Deck 42: Medicine Flashcards

1
Q

3 common causes of aortic stenosis

A
  1. senile calcific aortic stenosis
  2. bicuspid aortic valve
  3. rheumatic heart disease
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2
Q

cause of aortic stenosis in majority of patients under 70 years old

A

bicuspsid aortic valve

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3
Q

Myxomatous valve degeneration usually causes what problem

A

mitral valve prolapse

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4
Q

Most common cause of aortic stenosis in patients older than 70

A

senile calcific aortic stenosis

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5
Q

Initial imaging study of choice in patients with unprovoked first seizure to exclude acute neurologic problems

A

CT without contrast

- MRI if elective or nonemergency

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6
Q

What can noncontrast CT show of brain

A

intracranial or subarachnoid bleed

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7
Q

CT of brain with contrast can identify

A

structural abnormality or mass lesions

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8
Q

initial management of forstbite

A

rapid rewarming of affected tissues

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9
Q

Difference between hypopituitarism and primary adrenal insufficiency

A

Aldosterone is normal in central adrenal insufficiency due to hypopituitarism

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10
Q

3 things that characterize hypopituitarism

A
  1. glucocorticoid deficiency
  2. hypogonadism
  3. hypothyroidism
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11
Q

what is not made in primary adrenal insufficiency? consequenses

A
  • decrease aldosterone
  • hyperkalemia and severe hypotension
  • increase ACTH, hyperpigmentation
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12
Q

aburpt onset of regular tachycardia that resolves with col-water immersion, what do I have

A

paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia

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13
Q

most common form of paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia? who gets it?

A

atrioventricular nodal reentrant tachycardia

- young patients with a structurally normal heat

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14
Q

Vagal maneuver does what do the heart

A

increase parasympathetic tone

  • slowing conduction in AV node
  • increase in AV node refractory period
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15
Q

Atrial fibrillation with rapid ventricular response, initial treatment

A
  • beta blockers

- calcium channel blockers

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16
Q

3 main goals for atrial fibrillation

A
  1. control ventricular rate
  2. restore normal sinus rhythm
  3. asses need for anticoagulation
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17
Q

how do you determine if an Afib patient needs antithrombolytics

A

CHAD2DS2-VASc score

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18
Q

CHAD2S2-VASc

A
  • congestive heart failure
  • hypertension
  • age 75 older
  • diabetes mellitus
  • stroke/TIA/thromboembolism
  • vascular disease
  • age 65-74
  • sex
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19
Q

drug treatment for paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia

A

adenosine: slows AV node to interrupt reentry pathway

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20
Q

what should be suspected in any patient with cirrhosis and ascites who presents with low-grade fever, abdominal discomfort, or altered mental status

A

spontaneous bacterial peritonitis

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21
Q

Reitain trail test

A
  • timed connect-the-numbers test,

- detects subtle mental status changes

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22
Q

first step in evaluation for thyroid nodule

A

TSH and ultrasound

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23
Q

when do you use radionuclide scan in thyroid nodule

A

patients with low TSH

24
Q

how do you treat hot thyroid nodules

A

most are benign, treated for hyperthyroidism

25
what happens in popliteal (baker) cyst
- extrusion of synovial fluid from knee joint into gastrocnemius or semimembranosus brusa
26
2 risk factors for popliteal (Baker) cyst
- trauma | - underlying joint disease
27
clinical presentation for popliteal (Baker) cyst
- chronic, painless bulge behind knee | - crescent sign: arc of ecchymosis visible distal to medial malleolus
28
anserine bursitis
subacute medial knee pain
29
Meningococcal vaccination should be given when ?
age 11-12 | booster: 16
30
3 contraindications for yellow fever vaccine
1. allergy to egg 2. AIDS 3. immunosuppressive therapy
31
biopsy for UC
- mucosal and submucosal inflammation | - crypt abscesses
32
what age group gets UC
bimodal - 15-40 - second peak 50-80 years
33
complications of UC
toxic megacolon | arthritis
34
endoscopy for UC
erythematous and friable mucosa with ulcers
35
define chronic cough
greater than 8 weeks
36
3 common etiologies for chronic cough
- upper airway cough syndrome ( postnasal drip) - GERD - asthma
37
HIV patients with less than 200 CD4 count should start what antibiotics
- Azithromycin or clarithromycin for mycobacterium avium | - Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole for pneumocystis jirovicci and toxo
38
parasympathetic innervation of bladder does what
- regulates detrusor muscle contraction - internal sphincter relaxation allow voiding of urine
39
pelvic floor weakness causes what
stress incontinence in women
40
stress continence
increased intraabdominal pressure after coughing or sneezing, pee a little bit after
41
diabetic autonomic neuropathy
- overflow incontinence | - high post-void residual volume
42
ice pack applied over eyelids for several minutes, leading to improvement in ptosis. diagnosis
myasthenia gravis
43
Lambert-Eaton myasthenic syndrome is associated with what
small cell lung cancer
44
what therapy is useful in managing bone pain in patients with prostate cancer who have undergone orchiectomy
radiation therapy
45
ST elevation in leads II, III, aVF
inferior heart | right coronary artery
46
ST elevation in I, and aVL
lateral | - LCX
47
Clinical signs of inferior wall MI
- jugular venous distension - Kussmaul's sign: increase in JVD with inspiration) - clear lung fields
48
Most common side effect of recombinant erythropoietin therapy
1. hypertension 2. headaches 3. flu-like symptoms
49
what should be considered for end stage renal failure, normochromic normocytic anemia
first: iron deficiency second: erythropoietin therapy
50
what is PaCO2 levels in acute PE
decrease PaCO2 due to hyperventillation
51
what is the alveolar-arterial gradient on arterial blood gas for someone who has a PE
its higher
52
symptoms of leprosy
chronic, anesthetic, hypo-pigmented lesions with peripheral nerve involvement ( nodular/painful nerve deformations with diminished sensory/motor activity)
53
how do you diagnose leprosy
biopsy
54
common infection in patient on immunosuppressant medication after solid organ transplantation
pneumocystis pneumonia
55
how do you diagnose pneumocystis pneumonia
- stain respiratory secretion | second: bronchoscopy with bronchoalveolar lavage