Domain II: Nutrition Care for Individuals and Groups: Medical Nutrition Therapy Flashcards

1
Q

An ____ is an eroded mucosal lesion

A

Ulcer

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2
Q

What is the typical treatment for GI ulcers?

A

-Antacids
-Antibiotics to eradicate Helicobacter pylori bacteria

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3
Q

What are two examples of medications used for treatment of ulcers?

A

-Cimetidiine
-Ranitidine

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4
Q

Cimetidine and Ranitidine are what drug class?

A

H2 blockers

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5
Q

H2 blockers like Cimetidine and Ranitidine work by preventing the binding of ____ to its receptor, therefore decreasing acid secretion

A

Histamine

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6
Q

For someone with an ulcer, diet should be well-balanced and we should recommend avoiding ___-___ ____

A

Late-night snacking

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7
Q

For someone with an ulcer, we should also recommend avoiding gastric irritants such as…

A

-Cayenne
-Black pepper
-Large amounts of chili powder
-Avoid excess caffeine and alcohol

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8
Q

A ____ ____ is a protrusion of a portion of the stomach above the diaphragm into the chest

A

Hiatal hernia

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9
Q

MNT for a hiatal hernia:

A

-Small, bland feedings
-Avoid late-night snacks
-Caffeine
-Chili powder
-Black pepper

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10
Q

Dumping Syndrome commonly follows a _____ (Billroth I, II)

A

Gastrectomy

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11
Q

What symptoms does Dumping Syndrome cause when beginning to eat?

A

-Cramps
-Rapid pulse
-Weakness
-Perspiration
-Dizziness

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12
Q

Dumping Syndrome occurs when rapidly hydrolyzed carbohydrates enter the _____, and excess water is drawn in to achieve osmotic balance

A

Jejunum

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13
Q

The water in the jejunum causes rapid ____ in the vascular fluid compartment and a decrease in peripheral vascular resistant

A

Decrease

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14
Q

When this occurs during Dumping Syndrome, ____ ____ drops, and signs of cardiac insufficiency appear

A

Blood pressure

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15
Q

About 2 hours after signs of cardiac insufficiency occur, the carbohydrates are digested and absorbed rapidly, which causes blood sugar to rise, stimulating an ____ of insulin

A

Overproduction

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16
Q

The overproduction of insulin leads to blood sugars to fall below fasting, which is known as ____ or ____ ____

A

Reactive or alimentary hypoglycemia

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17
Q

A Billroth I, or a _______, attaches the remaining stomach to the duodenum

A

Gastroduodenostomy

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18
Q

A Billroth II, or a _______, attaches the remaining stomach to the jejunum

A

Gastrojejunostomy

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19
Q

With a Billroth II (gastrojejunostomy), food bypasses the _____

A

Duodenum

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20
Q

When food bypasses the duodenum, the secretion of ____ and ____ by the duodenum is reduced

A

Secretin, pancreozymin

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21
Q

Secretin and pancreozymin normally stimulate the ____, so after a Billroth II, there is little pancreatic secretion

A

Pancreas

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22
Q

Absorption of ____, which is most rapidly absorbed in the duodenum, and ____, which requires acid for absorption, are adversely affected after a Billroth II (gastrojejunostomy)

A

Calcium; iron

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23
Q

A Vitamin B12 (cobalamin) deficiency (common after gastric surgery) is caused by a lack of ____ ____, or ___ ___ in the loop of the intestine that is being bypassed

A

Intrinsic factor; bacterial overgrowth

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24
Q

_____ anemia is caused by B12 deficiency

A

Pernicious

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25
Q

Pernicious anemia is diagnosed using the ____ test, which looks for intrinsic factor levels

A

Schilling

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26
Q

____ deficiency is also common after gastric surgery and can also be caused by B12 deficiency because it needs B12 to be transported into the cell

A

Folate

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27
Q

Folate deficiency and low serum iron, which is a cofactor in folate metabolism, can lead to ____ anemia

A

Megaloblastic

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28
Q

MNT for s/p gastric surgery:

A

-Small, frequent meals
-Fluids before or after meals (not during) to slow passage
-Restrict hypertonic concentrated sweets
-50-60% complex carbohydrates
-Protein at each meal
-Moderate fat intake
-B12 injections may be needed
-Lactose may be poorly tolerated due to rapid transport

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29
Q

What deficiencies may develop after a complete gastrectomy?

A

-Iron
-B12
-Folate
-Calcium
-Vitamin D
-B1 (thiamin)
-Copper

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30
Q

____ is delayed gastric emptying

A

Gastroparesis

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31
Q

Gastroparesis can be caused by…

A

-Surgery
-Diabetes
-Viral infections
-Obstructions

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32
Q

Moderate to severe ____ can have detrimental effects of gastric nerves, and may lead to gastroparesis

A

Hyperglycemia

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33
Q

____ are a class of drug that work to increase stomach contractility and treat gastroparesis

A

Prokinetics

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34
Q

What are two examples of prokinetic drugs used for gastroparesis?

A

-Erythromycin
-Metoclopramide

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35
Q

MNT for gastroparesis:

A

-Small, frequent meals
-May need pureed foods
-Avoid high-fiber foods
-Avoid high-fat foods (liquid fat may be better tolerated)
-Avoid caffeine (acidic)
-Avoid mint (acidic)
-Avoid alcohol (acidic)
-Avoid carbonation

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36
Q

A _____ might occur with gastroparesis due to undigested food or medication

A

Bezoar

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37
Q

Treatment for a bezoar include ____ or ____ therapy

A

Enzyme or endoscopic

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38
Q

____ ____ is a rare digestive disease caused by either bacterial, viral, or parasitic infection

A

Tropical sprue

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39
Q

Tropical sprue is a chronic GI disease that cases ____ ____, and may affect the stomach as well

A

Intestinal lesions

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40
Q

Tropical sprue causes symptoms like…

A

-Diarrhea
-Malnutrition

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41
Q

Tropical sprue may also cause deficiencies of ____ and ____ due to decreased hydrochloric acid and intrinsic factor

A

Folate and B12

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42
Q

____ are typically used for medical treatment of tropical sprue

A

Antibiotics

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43
Q

MNT for tropical sprue:

A

-High kcal diet
-High protein diet
-IM B12 injections
-Oral folate supplements

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44
Q

Non-tropical sprue is similar in nature to ____ ____ or ____-___ ____

A

-Celiac disease
-Gluten-induced enteropathy

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45
Q

____ refers to storage proteins (prolamins)

A

Gluten

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46
Q

What are some examples of prolamins?

A

-Gliadin (wheat)
-Secalin (rye)
-Hordein (barley)
-Avenin (oats)

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47
Q

Celiac’s have a reaction to_____, which affects the jejunum and ileum (proximal intestine)

A

Gliadin

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48
Q

Celiac disease can cause…

A

-Malabsorption (leads to loss of fat-soluble vitamins)
-Macrocytic anemia
-Weight loss
-Diarrhea
-Steatorrhea
-Iron-deficiency anemia

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49
Q

Those with non-tropical sprue, Celiac, or gluten-induced enteropathy need a gluten (gliadin)-free diet which restricts…

A

-Wheat
-Rye
-Oats (if harvested and milled with wheat)
-Barley
-Buckwheat (may be contaminated)
-Bran
-Graham
-Malt
-Bulgur
-Couscous
-Durum
-Orzo
-Thickening agents

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50
Q

What things are acceptable for a gluten-free diet?

A

-Corn
-Potato
-Rice
-Soybean
-Tapioca
-Arrowroot
-Carbon bean
-Guar gum
-Flax
-Amaranth
-Millet
-Teff
-Quinoa

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51
Q

Constipation is sometimes due to an ____ colon (weakened muscles)

A

Atonic

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52
Q

MNT for constipation:

A

-High-fiber diet
-High fluid
-Exercise

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53
Q

____ is the presence of diverticula, or small sacs that protrude through the intestinal wall due to structural weakness

A

Diverticulosis

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54
Q

Diverticulosis is related to ____ and lifelong intra-colonic pressures

A

Constipation

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55
Q

MNT for diverticulosis is a ___-___ diet to increase volume and weight of residue and provide rapid transport

A

High-fiber

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56
Q

_____ is when diverticula become inflamed as a result of food and residue accumulation and bacterial action

A

Diverticulitis

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57
Q

MNT for diverticulitis:

A

-Clear liquids
-Low-residue or elemental
-Gradual return to high fiber

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58
Q

____ provides indigestible bulk and promotes intestinal function

A

Fiber

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59
Q

Dietary fiber includes non-digestible ___ and ___

A

Carbohydrates and lignans

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60
Q

Dietary fiber binds _____ and ____ fecal bulk

A

Water; increases

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61
Q

Dietary fiber is found in things like…

A

-Legumes
-Wheat bran
-Fruits
-Vegetables
-Whole grains

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62
Q

Oat bran and ____ fiber decrease serum cholesterol by binding bile acids, converting more cholesterol into bile

A

Soluble

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63
Q

Soluble fibers ____ gastric emptying, absorb water, and form a soft gel in the small intestine

A

Delay

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64
Q

Soluble fibers slow the passage of food through the GI tract and inhibit the absorption of ____ and _____

A

Glucose and cholesterol

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65
Q

What are sources of soluble fiber?

A

-Fruits
-Vegetables
-Legumes
-Oats
-Barley
-Carrots
-Applies
-Citrus fruits
-Strawberries
-Bananas

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66
Q

Adequate intake of fiber for men is ____ g, and for women, it is ____ g per day

A

38; 25

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67
Q

A high-fiber diet may increase needs for…

A

-Calcium
-Magnesium
-Phosphorus
-Copper
-Selenium
-Zinc
-Iron

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68
Q

A low-fiber diet may cause _____

A

Constipation

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69
Q

_____ is inflammation of the stomach

A

Gastritis

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70
Q

Gastritis may lead to…

A

-Anorexia
-Nausea
-Vomiting
-Diarrhea

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71
Q

MNT for gastritis:

A

-Clear liquids
-Advance diet as tolerated
-Avoid gastric irritants

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72
Q

What are two inflammatory bowel diseases?

A

-Crohn’s Disease
-Ulcerative colitis

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73
Q

Crohn’s Disease is also known as ____ ____

A

Regional enteritis

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74
Q

Crohn’s Disease affects the ____ ____

A

Terminal ileum

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75
Q

Crohn’s disease causes symptoms like…

A

-Weight loss
-Anorexia
-Diarrhea

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76
Q

Crohn’s disease can also cause B12 deficiency, which leads to ____ ____

A

Megaloblastic anemia

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77
Q

Crohn’s disease can also lead to ___-___ anemia due to blood loss and decreased absorption

A

Iron-deficiency

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78
Q

Ulcerative colitis is an ulcerative disease of the _____

A

Colon

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79
Q

Ulcerative colitis begins in the ____

A

Rectum

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80
Q

Ulcerative colitis causes symptoms like…

A

-Chronic bloody diarrhea
-Weight loss
-Anorexia
-Electrolyte (Na, K) disturbances
-Dehydration
-Anemia
-Fever
-Negative nitrogen balance

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81
Q

Treatment for IBD includes maintaining fluid and electrolyte balance, sometimes accomplished with ____-____ agents

A

Anti-diarrheal

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82
Q

One example of an anti-diarrheal is _____

A

Sulfasalazine

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83
Q

MNT for acute Crohn’s flare-ups:

A

-Bowel rest
-Parenteral nutrition or minimal residue

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84
Q

For acute Ulcerative Colitis, an ____ diet (EN) may be needed to minimize fecal volume

A

Elemental

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85
Q

For those with IBD, energy needs should be based on current ____

A

BMI

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86
Q

For those with IBD, fat only needs to be restricted for those experiencing _____

A

Steatorrhea

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87
Q

MNT for IBD:

A

-May need supplementation of water-soluble vitamins, as well as iron and folate
-Assess Calcium, Magnesium, and Zinc
-Watch lactose
-Small, frequent feedings
-High fat may improve energy imbalance
-Protein at each meal
-Chewable MVI

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88
Q

Coconut oil derived ____ ____ is an easy-to-oxidize source of energy and may improve bowel damage

A

MCT oil

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89
Q

When IBD is in remission or under control, a ___-___ diet should be initiated to stimulate peristalsis

A

High-fiber

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90
Q

____ ____ ____ causes chronic abdominal discomfort, altered intestinal motility, and bloating

A

Irritable bowel syndrome

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91
Q

The goals for treating IBS:

A

-Adequate nutrition intake
-Tailor patterns to specific GI issues

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92
Q

Those with IBS should avoid…

A

-Gas-forming foods
-Swallowing air during eating

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93
Q

It is recommended that those with IBS should use a ___ ___ to track intake, emotions, environment, and symptoms to determine any trigger foods

A

Food diary

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94
Q

A ____-____ diet may help eliminate possible sources of discomfort in those with IBS

A

Low-FODMAP

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95
Q

_____, which contains menthol, a smooth muscle relaxant, may relax the lower esophageal sphincter which can then reduce reflux, cramping, and pain for those with IBS

A

Peppermint

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96
Q

Lactose intolerance is due to a ____ deficiency

A

Lactase

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97
Q

Normally, lactase splits lactose into ____ and ____

A

Glucose and galactose

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98
Q

In the absence of lactase, lactose remains intact, exerting _____ _____

A

Hyperosmolar pressure

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99
Q

Due to the hyperosmolar pressure caused by lactose, ____ is drawn into the intestine to dilute the load

A

Water

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100
Q

The excess water drawn into the intestine causes…

A

-Distention
-Cramps
-Diarrhea

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101
Q

Bacteria then ferment the undigested lactose, releasing ____ ____ gas

A

Carbon dioxide

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102
Q

Lactose intolerance is detected by a ____ ____ test

A

Breath hydrogen

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103
Q

The breath hydrogen test works because hydrogen is produced by ____ ____ on lactose, absorbed into the bloodstream, and exhaled in 60-90 minutes

A

Colonic bacteria

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104
Q

The lactose tolerance is conducted by providing someone with an oral dose of lactose (up to 50 g) after a fast; if intolerant of lactose, blood glucose will rise < ____ mg/dl above fasting (flat curve), if tolerant, blood glucose will be above that much (normal curve)

A

25

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105
Q

MNT for lactose intolerance:

A

-Lactose-free
-No animal milk or milk products
-No whey
-Calcium and riboflavin supplements are recommended
-Yogurt and small amounts of aged cheese may be tolerated

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106
Q

What two products are okay in someone with lactose intolerance?

A

-Lactate
-Lactalbumin

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107
Q

Treatment for acute diarrhea in infants and children requires aggressive and immediate _____ (replace fluids and electrolytes lost in stool)

A

Rehydration

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108
Q

For infants and children with acute diarrhea, WHO recommends a ____ ____ solution

A

Glucose electrolyte

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109
Q

A glucose electrolyte solution is as effective as _____ rehydration and much cheaper and ingredients are easily attainable (reintroduce oral intake within 24 hours)

A

Parenteral

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110
Q

Chronic nonspecific infantile diarrhea causes no significant _____

A

Malabsorption

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111
Q

For an infant with chronic nonspecific infantile diarrhea, consider the ratio of ____ to ____ calories as well as the volume of ingested liquids (some are inadvertently put on a low fat diet or consume too many fluids or too many calories)

A

Fat to carbohydrate

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112
Q

MNT for chronic nonspecific infantile diarrhea:

A

-Provide 40% of calories from fat
-Limit fluids
-Restrict or dilute fruit juices with high osmolar loads (gapes, apple)

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113
Q

No fruit juice up to age ____, those up to 6 should be limited to 4 ounces per day

A

1

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114
Q

For adults with diarrhea, remove the cause and replace lost ___ and ____, especially those high in sodium and potassium

A

Fluid and electrolytes

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115
Q

In order to decrease diarrhea, ___ ___ needs to be decreased

A

Gastric motility

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116
Q

MNT for reducing gastric motility:

A

-Avoid clear liquids
-Avoid foods high in lactose, sucrose, and fructose
-Avoid caffeine and alcohol
-Avoid high-fiber foods

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117
Q

Another way to decrease diarrhea is to _____ the consistency of stool

A

Thicken

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118
Q

MNT for thickening the consistency of stool:

A

-Banana flakes
-Apple powder
-Pectin sources

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119
Q

If an adult is having diarrhea, it is important to repopulate the GI tract with normal ____

A

Flora

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120
Q

_____ are food components (pectin, fructose, oats, whole grains) that promote the growth of healthy bacteria

A

Prebiotics

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121
Q

Prebiotics exist in _____

A

Fructooligosaccharides

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122
Q

Examples of prebiotic foods:

A

-Onion
-Garlic
-Banana
-Artichoke
-Asparagus
-Chicory

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123
Q

_____ are sources of bacteria that are used to reestablish bacterial gut flora

A

Probiotics

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124
Q

Probiotics can be found in ____ dairy foods like yogurt, kefir, and aged cheese

A

Fermented

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125
Q

Probiotics can also be found in other fermented foods with beneficial live cultures, like…

A

-Kimchi
-Miso
-Tempeh
-Sauerkraut

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126
Q

If needed, adults with diarrhea can stimulate the GI tract with a diet…

A

-Low in fiber
-Low in fat
-Lactose-free

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127
Q

Steatorrhea is a consequence of ____

A

Malabsorption

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128
Q

Normal stool has between 2-5 grams of fat, stool with over ___ g is indicative of malabsorption

A

7

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129
Q

MNT for steatorrhea:

A

-High protein
-High complex carbohydrates
-Fat as tolerated
-Vitamins (especially fat-soluble)
-Minerals
-MCT (rapidly hydrolyzed in the GI tract)

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130
Q

The consequences of ____ ____ ____ are associated with significant resections of the small intestine

A

Short bowel syndrome

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131
Q

Short bowel syndrome can cause things like…

A

-Malabsorption
-Malnutrition
-Fluid and electrolyte imbalances
-Weight loss

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132
Q

The severity of short bowel syndrome reflects the…

A

-Length and location of resection
-Age of patient
-Health of remaining tract

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133
Q

The loss of the ____ (especially the distal 1/3), the ___ ____, and the ____ are of particular concerns with short bowel syndrome

A

Ileum, ileocecal valve, colon

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134
Q

Most digestion takes place in the first ____ cm of the intestine (in the duodenum and upper jejunum); what remains are small amounts of sugar, starches, fiber, and lipids

A

100

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135
Q

If someone has a jejunal resection, the ____ can adapt and take over the jejunal functions

A

Ileum

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136
Q

Significant resections of _____ produce major complications

A

Ileum

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137
Q

The distal ileum is responsible for the absorption of…

A

-Vitamin B12
-Intrinsic factor
-Bile salts

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138
Q

The ileum normally absorbs a major portion of ____ in the GI tract

A

Fluid

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139
Q

Patients with ileal resection have above-average needs for ____ to compensate for excessive losses in the stool

A

Water

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140
Q

Those with ileal resection should drink at least ___ ___ more than their ostomy output daily

A

1 Liter

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141
Q

If the ileum cannot recycle bile salts, lipids are not emulsified; this leads to malabsorption of ___-___ ____

A

Fat-soluble vitamins

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142
Q

Malabsorbed fats combine with calcium, zinc, and magnesium, leading to the production of ____, which impairs absorption

A

Soaps

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143
Q

Ileal resection may also increase colonic absorption of ____, leading to kidney stones

A

Oxalates

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144
Q

Those with ileal resections have ____ fluid and electrolyte secretions as well as increased colonic motility

A

Increased

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145
Q

Loss of the colon causes loss of…

A

-Water
-Electrolytes
-Salvage absorption of carbohydrates and other nutrients

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146
Q

If someone has loss of the colon, provide ___ ___

A

Chewable vitamins

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147
Q

Someone with short bowel syndrome might initially receive ____ ____ to restore and maintain nutrition status

A

Parenteral nutrition

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148
Q

In someone with short bowel syndrome, ____ nutrition should be started early to stimulate growth and be increased over time (continuous)

A

Enteral

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149
Q

It may take ___ or ____ for someone with short bowel syndrome to transition to oral feedings

A

Weeks, months

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150
Q

MNT for s/p jejunal resection:

A

-Normal balance of carbohydrates, protein, and fat
-Avoid lactose
-Avoid oxalates
-Avoid large amounts of concentrated sweets
-Vitamin and mineral supplements

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151
Q

MNT for s/p ileal resection:

A

-Limit fat
-Use MCT (does not require bile salts, needs less intestinal surface area)
-Supplement fat-soluble vitamins, Ca, Mg, Zn
-Parenteral B12 followed by monthly injections if more than 100 cm of terminal ileum is removed

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152
Q

Functions of the liver:

A

-Stores and releases blood
-Filters toxic elements
-Metabolizes and stores nutrients
-Regulates fluid and electrolyte balance

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153
Q

____ ____ is a list of major enzymes found in organs and tissues; enzyme levels in the blood are elevated when tissue damage causes them to leak into the circulation

A

Enzyme profile

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154
Q

What are 4 liver function tests?

A

-Alkaline phosphatase (ALP)
-Lactic acid dehydrogenase (LDH)
-Aspartate amino transferase (AST, SGOT)
-Alanine aminotransferase (ALT, SGPT)

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155
Q

Normal range for alkaline phosphatase (ALP) is ____-____ U/L

A

30-120

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156
Q

Alkaline phosphatase (ALP) is elevated in what conditions?

A

-Liver disease
-Bone disease

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157
Q

Alkaline phosphatase (ALP) is decreased in what conditions?

A

-Scurvy
-Malnutrition

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158
Q

Lactic acid dehydrogenase (LDH) is increased in what conditions?

A

-Hepatitis
-Myocardial infarction
-Muscle malignancies

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159
Q

Aspartate aminotransferase (AST) is increased in ____

A

Hepatitis

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160
Q

Alanine aminotransferase (ALT) is increased in ___ ___

A

Liver disease

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161
Q

In liver disease, liver enzymes are _____

A

Elevated

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162
Q

Acute viral hepatitis can cause symptoms like…

A

-Inflammation
-Necrosis of liver
-Jaundice
-Anorexia
-Nausea
-Fatigue
-Jaundice

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163
Q

Jaundice occurs when ____ ____ are blocked

A

Bile ducts

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164
Q

Hepatitis A is contracted through the ____-____ route of transmission (this is the type more directly connected to food)

A

Fecal-oral

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165
Q

Hepatitis B is ____ transmitted

A

Sexually

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166
Q

Hepatitis C is contracted through ___-___ contact

A

Blood-blood

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167
Q

Those with acute viral hepatitis should increase their ____ intake to prevent dehydration

A

Fluid

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168
Q

Care for acute viral hepatitis varies depending on ____ and ____ ____

A

Symptoms and nutrition status

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169
Q

Those with acute viral hepatitis should get ___-___% of kcal from carbohydrates in order to replenish liver glycogen and spare protein

A

50-55

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170
Q

Those with acute viral hepatitis should get ___-___ g of protein per kg for cell regeneration and to provide lipotropic agents to convert fat into lipoprotein for removal from the liver

A

1-1.2

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171
Q

Those with acute viral hepatitis should have ___ to ____ fat intake if tolerated, but those with steatorrhea should get under ____% of kcals from fat

A

Moderate to liberal; 30

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172
Q

Those with acute viral hepatitis should have small, frequent meals (____-___) because of anorexia

A

4-6

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173
Q

____ intake should be encouraged for those with acute viral hepatitis due to its antioxidant content

A

Coffee

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174
Q

Those with acute viral hepatitis should take a ____ with B complex, C, K, and zinc

A

Multivitamin

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175
Q

If someone with acute viral hepatitis has fluids retention, they should not exceed ___ grams of sodium per day

A

2

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176
Q

_____ is damaged liver tissue that is replaced by bands of connective tissue which divide the liver into clumps and reroutes many of the veins and capillaries; blood flow through the liver is disrupted

A

Cirrhosis

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177
Q

With cirrhosis, a protein deficiency may lead to…

A

-Ascites
-Fatty liver
-Impaired blood clotting

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178
Q

What is the normal route of blood flow?

A

-Esophageal
-Veins
-Portal vein
-Liver
-Vena cava

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179
Q

Ascites occurs when blood cannot leave the _____

A

Liver

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180
Q

With ascites, connective tissue overgrowth blocks blood flow out of the liver into the ___ ___

A

Vena cava

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181
Q

Since blood flow is backed up, the liver expands (can hold an extra liter of blood); when storage capacity has been exceeded, pressure caused by increased blood volume forces fluid to sweat through the liver into the ____ ____

A

Peritoneal cavity

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182
Q

The fluid that leaks into the peritoneal cavity is almost pure ____ with a high osmolar load, pulling more fluid in to dilute this load; this leads to ___ and ____ retention

A

Plasma; sodium and water

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183
Q

Low serum ____ may be due to the dilution factor

A

Albumin

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184
Q

____ ____ occur when blood can’t enter the liver

A

Esophageal varices

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185
Q

When blood can’t enter the liver, it causes ____ ____

A

Portal hypertension

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186
Q

Connective tissue overgrowth causes resistance to blood entering the portal vein; the increased pressure forces blood back into ____ veins that offer less resistance; esophageal, abdominal, and collateral veins enlarge

A

Collateral

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187
Q

Someone with cirrhosis needs adequate to high protein; they should get ___-___ g/kg or ___ g/kg when in stress

A

0.8-1.2; 1.5

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188
Q

Someone with cirrhosis needs a high calorie intake of ____-____ kcal/kg estimated dry weight or basal energy expenditure + 20%

A

25-35

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189
Q

Someone with cirrhosis should have a moderate to low-fat diet, with fat making up ____-____% of calories

A

25-40

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190
Q

_____ oil might be needed for someone with cirrhosis

A

MCT

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191
Q

For someone with cirrhosis who is experiencing malabsorption, they should get under ____ g of fat per day

A

30

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192
Q

____ is the preferred fuel in cirrhosis (should include omega 3)

A

Fat

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193
Q

For someone with cirrhosis, decrease ___ ____ ____ if steatorrhea develops

A

Long chain triglycerides

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194
Q

If varices are present, someone should follow a ___-___ diet

A

Low-fiber

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195
Q

If someone has edema or ascites, someone should follow a ___-____ diet (under 2 g)

A

Low-sodium

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196
Q

With ____, someone should follow a fluid restriction of 1-1.5 L/day depending on severity as well as a moderate sodium intake

A

Hyponatremia

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197
Q

What vitamins should be supplemented in someone with cirrhosis?

A

-B complex
-Vitamin C
-Zinc
-Magnesium
-Monitor need for vitamin A and D

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198
Q

____ is involved in the conversion of ammonia to urea; in someone with cirrhosis, there is increased loss in urine

A

Zinc

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199
Q

What is the progression of alcoholic liver disease?

A
  1. Hepatic steatosis
  2. Alcoholic hepatitis
  3. Cirrhosis
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200
Q

Alcoholic liver disease is liver injury due to alcohol and the ____ derangements it causes

A

Metabolic

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201
Q

Alcohol is converted into _____ and excess _____ which disrupts liver metabolism

A

Acetaldehyde; hydrogen

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202
Q

With alcoholic liver disease, hydrogen replaces ___ as fuel in the Kreb’s Cycle, so fat accumulates in the liver which then leads to fatty liver and increases triglyceride levels

A

Fat

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203
Q

The shift in the NADH/NAD ratio with alcoholic liver disease inhibits ___-___ of fatty acids and promotes triglyceride synthesis

A

Beta-oxidation

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204
Q

In what ways does alcohol/alcoholic liver disease cause malnutrition?

A

-Alcohol replaces food in the diet
-Alcohol causes inflammation of the GI tract and interferes with absorption of B12, vitamin C, folic acid
-Interferes with vitamin activation
-Increases need for B vitamins in order to metabolize alcohol
-Increases needs for magnesium (excreted after alcohol consumption)
-Malnutrition increases alcohol’s destructive effects

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205
Q

You must supplement ____ and ____ ____ for someone with alcoholic liver disease

A

Thiamin; folic acid

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206
Q

____ and ____ deficiencies in alcoholic liver disease are most responsible for malabsorption

A

Protein and folate

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207
Q

A thiamin deficiency with alcoholic liver disease causes ____-____ ____

A

Wernicke-Korsakoff Syndrome

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208
Q

With hepatic failure (ESLD), liver function is decreased to ____% or less

A

25

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209
Q

With hepatic failure (ESLD), the liver cannot convert ____ into urea, so it accumulates

A

Ammonia

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210
Q

Symptoms of hepatic failure include…

A

-Apathy
-Drowsiness
-Confusion
-Coma

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211
Q

Coma caused by hepatic failure is called ____ ____ ____

A

Portal systemic encephalopathy

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212
Q

____, or involuntary jerking motions, is a sign of impending coma in someone with ESLD

A

Asterixis

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213
Q

Someone with hepatic failure (non-comatose) should have moderate to high protein diet, up to ____-____ g/kg as tolerated

A

1-1.5

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214
Q

If someone with ESLD should have _____ protein intake if they have protein-sensitive hepatic encephalopathy

A

Modest

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215
Q

Someone with end-stage liver disease should get ___-___ kcal/kg

A

30-35

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216
Q

Someone with ESLD should get ___-___% of their kcal from fat, with MCT if needed

A

30-35

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217
Q

Someone with ESLD should have a ___ ___ diet if they have ascites and should also get vitamin/mineral supplementation as needed

A

Low sodium

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218
Q

The altered neurotransmitter theory says that with ESLD, ____ are decreased (they are used for energy), and _____ are increased because the damaged liver is unable to clear them

A

Branched-chain amino acids (BCAAs); (Aromatic amino acids) AAA

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219
Q

Adding ____ to the diet of someone with end-stage liver disease will add calories and protein, but may not reduce symptoms; they are used when standard treatment is not working and when the patient does not tolerate standard protein

A

BCAAs

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220
Q

Standard treatment for end-stage liver disease is _____, which is a hyperosmolar laxative that removes nitrogen, along with _____, which is an antibiotic that destroys bacterial flora that produce ammonia

A

Lactulose; Neomycin

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221
Q

Non-alcoholic fatty liver disease causes _____, or fat build-up in the liver that is not related to alcohol consumption

A

Steatosis

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222
Q

Non-alcoholic fatty liver disease is most common in what populations?

A

-BMI 35 or over
-Type 2 diabetics
-Those with metabolic syndrome

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223
Q

Non-alcoholic fatty liver disease can be managed with _____ changes

A

Lifestyle

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224
Q

What lifestyle changes can be used to treat non-alcoholic fatty liver disease?

A

-Weight loss (7-10% of starting weight; no rapid weight loss because greater flux of fatty acids to the liver may worsen inflammation and accelerate disease progression)
-Healthful eating (Mediterranean diet, moderate alcohol, avoid sugar-sweetened beverages, coffee may help due to antioxidants)
-Physical activity (150 minutes of moderate-intensity aerobic activity, plus two strength training sessions each week)

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225
Q

_____ is inflammation of the gallbladder

A

Cholecystitis

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226
Q

Cholecystitis can be caused by an infection, which causes excess water to be absorbed, causing _____ to precipitate out

A

Cholesterol

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227
Q

When cholesterol precipitates out, ____ can form

A

Gallstones

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228
Q

Another term for gallstones is _____

A

Cholelithiasis

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229
Q

Treatment for cholecystitis includes a ____-____ diet

A

Low-fat

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230
Q

Someone with acute cholecystitis should get ____-___ grams of fat per day

A

30-45

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231
Q

Someone with chronic cholecystitis should get ____-_____% of kcals from fat

A

25-30

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232
Q

A ____ is a surgical removal of the gallbladder

A

Cholecystectomy

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233
Q

After a cholecystectomy, ____ is secreted from the liver directly into the intestine

A

Bile

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234
Q

MNT for s/p cholecystectomy:

A

-Limit fat intake for several months to allow the liver to compensate
-Slowly increase fiber to help normalize bowel movement

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235
Q

Pancreatitis causes…

A

-Inflammation with edema
-Cellular exudate
-Fat necrosis

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236
Q

Pancreatitis may be due to a blockage or reflux of the ____ ____

A

Ductal system

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237
Q

Pancreatitis causes premature activation of enzymes within the pancreas, leading to _____

A

Autodigestion

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238
Q

Acute pancreatitis causes a hypermetabolic and hyperdynamic state, leading to increased ____ ____ ____

A

Basal metabolic rate

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239
Q

MNT for acute pancreatitis:

A

-Put pancreas at rest by withholding all feedings
-Maintain hydration (IV)
-Progress as tolerated to easily digested foods with low-fat content
-Elemental (pre-digested) enteral nutrition into the jejunum may be tolerated

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240
Q

Chronic pancreatitis causes recurrent attacks of ____ ____ of long duration

A

Epigastric pain

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241
Q

Someone with chronic pancreatitis should get ____ ____ _____ _____ which is taken orally with meals and snacks to minimize fat malabsorption from lack of pancreatic lipase

A

Pancreatic enzyme replacement therapy (PERT)

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242
Q

MCT oil can be used in someone with chronic pancreatitis because they do not require ____ ____ for digestion (can add it to mixed dishes, jams, jellies, etc)

A

Pancreatic lipase

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243
Q

To promote weight gain in someone with chronic pancreatitis, give maximum level of ____ tolerated without an increase in steatorrhea or pain

A

Fat

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244
Q

If someone with chronic pancreatitis is malabsorbing fat-soluble vitamins, give them in ___-___ form

A

Water soluble

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245
Q

Parenteral ____ may be provided to someone with chronic pancreatitis because pancreatic protease (which is low in pancreatitis) splits off the vitamin from the carrier

A

B12

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246
Q

In someone with chronic pancreatitis, pancreatic ____ secretion may be defective so an antiacid may be given to increase the efficiency of PERT

A

Bicarbonate

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247
Q

In severe, prolonged cases of chronic pancreatitis, ____ ____ may be needed

A

Parenteral nutrition

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248
Q

What can be done to avoid pain with chronic pancreatitis?

A

-Avoid large meals with fatty foods
-Avoid alcohol

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249
Q

Cystic fibrosis is a disease of ____ glands

A

Exocrine

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250
Q

Cystic fibrosis causes secretion of thick ____ that obstructs glands and ducts

A

Mucous

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251
Q

Cystic fibrosis causes ____ ____ deficiency

A

Pancreatic enzyme

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252
Q

Those with cystic fibrosis also have high perspiration _____ levels

A

Electrolyte

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253
Q

Cystic fibrosis can also cause _____ because it affects the transport of chloride across the cell membrane

A

Malabsorption

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254
Q

For those with CF, use age-appropriate ____ to assess height and weight

A

BMI

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255
Q

Those with CF may require ____ ___ ___ ____ at meals and snacks

A

Pancreatic enzyme replacement therapy

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256
Q

Diet for someone with CF should be…

A

-High protein
-High calorie
-Unrestricted in fat
-Liberal in salt

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257
Q

If someone with CF is growing normally and steatorrhea is controlled, provide calories to cover the ____ for age and sex

A

RDA

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258
Q

If someone with CF is failing to grow, use BEE x ____ ____ plus disease coefficients

A

Activity factor

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259
Q

Patients with CF who fail to grow may need ____-___% of normal energy needs

A

110-200

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260
Q

For those with CF, protein should make up ____-___% of calories because they experience malabsorption due to pancreatic deficiency

A

15-20

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261
Q

For someone with CF, carbohydrates should make up ___-___% of total calories

A

45-55

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262
Q

Those with CF need liberal fat intake to compensate for high energy needs; fat should make up ___-___% of total kcal

A

35-40

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263
Q

Those with CF require a high sodium intake; they need an additional ___-___ g/day in hot weather or with heavy perspiration

A

2-4

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264
Q

Those with CF should receive age-appropriate doses of ___-___ vitamins and minerals

A

Water-soluble

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265
Q

What supplements should be provided to someone with CF?

A

-Zinc
-Water soluble form of fat-soluble vitamins (A and E)

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266
Q

____ blood pressure is the greatest pressure and measures during the contraction; ____ is the least pressure and measures during relaxation

A

Systolic, diastolic

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267
Q

Hypertension may be ____ (essential), or ____ (due to another disease)

A

Primary, secondary

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268
Q

Hypertension is classified in stages based on risk of developing ____ ____ ____

A

Coronary artery disease

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269
Q

Normal blood pressure:

A

<120/80 mm Hg

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270
Q

Elevated blood pressure:

A

Systolic between 120-129 AND diastolic under 80

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271
Q

Stage 1 hypertension:

A

Systolic between 130-139 OR diastolic between 80-89

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272
Q

Stage 2 hypertension:

A

Systolic at least 140 OR diastolic at least 90

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273
Q

____ is a major factor in the cause and treatment of hypertension

A

Obesity

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274
Q

Thiazide diuretics may be used to treat hypertension; a common adverse effect is _____

A

Hypokalemia

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275
Q

What are the four modifiable risk factors in primary prevention and treatment of hypertension?

A

-Overweight
-High salt intake
-Alcohol consumption
-Physical inactivity

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276
Q

For the management of hypertension, salt restriction of under ____ mg/day should is recommended

A

2300

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277
Q

The DASH diet recommends…

A

-Whole grains
-Fruits
-Vegetables
-Low-fat dairy
-Poultry
-Fish
-Moderate sodium
-Limit alcohol
-Decrease sweets
-Calcium-rich foods to meet DRI

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278
Q

The _____ diet can also be used for the management of hypertension

A

Mediterranean

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279
Q

The Mediterranean diet is high in ___ ____ ____ and ____ fats

A

Alpha-linolenic acid (omega 3); monounsaturated

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280
Q

What are some types of fats that the Mediterranean diet promotes (high omega 3)?

A

-Olive oil
-Canola oil
-Soybean oil
-Walnuts
-Almonds
-Pecans
-Peanuts
-Pistachios

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281
Q

What else does the Mediterranean diet promote?

A

-Fish, poultry, and eggs rather than beef
-Breads
-Fruits and vegetables in abundance
-Beans and legumes
-Yogurt
-Cheese
-Moderate consumption of wine with meals

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282
Q

____, which is an antioxidant in the skin of red grapes, may help lower blood pressure

A

Reservatrol

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283
Q

What factors increase the risk of atherosclerosis?

A

-Hypertension
-Obesity
-Smoking
-Elevated blood lipids
-Heredity

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284
Q

Coronary artery disease causes hard, ____ arteries from plaque buildup

A

Narrow

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285
Q

____ is a deficiency of blood due to obstruction

A

Ischemia

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286
Q

_____ is the loss of elasticity of blood vessel walls

A

Arteriosclerosis

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287
Q

A ____ ____ is due to a reduction of coronary blood flow to the myocardium due to a blood clot blocking a narrowed coronary artery

A

Myocardial infarction

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288
Q

_____ ____ is another term for chest pain

A

Angina pectoris

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289
Q

____ is a medication that can be given for blood clots

A

Heparin (blood thinner)

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290
Q

Dyslipidemia describes both…

A

-High triglycerides
-Low HDL

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291
Q

____ are a type of lipoprotein synthesized in the intestine from dietary fat

A

Chylomicrons

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292
Q

Chylomicrons transport dietary triglyceride from the gut to the ____

A

Adipose

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293
Q

Chylomicrons are the ____ density lipoproteins and have the smallest amount of protein

A

Lowest

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294
Q

VLDL (pre-beta) transport ____ ____ from the liver to the adipose

A

Endogenous triglycerides

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295
Q

LDL (beta) transports ____ from the diet and liver to all cells

A

Cholesterol

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296
Q

Small dense LDL (LDL-C) is associated with increased risk; it is _____ to diet

A

Responsive

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297
Q

Larger buoyant LDL is ____ associated with an increased risk

A

Not

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298
Q

HDL (alpha) does reverse cholesterol transport; it moves cholesterol from the ____ to the ____ for excretion

A

Cells; liver

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299
Q

IDL (between pre-beta and beta) is an LDL precursor and causes ____ of other lipoproteins

A

Catabolism

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300
Q

____ ____ is diagnosed based on having 3 or more risk factors; diagnosis is linked to insulin resistance, which often increases risk for coronary events

A

Metabolic syndrome

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301
Q

What are the risk factors that the diagnosis of metabolic syndrome is made upon?

A

-Elevated blood pressure (130 or more systolic, and/or 85 or more diastolic)
-Elevated triglycerides 150 or more
-Fasting serum glucose 100 or more
-Waist measurement 40 inches or more in men or 35 inches or more in women
-Low HDL under 40 in men or under 50 in women

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302
Q

Optimal LDL level is under ____

A

100

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303
Q

Optimal total cholesterol level is under ____

A

200

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304
Q

Low HDL cholesterol for men is under ____ and for women it is under ____

A

40; 50

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305
Q

HDL cholesterol is high if it is ____ or above

A

60

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306
Q

High ____ levels are independent risk factors for CHD

A

Homocysteine

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307
Q

Normal triglyceride level is under ____

A

150

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308
Q

The ___ ___ diet is for the prevention and treatment of cardiovascular disease

A

Heart Healthy

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309
Q

The heart-healthy diet provides under ___% of total calories from saturated fat

A

7

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310
Q

The heart-healthy diet provides under ____ mg of cholesterol

A

200

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311
Q

The heart-healthy diet provides no more than ____ g of sodium

A

2

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312
Q

The heart-healthy diet promotes:

A

-Whole grains
-Fruits
-Vegetables
-Low-fat or fat-free dairy
-Unsaturated fats

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313
Q

The heart healthy diet promotes ___-___ g of fiber intake per day, with ___-___ g of soluble fiber

A

20-30; 5-10

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314
Q

The adult treatment panel (ATP IV) does not focus on specific target levels for LDL, but defines _____ for whom lowering LDL would be most beneficial

A

Groups

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315
Q

The adult treatment panel recommends a heart-healthy diet and statin therapy for…

A

-Patients who have atherosclerotic cardiovascular disease
-Patients with LDL of 190 or higher
-Patients with type 2 diabetes who are between 40 and 75 years of age
-Patients with an estimated 10-year risk of cardiovascular disease of 7.5% or higher who are between 40 and 75 years old

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316
Q

____ ____ is when a weakened heart fails to maintain adequate output, resulting in diminished blood flow so fluid is held in tissues (edema); causes dyspnea

A

Heart failure

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317
Q

With heart failure, there is reduced blood flow to the kidneys which causes secretion of hormones that hold in sodium and fluid, leading to ___ ___

A

Weight gain

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318
Q

____ is a medication used in heart failure to increase the strength of the heart contraction

A

Digitalis

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319
Q

Someone with heart failure should limit sodium intake to ___-___ g/day (DASH diet)

A

2-3

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320
Q

Those with heart failure should also limit fluid intake to ___-___ L/day

A

1-2

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321
Q

Those with heart failure should get ____-____ g/kg ABW of protein per day for both normally nourished and malnourished patients

A

1.1-1.4

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322
Q

Energy needs for heart failure is calculated by multiplying _____ by an activity factor

A

RMR

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323
Q

Activity factor for a sedentary patient with heart failure:

A

1-<1.4

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324
Q

Activity factor for a low-active patient with heart failure:

A

1.4-<1.6

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325
Q

Activity factor for an active patient with heart failure:

A

1.6-<1.9

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326
Q

Activity factor for a very active patient with heart failure:

A

1.9-<2.5

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327
Q

Use indirect calorimetry to determine RMR; if that is not available, estimate RMR at ____ kcal/kg for normally nourished or ____ kcal/kg for malnourished

A

22; 24

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328
Q

In someone with heart failure, evaluate ____ status (can be lost with loop diuretics; if low, pyruvate cannot be converted into acetyl CoA for energy, so the heart muscle becomes deprived

A

Thiamin

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329
Q

What should be supplemented in someone with heart failure?

A

-DRI for folate and magnesium
-MVI with B12

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330
Q

Those with heart failure should be encouraged to do regular ____ ____

A

Physical activity

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331
Q

____ ____ is unintended weight loss caused by blood that is backed up into the liver and intestines, causing nausea and decreased appetite

A

Cardiac cachexia

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332
Q

____ and ____ supplementation may help with cardiac cachexia

A

Arginine and glutamine

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333
Q

What is the MNT for cardiac cachexia?

A

-Low saturated fat
-Low cholesterol
-Low trans fat
-<2 g sodium
-High calorie

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334
Q

The _____ is a tuft of capillaries held closely by Bowman’s Capsule; it produces ultrafiltrate which then passes through the tubules

A

Glomerulus

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335
Q

Bowman’s capsule blocks the passage of ____ ____ ____ and large molecules like protein

A

Red blood cells

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336
Q

The proximal convoluted tubule is the site of major ____ ____

A

Nutrient reabsorption

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337
Q

The Loop of Henle maintains ____ and ____ balance

A

Water and sodium

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338
Q

The distal tubule is responsible for maintaining ____-___ balance

A

Acid-base

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339
Q

What are the 4 renal functions?

A

-Filtration
-Absorption
-Excretion
-Secretion

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340
Q

The kidneys make sure red blood cells and protein stay in the blood, all else filters through the ____

A

Tubules

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341
Q

The kidneys absorb ____% of glucose and amino acids, as well as ___% of water, sodium, and potassium

A

100; 85

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342
Q

The kidneys excrete…

A

-Wastes
-Urea
-Excess ketones

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343
Q

What types of things do the kidneys secrete?

A

-Hormones that control blood pressure
-Blood components
-Ions that maintain acid-base balance

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344
Q

Vasopressin, also known as ____ ____, is secreted from the hypothalamus and stored in the pituitary gland

A

Antidiuretic hormone

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345
Q

Vasopressin (ADH) exerts a ____ effect and elevates blood pressure

A

Pressor

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346
Q

Vasopressin (ADH) increases ____ ____ from the distal and collecting tubules

A

Water resorption

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347
Q

The syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone causes (too much vasopressin) causes ______ caused by hemodilution

A

Hyponatremia

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348
Q

Hyponatremia is treated with a ____ ____

A

Fluid restriction

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349
Q

Renin is a hormone that causes ____ and elevates blood pressure

A

Vasoconstriction

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350
Q

Renin stimulates ____ to increase sodium absorption and return blood pressure to normal

A

Aldosterone

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351
Q

Erythropoietin is a hormone produced by the kidney; it stimulates the bone marrow to produce ___ ___ ___

A

Red blood cells

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352
Q

In renal disease, someone has decreased ____ and ____ ____

A

GFR; creatinine clearance

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353
Q

In renal disease, someone has increased serum ____ and ___

A

Creatinine and BUN

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354
Q

A BUN: Creatinine ratio of over ___indicates a “pre-renal state” in which BUN reabsorption is increased due to acute kidney damage (may be reversible and may not require dialysis)

A

20:1

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355
Q

A BUN: Creatinine ratio of under ____ suggested reduced BUN reabsorption due to renal damage (may need dialysis)

A

10:1

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356
Q

Renal ___ ____ describes solutes excreted in 1 L urine; daily fixed load of 600 mOsm

A

Solute load

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357
Q

Renal solute load mainly measures ___ (60%) and electrolytes (____)

A

Nitrogen; sodium

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358
Q

Manifestations of renal disease:

A

-Anemia due to decreased production of erythropoietin
-Upset in blood pressure
-Decreased activation of vitamin D

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359
Q

The kidneys produce the active form of vitamin D which promotes efficient absorption of ____ by the gut

A

Calcium

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360
Q

Renal ____ can be prevented by drinking 1.5-2 L of fluid in order to dilute the urine

A

Calculi

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361
Q

Calcium oxalate stones can be prevented with…

A

-Adequate calcium intake (RDA from dairy or supplements with meals) to bind oxalates
-Low oxalate diet (40-50 mg)

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362
Q

Founds high in oxalates:

A

-Dark leafy greens
-Chocolate
-Strawberries
-Nuts
-Beets
-Tea

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363
Q

More calcium oxalate stones are seen in patients with diets that are low in ____

A

Calcium

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364
Q

Minerals that are not oxidized in metabolism leave an ____ (residue) in the urine

A

Ash

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365
Q

To prevent acidic kidney stones, create an alkaline ash by increasing cations like calcium, sodium, potassium, and magnesium by adding to the diet things like…

A

-Vegetables
-Fruits
-Brown sugar
-Molasses

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366
Q

To prevent alkaline stones, create an acidic ash by increasing anions like chloride, phosphorus, and sulfur by adding into the diet things like…

A

-Meat
-Fish
-Fowl
-Eggs
-Shellfish
-Cheese
-Corn
-Oats
-Rye

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367
Q

___ ____ ____ is a sudden shutdown of the kidney with previously adequate capacity; causes decreased GFR and inadequate pre-renal perfusion

A

Acute kidney injury

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368
Q

Acute kidney injury can result from…

A

-Burns
-Accidents
-Obstructions
-Severe dehydration

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369
Q

Symptoms of acute kidney injury:

A

-Oliguria (<500 ml urine)
-Azotemia (increased urea in blood)

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370
Q

With acute kidney injury, at first we should provide…

A

IV glucose, lipids, protein

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371
Q

Someone with an AKI should get ___-___ g/kg of protein if they are non-catabolic without dialysis as GFR returns to normal

A

1-1.3

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372
Q

Someone with an AKI should get ___-___ g/kg of protein if they are catabolic and/or if dialysis is initiated

A

1.2-1.5

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373
Q

Those with AKI should get ____-____ kcals/kg or BEE x ___-___ during hypermetabolic conditions

A

25-40; 1.2-1.3

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374
Q

Energy expenditure ____ as kidney function declines

A

Increases

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375
Q

Those with AKI should have a low-sodium diet of no more than ___-___g; must replace loses during diuretic phase

A

2-3

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376
Q

Those with AKI should get ___-___ mg/kg phosphorus; they made need phosphorus binders

A

8-15

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377
Q

Those with AKI should get ___-___ grams of potassium based on output, serum potassium, and dialysis

A

2-3

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378
Q

For someone with AKI, replace fluid output from the previous day plus ____ ml

A

500

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379
Q

Nephrotic syndrome is also known as ____

A

Nephrosis

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380
Q

With nephrotic syndrome, there is increased ____ and decreased ____ of VLDL

A

Synthesis; clearance

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380
Q

Nephrotic syndrome is caused by a defect in the capillary basement membrane of the glomerulus which permits the escape of large amounts of ____ into the filtrate moving through the tubules

A

Protein

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380
Q

Nephrotic syndrome causes…

A

-Albuminuria
-Edema
-Malnutrition
-Hyperlipidemia

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381
Q

Those with nephrotic syndrome should get ___-___ g/kg of protein with 50% from high-biological value protein

A

0.8-1

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382
Q

In someone with nephrotic syndrome, excess protein will be catabolized to ____ and excreted

A

Urea

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383
Q

Those with nephrotic syndrome should get under ____% of total kcal from fat (low saturated fat)

A

30

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384
Q

Those with nephrotic syndrome should get no more than ____ mg of cholesterol

A

200

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385
Q

Someone with nephrotic syndrome should get ____ kcal/kg per day

A

35

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386
Q

Someone with nephrotic syndrome should have a modest sodium restriction of ___-___ g/day, depending on hypertension and edema

A

2-3

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386
Q

Those with nephrotic syndrome should get ___-___ g/day of calcium, and supplement with vitamin D as well

A

1-1.5 (1000-1500 mg)

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386
Q

Those with nephrotic syndrome might need ____ restriction if they have edema

A

Fluid

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386
Q

People with nephrotic syndrome may have abnormalities in what vitamins/minerals, related to protein loss?

A

-Iron
-Copper
-Zinc
-Calcium

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387
Q

Chronic kidney disease causes…

A

-Anemia
-Weakness
-Weight loss
-Nausea
-Vomiting

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387
Q

Anemia with CKD is due to deficient production of the hormone ____ by the kidney

A

Erythropoietin

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388
Q

What types of diets are recommended for those with CKD?

A

-Mediterranean diet
-DASH diet
-High fruit and vegetable intake

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389
Q

Those with CKD should get ___-___ kcal/kg per day

A

25-35

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390
Q

Those with CKD should get under ____ mg of sodium per day

A

2300

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391
Q

For CKD stages 3-5, we should recommend ___-___ g/protein per kg or 0.28-0.43 g/kg with keto acid to meet goal

A

0.55-0.6

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392
Q

In those with CKD, adjust ____ intake to maintain normal serum levels

A

Phosphorus

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393
Q

Those with CKD should get ___-___ mg of total elemental calcium per day

A

800-1000

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394
Q

____ is generally not restricted in CKD unless serum level is elevated and urine output is under 1 L/day

A

Potassium

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395
Q

____ is generally unrestricted for CKD stages 1-4

A

Fluid

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396
Q

What types of supplements should be considered in those with CKD?

A

-Folate
-B12
-B complex
-Vitamin C
-Vitamin D

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397
Q

The long-term goal of chronic renal failure is to prevent ____

A

Malnutrition

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398
Q

Those on hemodialysis should get ___-___ g/kg SBW of protein per day

A

1-1.2

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399
Q

Those on hemodialysis should get ___-___ kcal/kg

A

25-35

400
Q

Those on hemodialysis should get under ____ g of sodium per day

A

2.3

401
Q

Those on hemodialysis should get ___-___% of their calories from fat, with under ___% from saturated fat

A

25-35; 7

402
Q

Those on hemodialysis should get under ____ mg of cholesterol per day

A

200

403
Q

Fluid intake for someone on hemodialysis should be based on…

A

-Body weight
-Urine output
-Residual kidney function

404
Q

For those on hemodialysis, adjust ____ intake to maintain normal serum range

A

Potassium

405
Q

Calcium intake for those on hemodialysis should also be individualized with a maximum of ____ grams of total elemental calcium

A

2

406
Q

Those on hemodialysis should get ____-____ mg of phosphorus per day or under ____ mg/kg IBW or SWB

A

800-100; 17

407
Q

Those on hemodialysis might need supplementation of what vitamins/minerals to correct deficiencies?

A

-B6 (pyridoxine)
-Folate
-B12

408
Q

In someone on hemodialysis, supplement vitamin ___ and ___ if deficient

A

C and D

409
Q

Vitamin ___ and ___ supplements are not recommended for those with ESRD

A

A and E

410
Q

Those on peritoneal dialysis should get ___-___ g/kg SBW/ABW of protein

A

1-1.2

411
Q

Those on peritoneal dialysis should get ___-___ kcal/kg

A

25-35

412
Q

Those on peritoneal dialysis should get under ____ g of sodium per day

A

2.3

413
Q

____ is generally restricted for those on peritoneal dialysis (generally 2-4 grams)

A

Potassium

414
Q

Those on peritoneal dialysis should get under ____ mg of total elemental calcium, including diet and binders

A

2000

415
Q

Those on peritoneal dialysis should get ___-___ mg of phosphorus of ___-___ mg phosphorus per g of protein

A

800-1000; 10-15

416
Q

Those on peritoneal dialysis should get ___-___ L of fluid depending on output and cardiac status

A

1-3

417
Q

___ ____ ____ ____ takes place 4-5x per day

A

Continuous ambulatory peritoneal dialysis

418
Q

Vitamins and minerals for those on peritoneal dialysis are the same as for those on ____

A

Hemodialysis

419
Q

Type 1 diabetics are insulin ____, and depend on exogenous insulin

A

Deficient

420
Q

Type 2 diabetics are insulin ____ with relative insulin deficiency (may or may not need exogenous insulin)

A

Resistant

421
Q

One risk factor for diabetes in ____ ____ which causes gray-brown pigmentation in skin folds due to insulin resistance

A

Acanthosis nigracans

422
Q

Another risk factor is the presence of ___ ___ ___ antibodies

A

Glutamic acid decarboxylase

423
Q

Normal blood glucose is ___-___ mg/dl, or under ____ 2 hours post-prandial

A

70-100; 140

424
Q

Impaired fasting blood glucose is between ____-____

A

100-125

425
Q

Impaired glucose tolerance is indicated by a 2-hour post-prandial glucose of ___-___

A

140-199

426
Q

Diabetes can be diagnosed based on…

A

-Fasting plasma glucose 126 or over, OR
-Glucose tolerance test of 200 or over, OR
-Symptoms of diabetes plus casual plasma glucose 200 or more
-HgA1C of 6.5 or over

427
Q

Glycosylated hemoglobin A1C measures the percent of ____ that has ____ attached

A

Hemoglobin; glucose

428
Q

Normal A1C is under ___%

A

5.7

429
Q

Healthy adults over 65 should have an A1C under ___%; frail elderly under ___% and under

A

7; 8

430
Q

The A1C goal for those with diabetics is ____%

A

7%

431
Q

Those at risk for diabetes have an A1C of ____-____%

A

5.7-6.4

432
Q

A1C is a measure of ___-___ blood glucose control (60-90) days

A

Long-term

433
Q

When there is a high concentration of ____, it forms chemical bonds with hemoglobin; the longer blood glucose is high, the higher the A1C

A

Glucose

434
Q

____ ____ compares the blood glucose response of a food to a standard glucose load

A

Glycemic index

435
Q

The glycemic index is affected by cooking methods and the processing of ____

A

Starch

436
Q

As particle size of starch decreases, the glycemic index ____

A

Increases

437
Q

What are examples of foods with low glycemic indexes?

A

-Legumes
-Milk
-Whole grains
-Fruits
-Vegetables

438
Q

Glycemic ____ is the weighted average of the glycemic indexes of all foods eaten

A

Load

439
Q

The use of ___ ___ as a method for weight loss or weight maintenance is not currently recommended

A

Glycemic index

440
Q

What are the treatment goals for all diabetics?

A

-Maintain normal blood glucose (average pre-prandial goal is 70-130, peak post-prandial average <180)
-Optimal serum lipid levels (LDL <100, TG<150, HDL >40M and >50W)
-Blood pressure goal of <130 over <80
-Prevent and treat chronic complications

441
Q

For type 1 diabetics, along with daily doses of insulin, they should have a ___-___ diet

A

Carbohydrate-consistent

442
Q

Those with T1D should integrate ____ therapy with their usual eating habits

A

Insulin

443
Q

Monitor blood glucose and adult insulin dose for the amount of ____ eaten

A

Food

444
Q

With intensive insulin therapy for T1D, adjust pre-meal insulin dosages based on the total ____ content of each meal, using an insulin-carbohydrate ratio

A

Carbohydrate

445
Q

For those with T1D, it might be a good choice to ____ insulin dosage for planned exercise

A

Reduce

446
Q

For endurance athletes with T1D, maintaining blood glucose of ___-___ mg/dl is the guideline during activity

A

120-180

447
Q

For T2D, strategies focus on…

A

-Healthy eating
-Physical activity

448
Q

Goal for T2D is to achieve ___, ___, and ___ ___ goals

A

Glucose, lipid, blood pressure

449
Q

Those with T2D should achieve ___ ___ is needed by improving food choices, spacing meals, and exercise

A

Weight loss

450
Q

What are two risk factors for the development of gestational diabetes?

A

-BMI >30
-History of gestational diabetes

451
Q

At 24-28 weeks of gestation, screen women with a 50-gram oral glucose load; a blood glucose of ____ or over indicates the need for further testing

A

140

452
Q

Those with gestational diabetes should get ___-___% of kcals from carbohydrates through 3 small-medium sized meals and 2-4 snacks

A

40-45

453
Q

The DRI for carbohydrates during pregnancy is ____ g/day

A

175

454
Q

Those with gestational diabetes should get ___-___ grams of carbohydrates at breakfast (less well tolerated), with the rest of the 175 divided evenly throughout the rest of the day

A

15-30

455
Q

Gestational diabetes increases the risk of…

A

-Fetal macrosomia (LGA, 4000-4500 grams)
-Fetal hypoglycemia at birth

456
Q

Overweight or obese pregnant woman should have a modest ____ ____ to slow weight gain

A

Calorie restriction

457
Q

There is no ideal amount of carbohydrates recommended for all individuals with diabetes; the strategy selected should be based on their abilities, preferences, and ____ goals

A

Treatment

458
Q

Macronutrient distribution for those with diabetes should be based on ____ for healthy adults (<7% total kcals as saturated fat, trans fat minimized, encourage fiber intake, etc)

A

DRIs

459
Q

In diabetics, ____ may be substituted for other carbohydrates

A

Sucrose

460
Q

Carbohydrate management approaches include…

A

-Carbohydrate counting
-Plate method for portion control
-Carbohydrate exchange list

461
Q

One choice from the starch, fruit, or milk list is equal to ___ grams of carbohydrates and one carb choice

A

15

462
Q

Foods with ___-___ grams of carbohydrate count as 0.5 carbohydrate serving/choice

A

6-10

463
Q

The consistent carb diet provides ___-___ carbohydrate choices per meal, along with ___-___ carbohydrate choices during snacks

A

3-5; 0-4

464
Q

Food lists for diabetes macros for starch/bread choice:

A

-15 g carbs
-3 g protein
-1 g fat
-80 kcal

465
Q

Food lists for diabetes macros for a fruit choice:

A

-15 g carbs
-60 kcal

466
Q

Food lists for diabetes macros for a fat-free, low-fat milk choice (1%):

A

-15 g carbs
-8 g protein
-0-3 g fat
-100 kcal

467
Q

Food lists for diabetes macros for a reduced-fat (2% milk choice:

A

-15 g carbs
-8 g protein
-5 g fat
-120 kcal

468
Q

Food lists for diabetes macros for a whole milk choice:

A

-15 g carbs
-8 g fat
-8 g protein

469
Q

Food lists for diabetes macros for a non-starchy vegetable:

A

-5 g carbs
-2 g protein
-25 kcal

470
Q

Food lists for diabetes macros for 1 oz lean protein source (example: Canadian bacon, poultry, fish, lunch meat):

A

-7 g protein
-2 g fat
-45 kcal

471
Q

Food lists for diabetes macros for 1 oz medium-fat protein source (pork, beef, ricotta, mozzarella, eggs, tofu):

A

-7 g protein
-5 g fat
-75 kcal

472
Q

Food lists for diabetes macros for 1 oz high-fat protein source (peanut butter, cheese, corned beef):

A

-7 g protein
-8 g fat
-100 kcal

473
Q

1 oz/1 choice of plant-based protein provides ____ grams of protein

A

7

474
Q

One fat choice provides ____ grams of fat per serving

A

5

475
Q

One choice of alcohol provides ____ kcal

A

100

476
Q

“Free foods” in terms of the food list for diabetes have under ___ grams of carbohydrates and under ___ calories

A

5; 20

477
Q

Bolus insulin is taken _____

A

Premeal (prandial)

478
Q

What are examples of rapid-acting insulin?

A

-Aspart (Novolog)
-Lispro (Humalog)

479
Q

Rapid-acting insulin (aspart, lispro) should be taken ___-____ minutes before eating

A

5-15

480
Q

The usual duration of rapid-acting insulin is ___ hours

A

4

481
Q

What is one example of a short-acting insulin:

A

Humulin R

482
Q

Short-acting insulin (Humulin R) should be taken ___-___ minutes before a meal (it gives a burst of insulin to cover the meal just about to be eaten)

A

30-45

483
Q

One unit of short-acting insulin covers ___-___ grams of carbohydrates

A

10-15

484
Q

The duration of short-acting insulin is ___-___ hours

A

3-6

485
Q

What are three examples of intermediate-acting insulin?

A

-NPH
-Humulin N
-Novolin N
-ReliOn

486
Q

The onset of intermediate-acting insulin (humulin N, Novolin N, reliOn) is ___-___ hours

A

2-4

487
Q

The duration of intermediate-acting insulin is ___-___ hours

A

10-16

488
Q

Intermediate-acting insulin looks ____ in appearance

A

Cloudy

489
Q

What are two examples of long-acting insulin?

A

-Glargine (Lantus)
-Determir (Levemir)

490
Q

The onset of long-acting insulin is ___-___ hours

A

2-4

491
Q

The duration of long-acting insulin is ___-___ hours

A

18-24

492
Q

Long-acting insulin should be started at ___-___ units/kg and should be taken at the same time each day

A

0.1-0.2

493
Q

Fixed or conventional insulin therapies used a premixed or fixed insulin plan; ___ or ___ insulin is combined with ___ or ___ acting insulin

A

Basal (long acting) or intermediate and short or rapid

494
Q

With multiple daily injections of insulin, ____ insulin is used once or twice daily as well as ___-___ insulin before meals (more common)

A

Basal (long-acting); rapid-acting

495
Q

Continuous sustained insulin infusion requires an ____ ____ that provides steady, measured continuous doses of basal, and a surge (bolus) of insulin before meals

A

Insulin pump

496
Q

What is an example of a Biguanide medication used for T2D?

A

Metformin (Glucophage)

497
Q

Biguanides (Metformin) suppress ____ ____ production

A

Hepatic glucose

498
Q

Biguanides (Metformin) are ___-___ therapy for those with T2D

A

First-line

499
Q

Biguanides (Metformin) should be taken with ____

A

Food

500
Q

When taking Biguanides (Metformin), check ____ levels; deficiency could lead to anemia or peripheral neuropathy

A

B12

501
Q

Biguanides (Metformin) are weight ____

A

Neutral

502
Q

There is a ____ risk of hypoglycemia with Biguanides (Metformin)

A

Low

503
Q

What are two examples of DPP-4 inhibitors:

A

-Saxagliptin (Onglyza)
-Sitagliptin (Januvia)

504
Q

DPP-4 inhibitors (Saxagliptin, Sitagliptin) are often used concurrently with ____

A

Metformin (Biguanide)

505
Q

DPP-4 inhibitors (saxagliptin, sitagliptin) allow endogenous ____ to stay active longer, which reduces glucose released by the liver overnight and between meals

A

GLP-1

506
Q

DPP-4 inhibits like (saxagliptin and sitagliptin) are weight ____

A

Neutral

507
Q

What are three examples of SGLT-2 Inhibitors?

A

-Canagliflozin (Invokana)
-Dapagliflozin (Farxiga)
-Empagliflozin (Jardiance)

508
Q

SGLT-2 Inhibitors (-agliflozin) target blood glucose-lowering action in the ____ by blocking a protein that returns glucose to the blood after it is filtered

A

Kidneys

509
Q

SGLT-2 Inhibitors (-agliflozin) causes more glucose to be excreted in the ____ and less to be reabsorbed

A

Urine

510
Q

Monitor ____ function in those on SGLT-2 inhibitors (-agliflozin)

A

Kidney

511
Q

SGLT-2 Inhibitors (-agliflozin) may aid in ____ ____

A

Weight loss

512
Q

SGLT-2 inhibitors (-agliflozin) can be considered in patients with ____ and ____

A

Type 2 diabetes, CKD

513
Q

What are three examples of GLP-1 receptor agonists?

A

-Exenatide (Byetta)
-Dulaglutide (Trulicity)
-Semaglutide (Ozempic)

514
Q

GLP-1 receptor agonists (-glutide) slow ____ ___

A

Gastric emptying

515
Q

GLP-1 receptor agonists (-glutide) enhance ____ secretion when glucose is high after eating

A

Insulin

516
Q

GLP-1 receptor agonists (-glutide) suppresses postprandial ____ secretion

A

Glucagon

517
Q

GLP-1 receptor agonists (-glutide) promote fullness and lead to ____ ____

A

Weight loss

518
Q

What is one example of a Thiazolidinedione drug?

A

-Pioglitazone (Actos)

519
Q

Thiazolidinediones (Actos) increase ____ ____ in muscle

A

Insulin sensitivity

520
Q

Thiazolidinediones (Actos) may cause weight ____

A

Gain

521
Q

What are two examples of sulfonylurea medication?

A

-Glimepiride (Amaryl)
-Glyburide

522
Q

Sulfonylureas (Glimepiride, Glyburide) are secretagogues that stimulate the ____ to release more insulin

A

Pancreas

523
Q

Sulfonylureas (Glimepiride, Glyburide) may cause ____ and ___ ___

A

Hypoglycemia and weight gain

524
Q

The _____ phenomenon explains the natural increased in early morning blood glucose and insulin requirements due to increased glucose production in the liver after an overnight fast

A

Dawn

525
Q

Due to the dawn phenomenon, there is increased need for ____ at dawn

A

Insulin

526
Q

Acute ketoacidosis causes ____ due to insulin deficiency or excess carbohydrate intake

A

Hyperglycemia

527
Q

Acute ketoacidosis also causes ____ due to polyuria, as well as increased pulse

A

Dehydration

528
Q

Acute ketoacidosis causes a ____ odor on the breath due to ketones

A

Fruity

529
Q

Treatment for acute ketoacidosis:

A

-Rehydration
-Insulin

530
Q

Acute hypoglycemia is due to insulin ____ or lack of ____

A

Excess; eating

531
Q

Hypoglycemia causes symptoms like…

A

-Slow pulse
-Cool, clammy skin
-Hunger
-Weakness
-Shakiness
-Sweating

532
Q

The treatment for acute hypoglycemia is ____

A

Glucose

533
Q

Protocol for treating hypoglycemia:

A

-Begin with 15 g carbohydrates from glucose tablets to fruit juice (4-5 oz), sugar
-Wait 15 minutes, if still under 70 mg/dl, give another 15 grams of carbohydrates
-Repeat and treat until blood glucose is normal

534
Q

If hypoglycemic and unresponsible, administer ____ which will mobilize glucose from the liver

A

Glucagon

535
Q

Long term complications of uncontrolled diabetes:

A

-Neuropathy (peripheral and autonomic, gastroparesis)
-Retinopathy (leads to blindness)
-Nephropathy (decreased kidney function)

536
Q

Postpradial or reactive hypoglycermia is caused by either…

A

-Overstimulation of the pancreas
-Increased insulin sensitivity

537
Q

With reactive hypoglycemia, blood glucose falls below normal ___-___ hours after eating (<50 mg/dl)

A

2-5

538
Q

Symptoms of reactive hypoglycemia:

A

-Weakness
-Trembling
-Extreme hunger

539
Q

The goal with reactive hypoglycemia is to prevent a marked rise in blood sugar that would stimulate more ____

A

Insulin

540
Q

To prevent reactive hypoglycemia…

A

-Avoid simple sugars
-Eat 5-6 small meals per day
-Spread intake of carbohydrates throughout the day
-Protein at RDA levels

541
Q

Adreanal cortex insufficiency is also known as ____ ____

A

Addison’s Disease

542
Q

Addison’s disease causes ____ of the adrenal cortex; symptoms are due to the absence of adrenal hormones

A

Atrophy

543
Q

What three hormones are low with Addison’s disease?

A

-Cortisol
-Aldosterone
-Androgenic

544
Q

Low cortisol levels cause…

A

-Glycogen depletion
-Hypoglycemia

545
Q

Low aldosterone causes…

A

-Sodium loss
-Potassium retention
-Dehydration

546
Q

Low androgenic hormones causes…

A

-Tissue wasting
-Weight loss

547
Q

MNT for Addison’s disease (low adrenal hormones):

A

-High protein
-Frequent feedings
-High salt

548
Q

_____ is the excess secretion of thyroid hormone

A

Hyperthyroidism

549
Q

With hyperthyroidism, elevated T3 and T4 causes increased ___ ___ ___, leading to weight loss

A

Basal metabolic rate

550
Q

Those with hyperthyroidism have increased ____ needs

A

Calorie

551
Q

_____ is the deficiency of thyroid hormone

A

Hypothyroidism

552
Q

Those with hypothyroidism have decreased ___ with either normal or low ___; they have decreased basal metabolic rate which leads to weight gain

A

T4; T3

553
Q

Those with hypothyroidism might need weight ____

A

Reduction

554
Q

A ____ is an enlargement of the thyroid gland due to insufficient thyroid hormone

A

Goiter

555
Q

An endemic goiter is caused by inadequate ____ intake

A

Iodine

556
Q

MNT for someone with a goiter:

A

-Iodized salt
-Diet free of goitrogens (cruciferous vegetables)

557
Q

Gout is a disorder of ____ metabolism

A

Purine

558
Q

Gout causes increased serum ____ ____, which then deposits in joints and causes pain and swelling

A

Uric acid

559
Q

MNT for gout:

A

-Achieve and maintain healthy body weight
-Moderate protein intake
-Liberal carbohydrate intake
-Low to moderate fat
-Decrease alcohol
-Liberal fluid
-Avoid high purine foods

560
Q

What are examples of high-purine foods that should be avoided in someone with gout?

A

-Anchovies
-Sardines
-Organ meats
-Sweetbreads
-Meat-based gravies and extracts (vegemite, marmite)

561
Q

Medications used for gout, such as ___ ___ and ____ induce the loss of nutrients

A

Urate eliminant, colchicine

562
Q

____ is the lack of an enzyme that normally would have converted galactose-1-phosphate to glucose-1-phosphate

A

Galactosemia

563
Q

Galactosemia is treated solely by diet- ____ and ____ free

A

Galactose and lactose

564
Q

What is restricted on a galactosemia diet?

A

-Organ meats (naturally contain galactose)
-MSG extenders
-Milk
-Lactose
-Galactose
-Whey
-Casein
-Dry milk solids
-Curds
-Calcium or sodium caseinate
-Dates
-Bell peppers

565
Q

What is okay on a galactosemia diet?

A

-Soy
-Hydrolyzed casein
-Lactate
-Lactic acid
-Lactalbumin
-Pure MSG

566
Q

A urea cycle defects make the body unable to synthesize ___ from ammonia, resulting in ammonia accumulation

A

Urea

567
Q

Symptoms of urea cycle defects:

A

-Vomiting
-Lethargy
-Seizures
-Coma
-Anorexia
-Irritability

568
Q

Someone with urea cycle defects should have a ____ restriction (1, 1.5, 2 g/kg) based on tolerance, age, and projected growth rate in order to lower ammonia

A

Protein

569
Q

Those with urea cycle defects can use therapeutic formulas to adjust protein composition to limit ____ production

A

Ammonia

570
Q

What is one specific example of a urea cycle defect?

A

-Ornithine transcarbamylase (OTC) deficiency

571
Q

____ is caused by a missing enzyme, phenylalanine hydroxylase, which would convert phenylalanine to tyrosine

A

Phenylketonuria (PKU)

572
Q

PKU causes ____ and its metabolites to accumulate, leading to poor intellectual function

A

Phenylalanine

573
Q

PKU is detected with a ____ blood test

A

Guthrie

574
Q

For someone with PKU, restrict the substrate _____ and supplement with ____

A

Phenylalanine; tyrosine

575
Q

With PKU, tyrosine becomes a ____ amino acid

A

Conditional

576
Q

The PKU diet is low in phenylalanine, but still provides enough to promote normal ____

A

Growth

577
Q

What are examples of low phenylalanine formulas?

A

-Phenex-1,2
-Phenyl-free 1,2

578
Q

Those with PKU should avoid the artificial sweetener, ____

A

Aspartame

579
Q

The need for phenylalanine decreases with…

A

-Increased age
-Infection

580
Q

A low protein, high carbohydrate diet in those with PKU may lead to ___ ___

A

Dental caries

581
Q

Glycogen storage disease is the deficiency of ___-__-___ in the liver

A

Glucose-6-phosphatase

582
Q

Glycogen storage disease impairs ____ and ____

A

Gluconeogenesis and glycogenolysis

583
Q

With glycogen storage disease, the liver can’t convert ____ into ____, leading to hypoglycemia

A

Glycogen into glucose

584
Q

For someone with glycogen storage disease, provide a consistent supply of exogenous glucose with ___ ____ at regular intervals

A

Raw cornstarch

585
Q

Those with glycogen storage disorders should have a high ____, low ____ diet

A

Carbohydrate, fat

586
Q

Homocystinurias is a treatable inherited disorder of ___ ___ metabolism

A

Amino acid

587
Q

Homocystinurias is characterized by severe elevations of ____ and ____ in plasma, and excessive excretion of ____ in urine

A

Methionine, homocysteine, homocysteine

588
Q

Homocystinurias is associated with low levels of…

A

-Folate
-B6 (pyridoxine)
-B12 (cobalamin)

589
Q

Patients newly diagnosed with homocystinurias receive ____ doses of folate, pyridoxine, and B12

A

Increased

590
Q

If someone with homocystinurias does not respond to folate, pyridoxine, and B12, they should be on a low ____, low ____ diet

A

Protein, methionine

591
Q

Maple Syrup Urine Disease is an inborn error of metabolism of the ____, which include…

A

BCAAs; valine, leucine, isoleucine

592
Q

Symptoms of Maple Syrup Urine Disease:

A

-Poor sucking reflex
-Anorexia
-Failure to thrive
-Irritability
-Sweet burnt maple syrup odor of sweat and urine

593
Q

With Maple Syrup Urine Disease, restrict BCAAs to ___-___ mg/day (may use MSUD powder)

A

45-62

594
Q

For those with Maple Syrup Urine Disease, provide adequate energy from ___ and ____ to spare amino acids

A

Carbohydrates and fat

595
Q

With Maple Syrup Urine Disease, you should include small amounts of ____ to support growth (gelatin may be used)

A

Milk

596
Q

What should be avoided in someone with Maple Syrup Urine Disease?

A

-Eggs
-Meat
-Nuts
-Dairy products

597
Q

Those with Congenital Sucrase Isomaltase Disease require diet modification of…

A

-Sucrose
-Starch
-Maltose

598
Q

Those with Congenital Sucrase Isomaltase Disease can take ____, which is an oral enzyme replacement for sucrase that is taken before and during meals and snacks

A

Sucrosidase

599
Q

Those with Congenital Sucrase Isomaltase Disease who take sucrosidase do not need to restrict sucrose in their diet, just ___ and ____

A

Starch and maltose

600
Q

Diabetics on sucrosidase need to check blood sugar levels because it converts sucrose into ___ and ___

A

Fructose and glucose

601
Q

____ is a condition of inflammation of peripheral joints

A

Arthritis

602
Q

Those with arthritis should follow a regular, well-balanced diet with vitamin intake to at least ____

A

DRIs

603
Q

Those with arthritis might need to be on bed rest, take aspirin, and reduce weight to decrease ____

A

Stress

604
Q

____ anemia may develop in those with arthritis because the inflammation of arthritis prevents the reuse of iron

A

Normocytic

604
Q

A ___-___ diet may help those with osteoarthritis; it includes fresh fruits and vegetables and is similar to the Mediterranean diet

A

Anti-inflammatory

605
Q

____ is a steroid that may reduce inflammation in those with arthritis

A

Methylprednisone

606
Q

There are no specific dietary ____ for those with systemic lupus erythematosus; diet should be tailored to needs

A

Guidelines

607
Q

Those with Lupus may have deficiencies of…

A

-Iron
-Folate
-Calcium
-Fiber
-B12

608
Q

Those with Lupus may have anemia, but it is not correlated to ____ intake

A

Iron

609
Q

Those with Lupus may show symptoms of ____ ____

A

Celiac disease

610
Q

____ resorb and remove bone

A

Osteoclasts

611
Q

____ reform bone

A

Osteoblasts

612
Q

____ is the loss of bone tissue

A

Osteoporosis

613
Q

Type I osteoporosis is ____ (within 15-20 years)

A

Postmenopausal

614
Q

Type II osteoporosis is ___-___ (>70)

A

Age-associated

615
Q

___ and ___ women have more osteoporotic fractures than Black and Hispanic women

A

Asian and white

616
Q

Possible causes of osteoporosis:

A

-Malnutrition (especially protein)
-Lack of exercise
-Decline in estrogen

617
Q

The result of osteoporosis is a reduction in the amount of bone due to defective ____ absorption (deossification)

A

Calcium

618
Q

What are some possible treatments for osteoporosis?

A

-Hormone replacement therapy
-Weight-bearing exercise
-Vitamin D supplements (400-800 mg)
-Calcium supplements (1200 or more mg; don’t exceed 500-600 mg at one time)
-Adequate protein
-Moderate to low sodium
-5 or more servings of fruits and vegetables

619
Q

Calcium carbonate should be taken ___ ___, while calcium citrate can be taken with or without food

A

With food

620
Q

Spread calcium throughout the day to maximize ____

A

Absorption

621
Q

_____ is a reduction in bone density (demineralization)

A

Osteomalacia

622
Q

Osteomalacia can be caused by a ___ ___ deficiency

A

Vitamin D

623
Q

Treatment for osteomalacia includes…

A

-Vitamin D supplements
-Calcium supplements

624
Q

____ causes seizures and altered consciousness

A

Epilepsy

625
Q

What are two examples of anticonvulsants used for epilepsy?

A

-Phenobarbitol
-Phenytoin

626
Q

Anticonvulsants like phenobarbital and phenytoin (Dilantin) can interfere with ____ absorption (take them apart from food)

A

Calcium

627
Q

Those on phenytoin (Dilantin) or phenobarbital should get 1mg of ____ while taking the drug

A

Folate

628
Q

Those on phenytoin (Dilantin) or phenobarbital may need supplementation of…

A

-Vitamin D
-Calcium
-Thiamin (B1)

629
Q

Provide ____ separate from meals and other supplements

A

Phenytoin

630
Q

Enteral feedings decrease the bioavailability of phenytoin, so hold tube feeds for at least ___ hours

A

2

631
Q

The ____ diet is high fat, very low carbohydrate (4 grams of fat to 1 gram of non-fat)

A

Ketogenic

632
Q

____% of calories should come from fat on the ketogenic diet

A

90

633
Q

Those on the ketogenic diet should also get ___g/kg of protein, with the remaining kcal needed for carbohydrates

A

1

634
Q

____ ____ behave as inhibitory neurotransmitters

A

Ketone bodies

635
Q

Mild ___ is needed to prevent the dilution of ketones with the ketogenic diet

A

Dehydration

636
Q

Those on the ketogenic diet need supplementation of…

A

-Calcium
-Vitamin D
-Folate
-B6 (pyridoxine)
-B12

637
Q

____ may aid in the absorption of vitamins and minerals for those on the ketogenic diet

A

Spinach

638
Q

____ are more ketogenic, and have more rapid metabolism and absorption

A

MCTs

639
Q

Cerebral palsy is non-hereditary and causes ____ damage

A

Brain

640
Q

Those with cerebral palsy have inadequate control of voluntary muscles, leading to ____

A

Spasms

641
Q

The ____ form of cerebral palsy causes difficult, stiff movements; patients have limited activity and are commonly obese

A

Spastic

642
Q

MNT for patients with spastic cerebral palsy:

A

-Low calorie
-High fluid
-High fiber

643
Q

The ____ (athetoid) form of cerebral palsy cause involuntary wormlike movements; constant, irregular motions lead to weight loss

A

Non-spastic

644
Q

MNT for those with non-spastic (athetoid) cerebral palsy:

A

-High calorie
-High protein
-Finger foods

645
Q

Traumatic brain injuries cause a systemic inflammatory response, which leads to…

A

-Hypermetabolism
-Hyperglycemia
-Insulin resistance
-Protein wasting

646
Q

For those with a traumatic brain injury, enteral feedings into the ___ ___ is usually the best option

A

Small bowel

647
Q

For those with traumatic brain injury, provide ___% of estimated resting energy expenditure (REE)

A

140

648
Q

Those with traumatic brain injury need ___-___ g/kg of protein

A

1.5-2

649
Q

What are some long-term effects of a spinal cord injury?

A

-Obesity
-Cardiovascular disease
-Pressure ulcers

650
Q

In the acute phase of a spinal cord injury, energy needs may be ___% below predicted

A

10

651
Q

In the acute phase of a spinal cord injury, protein needs are ____ g/kg

A

2

652
Q

In the rehabilitation phase of a spinal cord injury, protein needs are ___-___ g/kg

A

0.8-1

653
Q

Those in the rehabilitation phase of a spinal cord injury need ___ kcals/kg for quadriplegic and ____ kcal/kg for paraplegic

A

23; 28

654
Q

Those with spinal cord injuries may develop ___ ____, which slows transit time

A

Neurogenic bowel

655
Q

Those with neurogenic bowel should get 1 ml of fluid/kcal plus ____ ml/day

A

500

656
Q

Those with pressure injuries who are also malnourished or at risk for malnutrition, provide ___-___ kcal/kg

A

30-35

657
Q

Those with a stage I pressure ulcer should get ___-___ g/kg of protein

A

1.1-1.2

658
Q

Those with a stage II pressure ulcer should get ___-___ g/kg of protein, along with adequate fluid

A

1.25-1.5

659
Q

Those with a stage III/IV pressure ulcer should get ___-___ g/kg of protein depending on the size of the injury and protein loss from draining wound

A

1.5-2

660
Q

Those with a pressure injury should have a well-balanced diet, including good sources of…

A

-Vitamin A
-Vitamin C
-Zinc
-Copper

661
Q

The ____ scale is used to stage pressure ulcers

A

Braden

662
Q

Classifications of each stage of the Braden scale:

A

-Stage I: upper layer of skin, red and warm to the touch
-Stage II: broken skin, open sore
-Stage III: damage below skin surface into fat tissue
-Stage IV: large wound, may affect muscles and ligaments

663
Q

For those with ADHD, provide wholesome foods at ___ ____ with small servings followed by refills

A

Regular mealtimes

664
Q

Sugar does not cause ____

A

Hyperactivity

665
Q

One medication commonly used in those with ADHD is ___

A

Adderall

666
Q

Side effects of Adderall:

A

-Loss of appetite
-Nausea
-Weight loss

667
Q

If a child with ADHD is on is underweight, consider high-calorie snacks at ____

A

Bedtime

668
Q

Unnecessary food restrictions, possible food aversions, and excessive supplementation can put a child with ___ ___ ___ at risk

A

Autism spectrum disorder

669
Q

MNT for those with Alzheimer’s disease:

A

-Avoid distractions (no TV during meals)
-Regular, consistent mealtimes
-Encourage self-feeding
-Offer one course at a time
-Lower saturated fats
-Soft, calming music
-Finger foods may be helpful
-Avoid dehydration
-Nutrient-dense foods
-May need verbal cues to chew and swallow

670
Q

Those with Alzheimer’s may have ____, which is a form of aphasia; causes lost words, unable to recall names of common items

A

Anomia

671
Q

What nutrients are associated with dementia?

A

-Folate
-B6 (pyridoxine)
-B12

672
Q

____ is the decrease in total red blood cell mass due to fewer red blood cells or to smaller cells with less hemoglobin

A

Anemia

673
Q

____, ____ anemia causes small, pale red blood cells

A

Microcytic, hypochromic

674
Q

Microcytic, hypochromic anemia is caused by ___ ___

A

Iron deficiency

675
Q

Microcytic, hypochromic anemia is associated with…

A

-Chronic infections
-Malignancies
-Renal disease

676
Q

___, ____ anemia leads to FEW large cells that are filled with hemoglobin

A

Macrocytic, megaloblastic

677
Q

Macrocytic, megaloblastic anemia is caused by deficiency of ___ or ____

A

Folate (B9) or B12

678
Q

The ____ test is used to test for Pernicious anemia

A

Schilling

679
Q

Lab values for microcytic, hypochromic anemia:

A

-RBC may be normal
-Hemoglobin: Low
-Hematocrit: Low
-Mean corpuscular volume (cell size): Low (<80)
-Mean corpuscular hemoglobin (hgb/cell; color): Low
-Mean corpuscular hemoglobin concentration: Low (<31)

680
Q

Lab values for macrocytic anemia (B12, folate):

A

-RBC: Decreased
-Hemoglobin: Low
-Hematocrit: Low
-Mean corpuscular volume (cell size): High (>95)
-Mean corpuscular hemoglobin (hgb/cell; color): High
-Mean corpuscular hemoglobin concentration: Normal (>31)

681
Q

____ causes defective hemoglobin synthesis

A

Thalassemia

682
Q

Thalassemia results in ____, ____, short-lived red blood cells

A

Microcytic, hypochromic

683
Q

Those with thalassemia may develop ___ ___

A

Iron overload

684
Q

Patients with thalassemia should not avoid ___-rich foods

A

Iron

685
Q

Thalassemia is managed with…

A

-Transfusions
-Chelation therapy

686
Q

MNT for thalassemia:

A

-High protein
-B vitamins (especially folic acid/B9)

687
Q

What foods are high in iron?

A

-Liver
-Kidney
-Beef
-Dried fruit
-Dried peas and beans
-Nuts
-Leafy, green vegetables
-Fortified grain products

688
Q

A typical American diet consists of ___ mg of iron per 1000 calories

A

6

689
Q

An ___-___ allergic reaction occurs when an antigen enters the body and antibodies react

A

Ag-Ab

690
Q

Allergies are an ____ (IgE) medicated reaction to normally harmless food protein

A

Immunoglobulin

691
Q

What are the top 9 food allergens?

A

-Peanuts
-Tree nuts
-Fish
-Shellfish
-Wheat
-Soy
-Eggs
-Sesame
-Milk

692
Q

What is the most common allergen in infants?

A

Cow’s milk protein

693
Q

Potentially allergenic foods, such as eggs and peanuts, should not be ____ beyond 4-6 months of age

A

Restricted

694
Q

____ is a genetic predisposition to produce excessive IgE antibodies in response to an allergen

A

Atopy

695
Q

Diagnosis of a food allergy is done by…

A

-Diet history
-Skin tests
-Elimination diet

696
Q

The ___-___ blood test is specific in identifying children with milk, eggs, fish, and peanut allergies

A

CAP-FEIA

697
Q

Double-blind, placebo-controlled food challenges identify food-induced symptoms; this is the ___ ___ for diagnosis of food allergies

A

Gold Standard

698
Q

The ____ is an alternative to the skin test; serum is mixed with food on a paper disk; this measures specific IgE antibodies

A

RAST

699
Q

____ is a food that is least likely to cause an allergy

A

Rice

700
Q

Food ____ are non-IgE mediated; abnormal physiological response, GI, cutaneous, respiratory symptoms; NO antibody production

A

Intolerances

701
Q

With fever and infection, excess fluid loss may lead to dehydration which causes symptoms like…

A

-Hyperglycemia
-Dry, loose, inelastic skin

702
Q

Treatment for someone with dehydration:

A

-IV feedings of dextrose and water, then
-Diet high in calories and fluids

703
Q

Basal metabolic rate increases ___% for each degree F rise in body temperature (normal temp 98.6 F)

A

7

704
Q

The goals for someone in critical care/hypermetabolic state:

A

-Improve outcomes regarding infection rates
-Decrease days in critical care
-Decrease days on ventilator
-Minimize catabolic loss of body protein
-Initiate nutrition support (generally) whenever possible
-Avoid overfeeding
-Control blood glucose (140-180 mg/dl)

705
Q

Enteral feeding should be initiated for those in critical care within ___-___ hours of admission

A

24-48

706
Q

EAL recommends that the average intake within the first week of someone in critical care should be over ___% of total energy needs; consider fish oil supplements and antioxidants with ARDS and acute lung injury

A

60

707
Q

With severe burns, there an immediate shock periods with catabolism; basal metabolic rate increases ___-___%

A

50-100

708
Q

The first goal with severe burns is to replace ___ and ___ that were lost

A

Fluid and electrolytes

709
Q

During the recovery period from a burn, patients have increased calorie needs based on burn size, which is estimated using the ___ ___ ___ which divides the body surface area into percentages

A

Rule of Nines

710
Q

The arm including the hand, the head and neck, and the genitalia each account for ___% of the body’s surface area according to the rule of nines

A

9

711
Q

The anterior trunk, posterior trunk, and legs including feet each account for ___% of the body’s surface area according to the rule of nines

A

18

712
Q

Those with severe burns should get ___-___% of their calories from protein

A

20-25

713
Q

Those with severe burns should also get ___-___ g/kg of protein (___g/kg if burns cover less than 10% of body surface area)

A

1.5-2; 1.2

714
Q

Those with severe burns should get ____ mg x 2 of vitamin C per day

A

500

715
Q

Those with burns should also get supplementation of…

A

-Water-soluble vitamins
-Vitamin K if on antibiotics
-Zinc for wound healing if deficient

716
Q

If someone with burns is zinc deficient, provide ___ mg of zinc sulfate

A

220

717
Q

Trauma causes a ____, fight or flight response

A

Hypermetabolic

718
Q

Those with trauma have accelerated catabolism of lean body mass, leading to negative ___ ___ as protein is catabolized to release glucose for energy

A

Nitrogen balance

719
Q

What results from physiologic trauma?

A

-Hyperglycemia
-Hyperinsulinemia
-Little or no ketosis
-Increased glucagon to increase glucose production from amino acids

720
Q

During trauma, catecholamines like epinephrine and norepinephrine stimulate hepatic ____

A

Glycogenolysis

721
Q

Adrenocorticotropic hormone release during trauma causes the release of ____ which mobilizes amino acids from muscle

A

Cortisol

722
Q

Aldosterone is also released during trauma, which causes…

A

-Renal sodium retention
-Gluconeogenesis

723
Q

Anti-diuretic hormone released during trauma leads to renal ____ reabsorption

A

Water

724
Q

What are other outcomes of trauma?

A

-Hypovolemia
-Decreased cardiac output
-Drop in body temperature
-Fluid and sodium retention
-Potassium excretion

725
Q

What minerals are often lost due to trauma?

A

-Nitrogen
-Sulfur
-Zinc
-Phosphorus

726
Q

Provide adequate, but not ____ calories for someone during/after trauma

A

Excessive

727
Q

In the pre-active stage of dying, there is ____ intake of foods and fluids

A

Decreased

728
Q

In the active stage of dying, someone may have an inability to ___, and may have abnormal breathing patterns

A

Swallow

729
Q

What are common nutrition-related concerns with cancer patients?

A

-Protein-calorie malnutrition
-Malabsorption
-Fluid and electrolyte imbalances

730
Q

For a cancer patient with altered taste acuity, add…

A

Flavors and seasonings

731
Q

Cancer patients with meat aversions may require ____ of red meat

A

Elimination

732
Q

MNT for oral thrush:

A

-Avoid spicy, acidic, or strongly flavored food
-Provide bland liquids, soft foods, and chilled/frozen foods

733
Q

For those with throat and neck cancer, provide enteral feedings through a ____

A

PEG

734
Q

Cancer ____, or generalized wasting, is connected to cytokines and tumor necrosis factor (TNF)

A

Cachexia

735
Q

____ may be a sign of breast cancer or metastasis to the bone

A

Hypercalcemia

736
Q

Radiation therapy can cause side effects such as…

A

-Loss of taste
-Xerostomia (helps to moisten food)
-Esophagitis
-Diarrhea
-Malabsorption
-Anorexia

737
Q

____ is the inflammation of the mucosal lining of the oropharynx and the esophagus

A

Mucositis

738
Q

With mucositis, avoid…

A

-Fresh, raw, uncooked foods (offer cold and soft food instead)

739
Q

____ agents are chemical reagents that have toxic effects

A

Chemotherapy

740
Q

What are some common side effects of chemotherapy?

A

-Nausea
-Vomiting
-Malabsorption
-Anorexia
-Stomatitis (cracks in the corners of the mouth)->caused by riboflavin deficiency

741
Q

Methotrexate is an anti-_____ drug

A

Folate

742
Q

_____ data is an interrelationship between the host, agent, and environment in causing disease

A

Epidemiological

743
Q

There is some evidence that ___ and ___ are beneficial in overall cancer prevention (carotenoids, vitamin C)

A

Fruits and vegetables

744
Q

There is some evidence that ____ in post-menopausal women decreases the risk of breast disease

A

Exercise

745
Q

____ is a term for protein and calorie starvation

A

Marasmus

746
Q

Marasmus is based on an ____ diagnosis as there is normal serum albumin and no edema with the condition

A

Anthropometric

747
Q

Marasmus causes severe ___ and ___ wasting with a starved appearance

A

Muscle and fat

748
Q

With marasmus, ___ ___ and ___ ___ ___ are decreased

A

Tricep skinfold and arm muscle circumference

749
Q

____ malnutrition is protein-calorie malnutrition brought on by treatment, hospitalization, or medications

A

Iatrogenic

750
Q

Anorexia nervosa causes…

A

-Distorted body image
-Dramatic weight loss
-Preoccupation with food and weight gain

751
Q

Therapy for anorexia is ____ and includes weight restoration and psychotherapy

A

Multidisciplinary

752
Q

The immediate concern with treating anorexia nervosa is to restore ____ imbalances

A

Electrolyte

753
Q

For those with anorexia nervosa, focus on health benefits and ___-___ aspects of food

A

Life-sustaining

754
Q

Re-feeding someone with anorexia nervosa increases ___ load (go slowly)

A

Cardiac

755
Q

The recommended daily calorie intake for someone with anorexia nervosa ranges from ___-___ (__-__ kcal/kg), but may need to be set 100-300 calories above the current level of intake to support adherence

A

1000-1600; 30-40

756
Q

___ ___ is characterized by binge eating followed by purging

A

Bulimia nervosa

757
Q

What are some symptoms/consequences of bulimia nervosa?

A

-Damage to teeth, throat, or esophagus
-Rectal bleeding (laxative abuse)
-Bruised knuckles from purging with fingers
-Low potassium and chloride levels

758
Q

For those with bulimia, encourage ____ intake of three meals and 2-3 snacks daily; eat every 3-4 hours and recognize hunger cues

A

Structured

759
Q

For those with bulimia, each meal should include a ___ source, a healthy ___ source, and a ___ ___ source

A

Protein; fat; complex carb

760
Q

Those with bulimia should be encouraged to eat ___, and drink adequate water and fluids

A

Slowly

761
Q

What are the three BMI classifications of obesity?

A

-Class I: 30-34.9
-Class II: 35-39.9
-Class III: 40+

762
Q

In children, if BMI for sex and age is over at the ___ percentile or above, they are classified as obese

A

95th

763
Q

There are ____ calories per pound of body weight

A

3500

764
Q

To lose 1 lb of fat per week, reduce ____ calories per day

A

500

765
Q

Early rapid weight loss during a diet is ___, as liver glycogen is utilized

A

Water

766
Q

Treatment for obesity includes…

A

-Reduced caloric intake
-Exercise
-Behavior modification

767
Q

A realistic weight loss goal can be…

A

-Up to 2 lb per week
-Up to 10% of baseline body weight
-Total reduction of 3-5% of baseline weight if cardiovascular risk factors are present

768
Q

For women, calories can be restricted to ___-___ kcal/day, or ___-___ for men

A

1200-1500; 1500-1800

769
Q

Calories can be restricted ___-___/day

A

500-750

770
Q

Weight loss can also be achieved by following one of the evidence-based diets that restrict certain food types in order to create an ___ ___ by reduced food intake

A

Calorie deficit

771
Q

Small, ___-___ changes can also help with weight loss such as changes in sugar-sweetened beverage intake

A

Food-based

772
Q

Meal replacements for weight loss may be recommended if the client has difficulty with ___ ___

A

Portion control

773
Q

For weight loss, ___-___ or more per week of phsyical activity is recommended; for weight maintenance, ___-___ is recommended

A

150-420; 200-300

774
Q

Orlistat is a weight loss medication that works by inhibiting ____

A

Lipase

775
Q

Orlistat should be taken with a diet with ___% of calories coming from fat

A

30

776
Q

Those on Orlistat should take ___ supplements

A

Vitamin

777
Q

Lorcaserin is a weight loss medication that is an agonist of ____

A

Serotonin

778
Q

Lorcaserin works to enduce weight loss by enhancing ____

A

Satiety

779
Q

Phentermine/Topiramate work as an ___ ____

A

Appetite-suppressant

780
Q

Phentermine/Topiramate cause the release of ____

A

Norepinephrine

781
Q

Weight ____ is usually recommended for overweight children 2-5 years of age with a multi-component weight loss management intervention with active participation of the parent

A

Maintenance

782
Q

Weight loss may be recommended for children if a serious ____ ____ is present

A

Medical condition

783
Q

Research does not support the _ weight loss theory which is the belief that localized exercise reduces fat stores in the active area

A

Spot

784
Q

When a dieter reaches a plateau, ___ ___ ___ has dropped to reflect the loss

A

Basal metabolic rate

785
Q

Someone is “healthy obese” if they have elevated ___ and normal to low ___

A

LDL; HDL

786
Q

Bariatric surgery treatment is used for those with…

A

-Class III obesity with a BMI of 40 or more
-BMI of 35 or greater with co-morbidities

787
Q

Gastric bypass permanently alters the ___ of the GI tract

A

Anatomy

788
Q

Gastric bypass reduces the amount of food that can be eaten at one time and produces ___ ___

A

Early satiety

789
Q

Roux-en-Y reconstructs the ___ ___ to resemble the letter Y

A

Small intestine

790
Q

Roux-en-Y creates a small gastric pouch connected directly to the ___

A

Jejunum

791
Q

___ ___ may develop in those with Roux-en-Y due to the lower portion of the stomach being removed

A

Dumping syndrome

792
Q

What supplements should be taken by someone after Roux-en-Y?

A

-Calcium: 1200-1500 mg (divided doses)
-Vitamin D: 3000 IU
-Iron: 45-60 mg (taken apart from calcium)

793
Q

What may be a sign of iron deficiency in those s/p Roux-en-Y?

A

Chewing ice

794
Q

Patients who have a Roux-en-Y have increased ___ needs

A

Protein

795
Q

What supplements must be taken for life in someone with a Roux-en-Y?

A

-Mulitvitamin/multimineral supplement with 100% DRI for vitamin K, zinc, thiamin, folic acid, copper, biotin, iron
-Many require B12 supplementation in addition to that in the MVMM

796
Q

The sleeve gastrectomy removes ___% of the stomach

A

80%

797
Q

With a sleeve gastrectomy, the ___ pathway is not altered

A

Food

798
Q

Those with a sleeve gastrectomy should take vitamin supplements, monitor levels of…

A

-Iron
-Calcium
-Vitamin D

799
Q

The laparoscopic adjustable gastric banding creates a small gastric pouch using a ___-___ inflatable band

A

Fluid-filled

800
Q

The gastric band is adjusted to alter the size of the opening and is fully ____

A

Reversible

801
Q

The gastric band restricts the amount of food eaten at ___ time

A

One

802
Q

The gastric band causes no surgery-induced ____ of nutrients; deficiencies are linked to decreased food intake and decreased food tolerance

A

Malabsorption

803
Q

Those with the gastric band should eat ____, sip drinks, not use straws, and avoid carbonation

A

Slowly

804
Q

Prader-Willi syndrome is caused by a deletion of chromosome ___

A

15

805
Q

Prader-Willi is a congenital disorder that causes subnormal ___ ____ ___ and supra-normal ___ ___

A

Lean body mass; body fat

806
Q

With Prader-Willi, ____ levels are elevated which stimulates growth, hormone secretion, increased appetite and intake, and fat mass deposition

A

Ghrelin

807
Q

Those with Prader-Willi do not sense ____ and also have decreased energy requirements

A

Satiety

808
Q

Those with Prader-Willi may experience…

A

-Obesity at 2-3 years of age
-Hypogonadism
-Muscle hypotonia
-Failure to thrive
-Short stature

809
Q

The best treatment for Prader-Willi is to control ___ ___

A

Food intake

810
Q

Dental ___ are caused by bacterial enzymes that ferment carbohydrate deposits on plaque; enzymes produce acids that demineralize surface

A

Caries

811
Q

What are some types of foods that have a low cariogenic potential?

A

-High protein, moderate fat, minimal concentration of fermentable carbohydrates
-Strong buffer
-High mineral content (Ca, P) and pH >6 stimulate saliva

812
Q

Examples of low cariogenic foods:

A

-Cheese
-Nuts
-Meat

813
Q

Sugar ____ (sorbitol, xylitol, mannitol) do not promote tooth decay

A

Alcohols

814
Q

Flouride can control caries; supplement starting at 6 months of age if the level in the water supply is under ___ ppm

A

0.3

815
Q

____ (mottled teeth) occurs when teeth are exposed to excessive fluoride

A

Fluorosis

816
Q

For intants age 0-6 months, fluoride supplemented is ___ ___ ( use fluoridated water if available)

A

Not recommended

817
Q

For infants/toddlers 6-24 months, use ___ water (only use oral supplements if prescribed)

A

Fluoridated

818
Q

____ should not be used until the child can spit it out

A

Toothpaste

819
Q

Children 2-3 years of age should use fluoridated water or supplements as recommended, as well as ___ ___ (pea-sized amount)

A

Fluoride toothpaste

820
Q

Infants should not sleep with a bottle due to baby bottle ___ ___ (early childhood caries)

A

Tooth decay

821
Q

____ is inflammation of the mouth

A

Stomatitis

822
Q

Those with stomatitis should avoid…

A

-Very hot or very cold foods
-Spices
-Sour/tart foods
-Alcohol

823
Q

Those with stomatitis should rinse their mouth with ___ ___ after meals

A

Lukewarm water

824
Q

One way to deal with esophagitis is by decreasing ___ ___

A

Gastric acidity

825
Q

Those that have esophagitis/reflux should have small meals that are…

A

-Low fat
-Bland
-Low fiber

826
Q

____ is painful swallowing

A

Odynophagia

827
Q

A ____ is a lump in the throat

A

Globus

828
Q

____ is a disorder of lower esophageal sphincter motility (it does not relax and open upon swallowing)

A

Achalasia

829
Q

Achalasia causes ___, or difficulty swallowing

A

Dysphagia

830
Q

IDDSI categorizes dysphagia diets into 8 levels ranging from __-__

A

0-7

831
Q

IDDSI Level 0 is…

A

Thin like water; can flow through a straw

832
Q

IDDSI level 1 is…

A

Slightly thick; can still flow through a straw

833
Q

IDDSI level 2 is…

A

-Mildly thick; sippable

834
Q

IDDSI level 3 is…

A

-Liquidized: spoon or cup, no lumps
-Moderately thick: spoon or drunk from a cup, no lumps, effort with wide straw

835
Q

IDDSI level 4 is…

A

-Extremely thick, pureed; eaten with a spoon (not out of cup or with a straw)
-Pureed: spoon, no sticky

836
Q

IDDSI level 5 is…

A

-Minced and moist
-Minimal chewing, biting is not required
-Lumps able to be mashed with tongue
-Avoid hard, dried, tough food

837
Q

IDDSI level 6 is…

A

-Soft, bite-sized
-Able to chew bite-sized pieces
-Knife is not required

838
Q

IDDSI level 7 is…

A

-Regular, easy to chew
-Can bite off and chew soft, tender pieces

839
Q

MNT for GERD:

A

-Avoid eating before bed
-Avoid soda
-Avoid caffeine
-Avoid acidic food
-Small, low-fat meals
-Liquids empty more rapidly

840
Q

Pregnancy-induced hypertension progresses from ___ to ___

A

Pre-eclampsia, eclampsia

841
Q

Eclampsia may cause…

A

-Hypertension
-Edema of the face and hands
-Proteinuria
-Rapid weight gain after the 20th week
-May have convulsions

842
Q

Eclampsia is more frequently found in women with…

A

-Lack of prenatal care
-Poor diets
-Poor protein and calcium intakes

843
Q

A ____ restriction is NOT recommended for prevention or treatment of pre-eclampsia/eclampsia; it is needed to maintain normal levels in plasma during large prenatal expansion of tissues of fluid

A

Sodium

844
Q

Sodium intake during pregnancy should not be less than ___ mg/day

A

2300

845
Q

There is a proposed association between pregnancy-induced hypertension and ____ deficiency

A

Calcium

846
Q

Hyperemesis gravidarum causes…

A

-Severe nausea and vomiting
-Acidosis
-Weight loss

847
Q

Treatment/management of hyperemesis gravidarum:

A

-Bed rest
-Frequent, small amounts of carbohydrates
-Correct fluid and electrolyte imbalance

848
Q

What nutrition side effects can HIV/AIDS cause?

A

-Diarrhea
-Malabsorption
-Nausea/vomiting
-Weight loss

849
Q

The nutrition goals for someone with HIV/AIDS include…

A

-Preserve lean body mass
-Prevent weight loss
-Prevent HIV wasting

850
Q

Encourage those with HIV/AIDS to be physically active for ___ mins per day ___ days per week

A

20; 3

851
Q

Nutrient needs for someone with HIV/AIDS should be BEE x ___ for those that are symptomatic (based on DRI)

A

1.3

852
Q

Protein needs for someone with asymptomatic HIV/AIDS is ____ g/kg, or up to ___-___ if wasted lean body mass

A

0.8; 1.2-2

853
Q

Those with HIV/AIDS should get standard doses of ____ if dietary intake is insufficient

A

Micronutrients

854
Q

If someone with HIV/AIDS has diarrhea, what can be done?

A

-Increase soluble fiber
-MCT oil
-Electrolyte replacement beverages

855
Q

Those with HIV/AIDS should follow a low-bacteria ____ diet and avoid raw foods

A

Neutropenic

856
Q

HIV-infected women should be instructed not to ___-___

A

Breast-feed

857
Q

What are 2 examples of nucleotide nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor (NRTI) drugs?

A

-Retrovir
-Zidovudine

858
Q

NRTI drugs used for HIV/AIDS have adverse effects like…

A

-Anemia
-Loss of appetite
-Nausea
-Dysphagia

859
Q

HIV-associated ____ syndrome may develop from treatment

A

Lipodystrophy

860
Q

HIV-associated lipodystrophy syndrome causes…

A

-High cholesterol
-High triglycerides
-Insulin resistance
-Changes in body fat distribution

861
Q

HIV-associated lipodystrophy and edema can mask significant losses in ___ ___ ___ seen in those with HIV/AIDS

A

Lean body mass

862
Q

Increasing dietary ____ can help decrease insulin resistance and reduce the risk of fat deposition

A

Fiber

863
Q

Nutritional ____ should not be routinely recommended and herbal supplementation should be discouraged as adjuvant therapy to conventional treatment for HIV/AIDS

A

Supplementation

864
Q

Use of Vitamin C or St. John’s Wort in someone with HIV/AIDS can result in ___ ___

A

Drug resistance

865
Q

___ ___ medicine therapies are not inert and may have profound consequences

A

Complementary alternative

866
Q

Those with pediatric HIV should have a diet that is…

A

-High protein
-High calorie with supplements needed for weight gain

867
Q

Energy needs for those with pediatric HIV should be calculated using general guidelines plus appropriate ___ ___

A

Stress factors

868
Q

Those with pediatric HIV should get multivitamins/minerals at doses __-__ times the RDA or DRI

A

1-2

869
Q

What are two examples of COPD that cause persistent obstruction of airflow?

A

-Emphysema
-Chronic bronchitis

870
Q

With emphysema, air sacs (alveoli) lose ____

A

Elasticity

871
Q

Those with emphysema are often…

A

-Older
-Thin
-Cachectic

872
Q

Those with emphysema have difficulty ____; air pocket walls expand, thin out, and collapse

A

Exhaling

873
Q

With chronic bronchitis, there is excess ____ production and chronic productive cough

A

Mucous

874
Q

Symptoms of COPD include…

A

-Weight loss
-Emaciation
-Anorexia

875
Q

It is important for those with COPD to maintain appropriate ____ and ___

A

Bodyweight and composition

876
Q

Those with COPD should avoid overfeeding (over ___ kcal/kg) to avoid excessive CO2 production (routine use of high fat, low carbohydrate formula is NOT warranted)

A

35

877
Q

Those with COPD should get small, frequent meals that are easy to ____ and ____, along with nutrient-dense supplements

A

Prepare and eat

878
Q

In those with COPD, supplementation with vitamin ___ improved exacerbation outcomes in those with serum 25(OH) D levels of 10 ng/ml or lower

A

D

879
Q

With acute respiratory distress syndrome or respiratory failure, the lungs are no longer able to exchange ____

A

Gases

880
Q

Acute respiratory distress syndrome or respiratory failure leads to ____ and increased energy needs

A

Hypermetabolism

881
Q

Those with acute respiratory distress syndrome or respiratory failure are generally severely ____

A

Underweight

882
Q

Goals for those with acute respiratory distress syndrome or respiratory failure include:

A

-Meet basic nutritional requirements
-Maintain stable weight
-Facilitate weaning from mechanical ventilation without exceeding capacity to clear carbon dioxide

883
Q

For those with acute respiratory distress syndrome or respiratory failure, provide ___ but not excessive calories; avoid excess non-protein calories

A

Adequate

884
Q

For those with acute respiratory distress syndrome or respiratory failure, provide enteral formula that contains ___ and ___, as well as enhanced levels of antioxidant vitamins

A

EPA, GLA

885
Q

Protein needs for those with acute respiratory distress syndrome or respiratory failure are ___-___ g/kg in order to maintain lead body mass

A

1.5-2

886
Q

What are factors related to mental/behavioral health and addiction that are cause for a nutritional consult?

A

-Prescription for antipsychotics (Clozapine, Olanzapine, Risperidone, Quetiapine)
-BMI of 18 or below (possible inadequate intake)
-Paranoia regarding food resulting in severe food restriction
-Suspicion that functional level, social or financial factors are compromising food intake
-Alcohol or drug abuse or eating disorder

887
Q

With antipsychotic medications, determine history of usual weight and any weight grain; if weight gain is ___% above baseline, recommend referral for weight management; a weight gain above ___% is a clinically meaningful gain

A

5; 7

888
Q

____ is common among drug addicts because their prime concern is their next drug dose; food may be secondary

A

Malnutrition

889
Q

Injection drug use exerts stress on the ___ system, increasing needs for nutritional antioxidants

A

Immune

889
Q

Drug addicts may be socially marginalized and ____ (partly due to the cost of drugs)

A

Impoverished

890
Q

Cocaine, amphetamines, and ecstasy may be used in Bulimic patients to reduce ___ for desired weight loss or control

A

Appetite

891
Q

Nutrition intervention for drug addiction should address the person in a ___ manner with psychosocial support, including family members; group process is known to have positive outcomes for nutrition education

A

Holistic

892
Q

Those with a drug addiction should have a moderate or discontinued ____ intake; ingestion releases dopamine and may substitute for the dopamine release previously available from use of many drugs which results in mood fluctuations and weight gain

A

Sugar

893
Q

Stable ____ levels are shown to decrease drug cravings and reduce relapse potential

A

Glucose

894
Q

Those with a drug addiction should also have moderate or discontinued ____ intake; it reduces mood stability by inducing the fight or flight response

A

Caffeine

895
Q

Those with a drug addiction should have a diet that is high in…

A

-Complex carbohydrates
-Protein
-Fiber

896
Q

Those with a drug addiction should have a diet with moderate to low ___ intake

A

Fat

897
Q

Those with a drug addiction should get ___ well-spaced meals per day with 1-3 healthy snacks

A

3

898
Q

Energy needs for someone with a drug addiction are ___-___ kcal/kg

A

30-35

899
Q

Protein needs for someone with a drug addiction are ___-___ g/kg

A

1-2

900
Q

Encourage ____ intake, especially water, between and with meals for those with a drug addiction

A

Fluid

901
Q

Standard ____ enteral nutrition formula is used for those with normal GI function

A

Polymeric

902
Q

Most standard polymeric formula provides ___-___ kcal/cc

A

1-1.5

903
Q

____ may be added to standard polymeric formula as an emulsifier

A

Lecithin

904
Q

Standard polymeric formulas are initiated at full strength at a rate of ___-___ ml/hour

A

10-40

905
Q

Advance standard polymeric ___-____ ml every 8-12 hours over the next 24-48 hours until goal rate is achieved

A

10-20

906
Q

____ enteral products allow you to mix individual components and add flexibility

A

Modular

907
Q

_____ formulas are made with whole foods

A

Blenderized

908
Q

When using a blenderized formula, a large ___ tube must be used

A

Bore

909
Q

Blenderized formulas have thick, intact protein and are high ____

A

Residue

910
Q

The least expensive enteral formulas are…

A

-Intact protein (not pre-digested)
-Isotonic (osmolality is close to that of blood)

911
Q

____ and ___ may be added to standard polymeric formulas to stimulate the production of beneficial bacteria and may help resist C. diff

A

Fructooligosaccharides (prebiotics) and fiber

912
Q

____, chemically defined enteral formulas are used in those with malabsorption

A

Elemental

913
Q

Elemental formulas contain ___-___ protein or amino acids, glucose or sucrose, LCT and MCT, vitamins, minerals, and electrolytes

A

Pre-digested

914
Q

Elemental enteral formulas are absorbed in the ___ ____

A

Proximal intestine

915
Q

Elemental formulas are ____ or no-residue

A

Low

916
Q

Elemental formulas do not require ___ ___ for absorption

A

Pancreatic enzymes

917
Q

Elemental formulas are ____ osmolality and generally have poor taste

A

High

918
Q

Elemental formulas are used for those who…

A

-Have compromised GI function
-Have an inability to digest and absorb

919
Q

What are three examples of elemental formulas?

A

-Alitraq
-Peptamen
-Vivonex

920
Q

What are three examples of specialized enteral formulas?

A

-Nepro (renal)
-HepaticAid II (liver)
-Glucerna (diabetes)

921
Q

The more specialized the formula, the greater the ____

A

Cost

922
Q

The tube bore is adjusted based on the ____ of feeding

A

Viscosity

923
Q

A large #____ bore tube would be used for blenderized formulas

A

16

924
Q

A small #____ bore tube would be used for ready-prepared formulas; more comfortable

A

8

925
Q

Enteral access should be based on…

A

-Anticipated length of time needed
-Risk of aspiration
-Patient’s anatomy
-Clinical status
-Normal or abnormal digestion and absorption

926
Q

Hang time for open systems is ___ hours

A

8

927
Q

Hang time for a closed system is ___-___ hours

A

24-48

928
Q

For short-term enteral nutrition (3-4 weeks) in someone with normal GI function, what type of access should be used?

A

Nasogastric

929
Q

The bolus tube feed method is used for clinically stable patients with functioning ___

A

Stomach

930
Q

An intermittent drip of enteral feeding is done with either ____ or ____ and allows for more mobility

A

Pump or gravity

931
Q

A continuous drip of tube feed uses a constant, steady rate over ___-___ hours, usually with a feeding pump

A

16-24

932
Q

Continuous tube feeding is used for what patients?

A

-Those with compromised GI function
-Those who do not tolerate large volume infusion

933
Q

____ feeding is delivered by continuous drip at an increased rate over 8-16 hours, over overnight, by pump

A

Cyclic

934
Q

Cyclic feeding is used for what patients?

A

-Undernourished patients (especially those who are older, ambulatory, or malnourished)

935
Q

Use ____ and _____ feedings if a patient is unable to tolerate gastric feedings

A

Nasoduodenal, nasojejunal

936
Q

___-___ feedings are used in comatose patients or ones with no gag reflex to prevent aspiration (passed pyloric valve in the stomach)

A

Post-pyloric

937
Q

Those who will need enteral nutrition for more than 3-4 weeks should get ____ or ____ feedings

A

Gastrostomy or jejunostomy

938
Q
A
939
Q

A ____ tube inserts tube into the stomach through the intestinal wall

A

PEG

940
Q

Use ___-___ to confirm the tube tip is located in the correct place or aspirate gastric contents (do not use blue dye)

A

X-ray

941
Q

Those on enteral feeding should get ____ cc of water per calorie ingested

A

1

942
Q

Most 1 kcal/cc formulas are ___-___% water

A

80-86

943
Q

Most 1.5 kcal/cc formulas are ___-___% water

A

76-78

944
Q

Most 2 kcal.cc formulas are ____-____% water

A

69-71

945
Q

Normal gastric residual volume is ____ ml or under

A

250

946
Q

Enteral nutrition should NOT be held for gastric residual volume over ____ml or over in the absence of other signs of intolerance

A

500

947
Q

Actual intake of enteral nutrition may be lower than prescribed because of ___ ___ and ADL interruptions

A

Medical procedures

948
Q

What are common adverse effects of enteral nutrition?

A

-Lactose intolerance
-Formula hyperosmolality
-Rapid infusion causes influx of water into the gut

949
Q

Steps for formula calculation:

A

-Select formula and determine calories needed
-Divide calories needed by cal/ml to determine mLs of formula needed per day
-Determine protein content: multiply mLs of daily formula by grams of protein per liter
-Determine fluid needs: multiply % water in formula x daily formula in mLs to determine water content contribution of enteral nutrition; subtract formula water from total fluid requirements to determine water flushes
-Determine administration rate: divide total mLs of formula per day by 24 hours to determine continuous feeding goal rate

950
Q

____ parenteral nutrition uses small surface veins

A

Peripheral

951
Q

Peripheral parenteral nutrition is used for ___-___ therapy and has minimal effect on nutritional status

A

Short-term

952
Q

Indications of peripheral parenteral nutrition:

A

-Post-surgery (when enteral feeding is expected to resume within 5-7 days
-Mild to moderate malnutrition as a supplement to enteral feedings

953
Q

IV dextrose in parenteral nutrition is ___ kcal/grams

A

3.4

954
Q

The highest concentration of dextrose used in peripheral parenteral nutrition is ____%

A

10

955
Q

Protein (amino acids) makes up between ___-___% of peripheral parenteral nutrition

A

3-15

956
Q

Either ____% or ____% of peripheral parenteral nutrition is made up of fat (intravenous fat emulsion, intralipid)

A

10; 20

957
Q

10% lipids are ____ kcal/cc

A

1.1

958
Q

Generally, peripheral parenteral nutrition solutions are limited to ___-___ mOsm

A

800-900

959
Q

Parenteral nutrition is the infusion of a hypertonic solution delivered through a ___ ___ ___

A

Central venous catheter

960
Q

Parenteral nutrition is used for achieve an ____ state when patients are unable to eat by mouth and enteral feeding is not possible

A

Anabolic

961
Q

ASPEN has set a time frame of ___-___ days in which to achieve intake goals by the enteral route before beginning parenteral nutrition

A

7-10

962
Q

Use of parenteral nutrition in critically ill patients has been shown to…

A

-Increase infectious complications
-Increase duration of ICU stays
-Increase mechanical ventilation

963
Q

A _____ line is used for short or moderate-term infusion of parenteral nutrition

A

PICC (peripherally inserted central catheter)

964
Q

A central venous catheter is used for long-term central access and is through either the ___, ____, or ____ vein into the ___ ___ ___

A

Cephalic, subclavian, or internal jugular; superior vena cava

965
Q

The main concern with central parenteral nutrition is the translocation of ____; not feeding through the gut allows walls to break down allowing bacteria to move out and cause sepsis

A

Bacteria

966
Q

Gut-associated lymphoid tissue is compromised by ___ ___ or ___ ____

A

Bowel rest; parenteral nutrition

967
Q

Gut-associated lymphoid tissue provides ___% of total body immunity

A

50

968
Q

___-___% of total body immunoglobulin production is secreted across the GI mucosa to defend against pathogenic substances in the GI lumen

A

70-80

969
Q

The protein ratio for anabolism is 1 gram of nitrogen / ____ calories

A

150

970
Q

Those on parenteral nutrition should get ___-___ grams of protein/kg each day

A

1-1.5

971
Q

____ amino acids make up 3-15% of parenteral nutrition solutions

A

Crystalline

972
Q

The percentage of protein in parenteral nutrition is the number of grams of protein in ____ ml of solution

A

100

973
Q

Those on central parenteral nutrition should get ___-___ kcal/kg

A

35-50

974
Q

Those on central peripheral nutrition should get a solution that is up to ___% dextrose

A

70

975
Q

A 10% dextrose solution provides ____ g of carbohydrates per liter

A

100

976
Q

To avoid overfeeding and hyperglycemia, start parenteral nutrition at ___-___ kcal/kg or less

A

20-25

977
Q

The maximum rate of dextrose infusion (glucose utilization rate) should not exceed ____-___ mg/kg/minute to prevent hyperglycemia and other complications

A

4-5

978
Q

Increased blood glucose from excess dextrose increases ___ ___ in ventilated patients and increased ____ complications

A

Respiratory quotient; infectious

979
Q

Fat is needed for energy and to prevent ______

A

EFAD (essential fatty acid deficiency)

980
Q

To prevent essential fatty acid deficiency, give ____ cc of 10% fat emulsion 1-2x/week

A

500

981
Q

One symptom of essential fatty acid deficiency is _____, or red spots on the skin

A

Petechiae

982
Q

Provide ___, ___, and ___ to those on TPN as needed

A

Vitamins, electrolytes, water

983
Q

___ ___ ___ (3-in-1) includes dextrose, amino acids, and lipids

A

Total nutrient admixture

984
Q

Contraindications to parenteral nutrition:

A

-If alimentary tract can be used
-If needed for only a short time in someone who is well-nourished
-During periods of cardiac instability
-If risks inherent in the process outweigh benefits

985
Q

For transitional feeding, introduce a minimal amount of full-strength enteral feeding at a low rate of ___-___ ml/hour to establish GI tolerance

A

30-40

986
Q

Begin tapering parenteral nutrition when enteral feedings are providing ___-___% of their nutrition requirements

A

33-50

987
Q

Decrease parenteral nutrition as you increase enteral rate by ___-___ ml/hour increments every 8-24 hours to maintain prescribed nutrient levels

A

25-30

988
Q

When patients can tolerate about ___% of their needs by the enteral route, discontinue parenteral feedings

A

60

989
Q

_____ _____ is a consequence of aggressive administration of nutrition to someone who is malnourished

A

Re-feeding Syndrome

990
Q

What populations are most at risk for re-feeding syndrome?

A

-Those with anorexia nervosa
-Those with chronic alcoholism
-Those with prolonged fasting
-Those unfed for 7-10 days
-Those with significant weight loss
-Those who are phosphorus deficient/those who are getting phosphorus deficient parenteral nutrition

991
Q

With re-feeding syndrome, starved cells take up nutrients and ___ and ___ shift into intracellular compartments

A

Potassium and phosphorus

992
Q

Re-feeding syndrome results in…

A

-Hypokalemia
-Hypophosphatemia
-Hypomagnesemia

993
Q

Hypokalemia affects…

A

-Cardiac
-Renal
-Carbohydrate metabolism
-Muscle weakness

994
Q

Hypophosphatemia causes…

A

-Cardiac abnormalities
-Respiratory failure
-Seizures

995
Q

Hypomagnesemia causes:

A

-Intracellular metabolism
-Cardiac arrhythmias
-Hypocalcemia

996
Q

Those at risk for re-feeding syndrome should have tightly controlled blood sugar between ___-___ mg/dl

A

140-180

997
Q

Overfeeding parenteral nutrition and dextrose over ____ mg/kg/min may lead to hyperglycemia

A

5

998
Q

Glucose moves into the cell for oxidation and stimulates insulin which decreases ___ and ___ excreting, increasing the risk of cardiac and pulmonary complications

A

Salt and water

999
Q

Upon initiation of parenteral nutrition to a malnourished person, monitor…

A

-Glucose
-Phosphorus
-Potassium
-Magnesium

1000
Q

____ medicine combined evidence-based complementary therapies with conventional (allopathic) treatments to address the social, psychological, and spiritual aspects of health and illness

A

Integrative

1001
Q

The National Center for Complementary and Integrative Health promotes things like…

A

-Yoga
-Meditation
-Herbs and botanicals
-Traditional healing practices

1002
Q

What are the NIH categories for complementary and alternative medicine (CAM)?

A

-Mind-body medicine
-Alternative medical systems like acupuncture and oriental medicine
-Lifestyle and disease prevention
-Biologically-based therapies including herbs and orthomolecular medicine
-Manipulative and body-based systems like chiropractic medicine
-Biofield systems like therapeutic touch and bioelectric magnets

1003
Q

Functional medicine addresses the ___ ___, not just the symptoms, and looks at the underlying cause of a disease, engaging the patient and practitioner in a partnership for therapy

A

Whole person

1004
Q

____ health views mental, physical, and spiritual aspects of life closely connected and equally as important with regard to treatment approaches

A

Holistic