ___ is a simplification procedure that observes random samples (intermittent observations) to determine the percentage of time working or idle

A

Occurrence sampling

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61
Q

A pathway chart or ___ diagram is a simplification procedure that is a scale drawing that shows the path of a worker during a process

A

Flow

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62
Q

____ charts are another simplification procedure that shows the movement of hands; reduced transportation and re-plan work areas; use both hands simultaneously and effectively

A

Operation

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63
Q

____ charts show the steps involved in a process using symbols

A

Process

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64
Q

____ charts show the efficiency of equipment placement, study work motions, and show the number of movements between pieces of equipment

A

Cross

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65
Q

With ____, the manager leads

A

Directing

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66
Q

Directing involves ____, which links activities of various departments within the organization

A

Coordination

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67
Q

Directing also involves ____, which is the distribution of work to qualified people

A

Delegation

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68
Q

A manager must…

A

-Have a clear understanding of what they want done
-Give specific instructions
-Motivate
-Provide training
-Require complete work
-Establish adequate controls

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69
Q

A barrier to delegation is a manager ____ to delegate; managers may feel they can do better themselves, feel a loss of power, may be too disorganized to plan ahead, or have lack of confidence in subordinates

A

Reluctance

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70
Q

Delegate duties to the ____ competent level

A

Lowest

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71
Q

____ is the process of transmitting and receiving information to bring about a desired action

A

Communication

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72
Q

____ (response) tells you if the correct message has been conveyed

A

Feedback

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73
Q

Barriers to effective communication:

A

-Words not understood correctly
-Poor voice quality
-illegible handwriting

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74
Q

____ skills are essential are the most critical part of communication

A

Listening

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75
Q

____ communication comes from the department head down through the ranks of workers (chain of command)

A

Downward

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76
Q

Examples of downward communication:

A

-Procedure manuals
-Policy statement

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77
Q

____ communication comes from the workers up to the department head

A

Upward

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78
Q

Examples of upward communication:

A

-Open-door policy
-Suggestion boxes
-Grievance procedures

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79
Q

Upward communication provides employees an opportunity to have a ___ in what happens; management needs to receive vital information from lower levels

A

Say

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80
Q

_____ communication is between departments (like nutrition and nursing) or between production and service within the nutrition department

A

Horizontal

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81
Q

____ communication minimizes time and effort expended in organizations; it is communication between functions diagonally placed (Ex: ordering clerk in foodservice sends requires directly to the purchasing department, not through food service channel)

A

Diagonal

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82
Q

_____ channels of communication (through the grapevine) meet social needs of a group

A

Informal

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83
Q

Motivational theories and strategies supply a personal ____ for the worker

A

Incentive

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84
Q

___ ____ ___ ____ explains determinants of behavior, motivated by the desire to satisfy specific needs

A

Maslow’s Hierarchy of Needs

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85
Q

What are the basic needs, as explained by Maslow’s Hierarchy of Needs?

A

-Physiological (survival needs): food clothing shelter, pay, benefits, working conditions, schedule
-Security and safety: insurance, retirement plans, job security

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86
Q

What are the higher human needs (motivators), as explained by Maslow’s Hierarchy of Needs?

A

-Social (organized activities): belonging, acceptance, affiliation
-Self-esteem: job title, praise, rewards, promotions, recognition
-Self-realization (self-actualization, realizing your potential growth using creative talents): advanced training, job enrichment

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87
Q

When ____ needs are met, then the higher needs become ____

A

Basic; motivators

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88
Q

Herzberg’s two-factor theory is the ____ and ____ approach

A

Motivation and maintenance

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89
Q

In Herzberg’s two-factor theory, maintenance represents _____ factors (satisfiers, dissatisfiers)

A

Hygeine

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90
Q

If hygiene factors are present and perceived as good, they are ____

A

Satisfiers

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91
Q

If hygiene factors are lacking or perceived as negative, they are ____ and will interfere with work

A

Dissatisfiers

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92
Q

The Herzberg two-factor theory states that maintenance (hygiene) factors do not produce ____, but they can prevent it from occurring

A

Motivation

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93
Q

What are examples of maintenance (hygiene) factors as defined by Herzberg’s two-factor theory?

A

-Fair wage
-Insurance
-Retirement benefit
-Supervision
-Schedule
-Working conditions
-Interpersonal relationships on the job

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94
Q

Maintenance (hygiene) factors as defined by Herzberg’s two-factor theory maintain ____ level of need satisfaction

A

Minimal

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95
Q

Motivation factors as defined by Herzberg’s two-factor theory call forth ____ and ___ (job enrichment)

A

Energy and enthusiasm

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96
Q

What are examples of motivation factors as defined by Herzberg’s two-factor theory?

A

-Achievement
-Personal accomplishment
-Recognition
-Responsibility
-Participation in decision making
-Opportunity to grow and advance

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97
Q

McClelland’s theory suggests that all people have what three needs?

A

-The need to achieve
-The need for power
-The need for affiliation

98
Q

McClelland’s theory states that the achievement motive is a desire to do something ___ or more ____

A

Better; efficiently

99
Q

People with the achievement need tend to gravitate towards ___ and ____ positions

A

Sales; management

100
Q

Those with the achievement need are ____ oriented and can manage themselves

A

Task

101
Q

McClelland’s theory states that the need for affiliation is the desire to be ____ by others; tend to join groups

A

Liked

102
Q

McClelland’s theory states that those with a need for power enjoy ____ and seek confrontation

A

Competition

103
Q

MacGregor’s theory states that the attitude of the ___ toward ____ has an impact on job performance (based on the manager’s assumptions as to how employees view work)

A

Manager; employee

104
Q

MacGregor’s theory X states that people inherently ____ work and will avoid it if possible; authoritative and work-centered management

A

Dislike

105
Q

MacGregor’s theory X states that workers prefer to be controlled and directed by ____ and are motivated by ____

A

Power; fear

106
Q

MacGregor’s theory X states is negative and ____

A

Autocratic

107
Q

MacGregor’s theory Y states that work is as natural as ___ or ___

A

Play or rest

108
Q

MacGregor’s theory Y states that management should arrange conditions so that workers can achieve ___ by directing their own efforts

A

Goals

109
Q

MacGregor’s theory Y states is positive and ____

A

Participative

110
Q

The ____ studies were conducted at Western Electric by Elton Mayo

A

Hawthorne

111
Q

The Hawthorne studies showed that if you involve people in the process, they become more ____

A

Productive

112
Q

The Hawthorne studies show that productivity is due to…

A

-Special attention given to employees
-Employees were involved in an interesting experience
-Employees were well-treated by their supervisors

113
Q

The Hawthorne studies also showed that ____ from work increased productivity

A

Breaks

114
Q

The Hawthorne studies confirmed the ____ effect, where special attention improves behavior

A

Placebo

115
Q

The ____ theory is by Beer and Vroom

A

Expectancy

116
Q

The Expectancy theory states that rewards serve as ____ only under certain conditions

A

Motivators

117
Q

The Expectancy theory also states that employees must belive that ___ ___ leads to certain rewards

A

Effective performance

118
Q

The Expectancy theory also states that employees must feel that rewards offered are ___

A

Attactive

119
Q

The ___-___ Theory focuses on a leader’s effect on an employee’s motivation to perform; motivation to behave in a particular manner is the result of an expectation that a behavior will result in a particular goal and how strongly a personal desires the goal (do they value the reward offered?)

A

Path-goal

120
Q

Effective ____ accept that change should and will occur and work with others in order to facilitate the place and outcome of change

A

Leaders

121
Q

What are leadership styles, listed in decreasing order of control?

A

-Autocratic
-Consultative
-Bureaucratic
-Participative
-Democratic
-Free rein

122
Q

An ____ leader demands obedience, has the most control, and is in full responsibility; crisis control

A

Autocratic

123
Q

A ____ leader asks for input, but makes major decisions alone

A

Consultative

124
Q

A ____ leader goes by the book and follows procedure to the letter

A

Bureaucratic

125
Q

A _____ leader encourages workers to participate in decision-making; uses quality circles: small group of employees who meet regularly to identify and solve problems; this type of leadership is an emerging trend in management

A

Participative

126
Q

A _____ leader guides and encourages the group to make decisions

A

Democratic

127
Q

A ___ ___ (laissez-faire) has the lead control and allows the group to make decisions

A

Free rein

128
Q

The Leadership ____ was developed by Blake and Mouton

A

Grid

129
Q

The Leadership Grid plots leader’s concern for ____ (employees) vs their concern for ____ on a scale of 1 to 9 (1 being low concern, 9 being high)

A

People; production

130
Q

Blake and Mouton define a leadership grid ratio of 1 (production), 9 (people) as ___ ___ management

A

Country club management

131
Q

Country Club management is ____-centered

A

Employee

132
Q

Blake and Mouton’s Country Club management says that management seeks ___ and ____; creates comfortable and friendly atmosphere

A

Approval and acceptance

133
Q

Blake and Mouton define a leadership grid ratio of 9 (production) and 9 (people) as ____ management

A

Team

134
Q

Team management style shows high concern for people and production; they have common ___ in purpose

A

Stake

135
Q

Blake and Mouton define leadership styles that have a leadership grid ratio of 5 (production) and 5 (people) as…

A

Middle of the road management

136
Q

Blake and Mouton define leadership style with a leadership grid ratio of 1 (production) and 1 (people) as ____ management

A

Impoverished

137
Q

Leaders that exhibit impoverished leadership styles exert ____ effort to get work done

A

Minimal

138
Q

Impoverished leaders have a desire to hand on, but are ____; they have low concern for people and production

A

Indifferent

139
Q

Blake and Mouton define a leadership style with a leadership grid ratio of 9 (production) and 1 (people) as…

A

Authority, obedience, autocratic

140
Q

Leaders who exhibit authority, obedience, and autocratic management styles focus on ___ and managing tasks; show domination, mastery, and control; view people as commodities like machines

A

Production

141
Q

Likert developed a system for the management of ____

A

Conflict

142
Q

Likert explained that there are four basic systems of organizational leadership, which are…

A

-Exploitative, autocratic
-Benevolent, autocratic
-Consultative
-Participative

143
Q

The exploitative, autocratic system of organizational leadership is ___-centered; the leader makes all of the decisions

A

Job

144
Q

The benevolent, autocratic system of organizational leadership is also job-centered; minor decisions are made by ____

A

Workers

145
Q

The consultative system of organizational leadership is ___-centered; gain some confidence

A

Employee

146
Q

The participative system of organizational leadership is is also employee-centered; employees have ____ and ____

A

Trust and resposibility

147
Q

The ____ system of organizational leadership is the most effective; employees worked under general supervision, the boss delegated authority, and it was employee-oriented; decision-making was spread evenly throughout the organization; full involvement of employees in setting goals and making job-related decisions

A

Participative

148
Q

The ____ principle may promote someone to a level of incompetence

A

Peter

149
Q

____ and ____ leadership responds to the external environment; methods that are highly effective in one situation may not work in another, results differ because situations differ; management must identify which techniques will work in a particular situation at a particular time

A

Contingency and situational

150
Q

Tanenbaum and Schmidt developed the Leadership ____

A

Continuum

151
Q

The leadership continuum is a range of possible leadership ___; each type is related to the degree of authority used by the manager and the amount of freedom available to subordinates in reaching decisions

A

Behaviors

152
Q

A manager may use a variety of approaches as the situation requires; a manager who generally involves others in making decisions must take charge in a crisis; examples of behaviors include…

A

-Tells decision
-Sells decision
-Discusses decision
-Asks for input on decision
-Collaborates on decision
-Delegates responsibility for decision

153
Q

Fielder developed the ____ approach to leadership which states that in both highly favorable and highly unfavorable situations, a task-oriented leader is more effective (the group is ready to be led)

A

Contingency

154
Q

Fielder’s contingency approach also states that in moderately favorable situations, a ____-oriented leader tends to be more effective because cooperation is more successful than task-oriented leadership

A

Relationship

155
Q

The Leadership ____ Model was developed by Hersey, Blanchard, and Johnson; it defines the readiness of followers and recommends leadership styles to use for each

A

Effectiveness

156
Q

____, as defined in the Leadership Effectiveness Model, is the desire for achievement, willingness and ability to accept responsibility, and skills relevant to the task

A

Readiness

157
Q

Leadership styles as explained by the leadership effectiveness model:

A

-Tell (low readiness)
-Sell (low to moderate readiness)
-Participate (moderate to high readiness)
-Delegate (high readiness)

158
Q

____ approaches to leadership focus on interactions among leaders and their followers rather than on the characteristics of leaders themselves

A

Reciprocal

159
Q

____ vs ____ leadership examines how leads and followers influence each other

A

Transactional; transformational

160
Q

A ____ leader clarifies roles and responsibilities and uses rewards and punishment to achieve goals (top of control list; autocratic)

A

Transactional

161
Q

A ____ leader encourages agents of change and is participative; they inspire followers to become motivated to work towards organizational goals rather than personal gain; builds on and extends transactional leadership; cultivates employee acceptance of the group mission

A

Transformational

162
Q

Traditional or classical theories of management follow a formal structure that ___ and ____ the work activities

A

Organizes and administers

163
Q

In traditional or classical management theories, ____ is the main responsibility of management; focuses on tasks, structure, and theories

A

Coordination

164
Q

Traditional or classical management styles use the ____ principle which is when authority and responsibility flow in a direct line vertically from the highest to the lowest echelons; clear and unbroken lines

A

Scalar

165
Q

Traditional or classical management also uses the ___ ___ ___ which states that each employee is accountable to only one superior

A

Unity of Command

166
Q

What are some criticisms of traditional or classical management?

A

-Too mechanistic
-Job-focused and impersonal
-Doesn’t see group interactions and decision-making process

167
Q

___ ___ management (behavioral) theory uses behavioral sciences; workers exist in social groups

A

Human relations

168
Q

In the human relations theory of management, ____ participation in decision-making is essential; it improves morale and productivity

A

Employee

169
Q

Theory Z by Ouchi states that the value of the company is the ____; everyone who will be affected by a decision is involved in making the decision (consensus decision-making)

A

People

170
Q

The ____ approach to management explains that the system is an organized whole composed of interdependent parts called subsystems

A

Systems

171
Q

Subsystems are classified according to their purpose, which include…

A

-Procurement
-Production
-Distribution and service
-Safety and sanitation

172
Q

A subsystem is a complete system within itself that is part of a ____ system (ex: foodservice is a subsystem of the hospital, and production is a subsystem of the food service department)

A

Larger

173
Q

The systems approach of management explains that a workplace is an ____ system that interacts with external forces; change in one part affects many other parts

A

Open

174
Q

The systems approach to management considered the entire ____ when making decisions or allocating resources

A

Organization

175
Q

The major components to the systems approach of management are…

A

Input –> transformation –> output

176
Q

The process of transforming inputs into outputs involves ____ (decision-making, communication), ____ (plan, organize, staff, direct, control), and ___ functional subsystems (production, distribution, service_

A

Linking, managing, building

177
Q

What are some characteristics of open systems?

A

-Interdependency of parts
-Integration
-Synergy
-Dynamic equilibrium
-Equifinality
-Permeability of Boundaries

178
Q

Interdependency of parts explains how each part of the system affects ____ of other parts leading to integration and synergy; view as a whole, not as isolated parts

A

Performance

179
Q

Integration is when parts are blended together into a _____ whole (leads to synergy)

A

Unified

180
Q

Synergy explains how units working together may have a greater impact than each operating ____

A

Separately

181
Q

Dynamic equilibrium is a ___-___, continuous response and adaptation to the environment

A

Steady-state

182
Q

____ explains how the same or similar output can be achieved by using different inputs or by varying the transformation process (various alternatives may be used to achieve similar results)

A

Equifinality

183
Q

The permeability of boundaries allows the system to be affected by changing the ____

A

Environment

184
Q

The ____ is where two systems or subsystems come in contact with each other

A

Interface

185
Q

The ____ management approach was developed by Taylor

A

Scientific

186
Q

Scientific management is ___-centered; workers must work at the fastest pace possible and at maximum efficiency; it is a systematic approach to improving worker efficiency

A

Work

187
Q

Scientific management works to structure work situations to minimize ____ needed by the supervisor; finds the best way of performing tasks

A

Motivation

188
Q

Scientific management focuses on the ____ aspects of the job (assembly line, manufacturing)

A

Physical

189
Q

Management by ____ is a management strategy created by Drucker

A

Objectives

190
Q

Management by objectives is a type of ____ management that provides control from within

A

Democratic

191
Q

Management by objectives requires the establishment of ____ goals and objectives with employees (gives higher incentive)

A

Performance

192
Q

Management by objectives allows for overall control to be achieved through ___-___ of employees

A

Self-control

193
Q

With management by objectives, management stresses ____ and ____

A

Accomplishments and results

194
Q

Management by objectives is an example of ____ leadership

A

Participative

195
Q

____ and ____ is the final function of management

A

Controlling/evaluating

196
Q

Controlling and evaluating measure present performance against ____ performance

A

Standard

197
Q

Controlling is an ongoing process that determines whether ___ have been reached

A

Goals

198
Q

Controlling shows ___ and ____ and solves problems

A

Strengths and weaknesses

199
Q

Steps of controlling:

A

-Establish qualitative and quantitative standards (what is expected to happen)
-Measure performance
-Compare to standard
-Take corrective action

200
Q

____ skills of a manager are described as understanding of and proficiency in a specific kind of activity; most important at lower levels of management

A

Technical

201
Q

____ skills of management are explained as the ability to work effectively as a group member (interpersonal skills); important at all levels, but imperative at lower levels of management)

A

Human

202
Q

____ skills of management allow a manager to see the organization as a whole; importance increases at higher ranks of management

A

Conceptual

203
Q

Hard skills can be ____, while soft skills must be ___ and ____

A

Taught; developed and nurtured

204
Q

Roles of a manager fall within what three categories?

A

-Informational
-Interpersonal
-Decisional

205
Q

Informational skills include…

A

-Monitor (constantly searching for information to become more effective)
-Disseminator (transmits information to subordinates)
-Spokesman (transmits information to people inside and outside)

206
Q

Interpersonal skills include…

A

-Leader (responsible for work of the staff, hiring, training)
-Liaison (dealing with those inside and outside the organization)

207
Q

Decisional skills include…

A

-Entrepreneur
-Disturbance handler
-Resource allocator
-Negotiator

208
Q

Steps in problem-solving:

A

-Recognize and analyze problem
-Determine workable solutions
-Gather data
-Choose solutions
-Take action
-Follow-up the action

209
Q

The ____ group technique from Delbecq generates innovative, creative ideas

A

Nominal

210
Q

The nominal group technique is more ___ and ___ than an ordinary brainstorming group; it has an authoritative leader, controlled interactions, closely focused goals, and rigidly enforced procedures

A

Structured and controlled

211
Q

With the nominal group technique, responses are tightly controlled by the ____

A

Leader

212
Q

In the nominal group technique, group often sits in a ____ formation and participants silently generate ideas (round-robin reporting, leader records ideas)

A

Horseshoe

213
Q

With the nominal group technique, the group ___ items in priority order and vote for a final decision

A

Ranks

214
Q

The Delphi technique uses the consensus of ____

A

Experts

215
Q

The Delphi technique is designed to probe expert minds in a series of ____ interviews from which some consensus is sought; participants do not meet

A

Written

216
Q

A ___ and ___ (fish) diagram can be used to determine what influences the outcome

A

Cause and effect

217
Q

Cause and effect diagrams focus on different causes of a problem and categorizes related factors to make their influence more ____

A

Observable

218
Q

A cause and effect diagram is a series of connected ____, each representing an important factor; it is used as a technique to increase worker involvement in decision-making

A

Arrows

219
Q

A Pareto analysis or bar chart illustrates the relative ____ of problems

A

Importance

220
Q

A Pareto analysis allows managers to work on the tallest bar or problem that occurs most ____; correcting the “vital few” problems will have the greatest impact on quality

A

Frequently

221
Q

Most effects have relatively few ____; the 80-20 rule states that 80% of a given outcome results from 20% of an input (ex: 80% of sales come from 20% of customers)

A

Causes

222
Q

____ theory develops the relationships involved with waiting in line; it is used in analyzing the flow of customers in a cafeteria (balance the cost of waiting lines with the cost of preventing waiting in lines through increased service)

A

Queuing

223
Q

Conflict is inevitable, and sometimes necessary for the organization to survive and often leads to solutions; the task of the manager is not to ___ or ____ all conflict, but to manage it to minimize its harmful aspects and maximize its beneficial aspects

A

Suppress or resolve

224
Q

In the organizational ____ theory model, the leader recognizes the need to make a change, then inspires followers to move toward change

A

Change

225
Q

Change agents serve as ____ for change

A

Catalysts

226
Q

Successful change requires that you unfreeze the ___ ___, change to a new state, then refreeze it to make the change permanent (prepare for change, manage it, reinforce it)

A

Status quo

227
Q

____ is action that will cause a change in behavior or attitude in another

A

Influence

228
Q

____ is the ability to exert influence

A

Power

229
Q

____ power is the ability to reward another for carrying out an order, give incentives, and praise to reinforce certain behaviors

A

Reward

230
Q

____ power is a negative side effect of reward power; ineffective in motivating behavior change; may create resistance; it is the ability to publish another for not carrying out requirements and is used to maintain minimum standard of performance

A

Coercive

231
Q

____ (legitimate) power is when a subordinate acknowledges that the influencer has the right to exert influence due to position (job titles)

A

Position

232
Q

____ power if the belief that the influencer has some relevant expertise that the subordinate does not; provides credibility; viewed as competent

A

Expert

233
Q

____ power (personality, charisma) is based on the desire to identify with or imitate the influencer (how well you are liked)

A

Referent

234
Q

Successful managers are sensitive to the source of their power and are aware of the ___ and ___ of using each kind

A

Risks and benefits

235
Q

Expert and legitimate powers are important for _____

A

Compliance

236
Q

Expert and referent powers are related to subordinates’ ___ and ____

A

Performance and satisfaction

237
Q

____ is one’s responsibility to oneself, an organization, or to the public

A

Accountability

238
Q

____ is an obligation to perform an assigned activity, or see that someone else performs it

A

Responsibility

239
Q

Managerial attributes that distinguish successful organizations from others:

A

-Have a bias for action: fix it, do it, solve it
-Be close to your customers: learn from them
-Autonomy: be a risk taker, try new ways to get the job done
-Productivity through people: treat people with respect and dignity
-Management should be hands-on and value-driven; explain your value system to your employees

240
Q

A multicultural workforce should value, encourage, and affirm differences and ____ cultural modes; address incidences of prejudice and provide diversity training to increase awareness and acceptance of differences among employees

A

Diverse

241
Q

____ ____ is the extent to which a person is in tune with their own feelings and the feelings of others; it involves skills of self-awareness, communication, empathy, and self-regulation of emotions into appropriate behavior

A

Emotional intelligence