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Uworld Step 2 > Deck 42: Medicine > Flashcards

Deck 42: Medicine Flashcards

1
Q

3 common causes of aortic stenosis

A
  1. senile calcific aortic stenosis
  2. bicuspid aortic valve
  3. rheumatic heart disease
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2
Q

cause of aortic stenosis in majority of patients under 70 years old

A

bicuspsid aortic valve

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3
Q

Myxomatous valve degeneration usually causes what problem

A

mitral valve prolapse

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4
Q

Most common cause of aortic stenosis in patients older than 70

A

senile calcific aortic stenosis

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5
Q

Initial imaging study of choice in patients with unprovoked first seizure to exclude acute neurologic problems

A

CT without contrast

- MRI if elective or nonemergency

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6
Q

What can noncontrast CT show of brain

A

intracranial or subarachnoid bleed

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7
Q

CT of brain with contrast can identify

A

structural abnormality or mass lesions

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8
Q

initial management of forstbite

A

rapid rewarming of affected tissues

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9
Q

Difference between hypopituitarism and primary adrenal insufficiency

A

Aldosterone is normal in central adrenal insufficiency due to hypopituitarism

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10
Q

3 things that characterize hypopituitarism

A
  1. glucocorticoid deficiency
  2. hypogonadism
  3. hypothyroidism
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11
Q

what is not made in primary adrenal insufficiency? consequenses

A
  • decrease aldosterone
  • hyperkalemia and severe hypotension
  • increase ACTH, hyperpigmentation
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12
Q

aburpt onset of regular tachycardia that resolves with col-water immersion, what do I have

A

paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia

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13
Q

most common form of paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia? who gets it?

A

atrioventricular nodal reentrant tachycardia

- young patients with a structurally normal heat

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14
Q

Vagal maneuver does what do the heart

A

increase parasympathetic tone

  • slowing conduction in AV node
  • increase in AV node refractory period
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15
Q

Atrial fibrillation with rapid ventricular response, initial treatment

A
  • beta blockers

- calcium channel blockers

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16
Q

3 main goals for atrial fibrillation

A
  1. control ventricular rate
  2. restore normal sinus rhythm
  3. asses need for anticoagulation
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17
Q

how do you determine if an Afib patient needs antithrombolytics

A

CHAD2DS2-VASc score

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18
Q

CHAD2S2-VASc

A
  • congestive heart failure
  • hypertension
  • age 75 older
  • diabetes mellitus
  • stroke/TIA/thromboembolism
  • vascular disease
  • age 65-74
  • sex
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19
Q

drug treatment for paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia

A

adenosine: slows AV node to interrupt reentry pathway

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20
Q

what should be suspected in any patient with cirrhosis and ascites who presents with low-grade fever, abdominal discomfort, or altered mental status

A

spontaneous bacterial peritonitis

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21
Q

Reitain trail test

A
  • timed connect-the-numbers test,

- detects subtle mental status changes

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22
Q

first step in evaluation for thyroid nodule

A

TSH and ultrasound

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23
Q

when do you use radionuclide scan in thyroid nodule

A

patients with low TSH

24
Q

how do you treat hot thyroid nodules

A

most are benign, treated for hyperthyroidism

25
Q

what happens in popliteal (baker) cyst

A
  • extrusion of synovial fluid from knee joint into gastrocnemius or semimembranosus brusa
26
Q

2 risk factors for popliteal (Baker) cyst

A
  • trauma

- underlying joint disease

27
Q

clinical presentation for popliteal (Baker) cyst

A
  • chronic, painless bulge behind knee

- crescent sign: arc of ecchymosis visible distal to medial malleolus

28
Q

anserine bursitis

A

subacute medial knee pain

29
Q

Meningococcal vaccination should be given when ?

A

age 11-12

booster: 16

30
Q

3 contraindications for yellow fever vaccine

A
  1. allergy to egg
  2. AIDS
  3. immunosuppressive therapy
31
Q

biopsy for UC

A
  • mucosal and submucosal inflammation

- crypt abscesses

32
Q

what age group gets UC

A

bimodal

  • 15-40
  • second peak 50-80 years
33
Q

complications of UC

A

toxic megacolon

arthritis

34
Q

endoscopy for UC

A

erythematous and friable mucosa with ulcers

35
Q

define chronic cough

A

greater than 8 weeks

36
Q

3 common etiologies for chronic cough

A
  • upper airway cough syndrome ( postnasal drip)
  • GERD
  • asthma
37
Q

HIV patients with less than 200 CD4 count should start what antibiotics

A
  • Azithromycin or clarithromycin for mycobacterium avium

- Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole for pneumocystis jirovicci and toxo

38
Q

parasympathetic innervation of bladder does what

A
  • regulates detrusor muscle contraction
  • internal sphincter relaxation
    allow voiding of urine
39
Q

pelvic floor weakness causes what

A

stress incontinence in women

40
Q

stress continence

A

increased intraabdominal pressure after coughing or sneezing, pee a little bit after

41
Q

diabetic autonomic neuropathy

A
  • overflow incontinence

- high post-void residual volume

42
Q

ice pack applied over eyelids for several minutes, leading to improvement in ptosis. diagnosis

A

myasthenia gravis

43
Q

Lambert-Eaton myasthenic syndrome is associated with what

A

small cell lung cancer

44
Q

what therapy is useful in managing bone pain in patients with prostate cancer who have undergone orchiectomy

A

radiation therapy

45
Q

ST elevation in leads II, III, aVF

A

inferior heart

right coronary artery

46
Q

ST elevation in I, and aVL

A

lateral

- LCX

47
Q

Clinical signs of inferior wall MI

A
  • jugular venous distension
  • Kussmaul’s sign: increase in JVD with inspiration)
  • clear lung fields
48
Q

Most common side effect of recombinant erythropoietin therapy

A
  1. hypertension
  2. headaches
  3. flu-like symptoms
49
Q

what should be considered for end stage renal failure, normochromic normocytic anemia

A

first: iron deficiency
second: erythropoietin therapy

50
Q

what is PaCO2 levels in acute PE

A

decrease PaCO2 due to hyperventillation

51
Q

what is the alveolar-arterial gradient on arterial blood gas for someone who has a PE

A

its higher

52
Q

symptoms of leprosy

A

chronic, anesthetic, hypo-pigmented lesions with peripheral nerve involvement
( nodular/painful nerve deformations with diminished sensory/motor activity)

53
Q

how do you diagnose leprosy

A

biopsy

54
Q

common infection in patient on immunosuppressant medication after solid organ transplantation

A

pneumocystis pneumonia

55
Q

how do you diagnose pneumocystis pneumonia

A
  • stain respiratory secretion

second: bronchoscopy with bronchoalveolar lavage

Uworld Step 2 (30 decks)

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