Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM


Top Flashcards (Certified)
All Flashcards

Term 1 > Cross Sectional Anatomy > Flashcards

Cross Sectional Anatomy Flashcards

1
Q

Meninges

A
  • connective tissue membrane
  • covers brain and spinal column
  • inner layer—pia mater
  • mid layer—arachnoid mater
  • outer layer—dura mater
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Function of Digestive System

A
  • converts food into nutrients that are absorbed and used throughout the body
  • gets rid of what it doesn’t need
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Function of Cardiovascular System

A
  • delivers oxygen and nutrients to cells
  • removes carbon dioxide from cells
  • delivers nutrients (sugars, fats, vitamins, minerals, proteins) to body cells
  • removes waste products to bring to the liver, kidneys, or lungs for elimination
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Function of Respiratory System

A

-absorbs oxygen into blood and gets rid of carbon dioxide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Function of the Skeletal System

A
  • structure
  • protection
  • shape
  • movement
  • blood cell production: bone marrow produces red blood cells, which carry oxygen to tissues
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What are the 2 parts of the skeletal system?

A
  • axial (head, neck, torso)

- appendicular (arms, legs)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

How many bones are in the human body?

A

206

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What system do the Respiratory System and Cardiovascular System make?

A

Cardiopulmonary System

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What are the bumps on bones for?

A

insertion or attachment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

3 Types of Muscles in the Muscular System

A
  • skeletal: help you move, voluntary
  • cardiac: around heart, involuntary
  • smooth: involuntary (ex. respiratory, digestive tract)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Function of the Muscular System

A
  • voluntary and reflexive movement
  • skeletal stability and organ protection
  • internal organ function (ex. smooth muscle in bladder allows urine to be expelled)
  • regulates body temperature
  • circulates blood and other substances throughout the body
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

How many muscles are in the human body?

A

650

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Function of Nervous System

A
  • communication
    1) sensory input
    2) integrates info
    3) output (responds)—activates effector organ
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Function of Excretory/Urinary System

A
  • excretes waste

- maintains pH

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Function of Reproductive System

A
  • female: releases egg, nourishes egg

- male: delivers sperm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Function of Lymphatic System

A
  • network of tissues and organs that help get rid of toxins/waste
  • 3 Primary Functions:
    1) transport lymph throughout the body
    2) returns excess interstitial fluid to blood
    3) absorbs fats and vitamins from the digestive system
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Function of Integumentary System

A
  • protection

- first line of defense

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Function of Endocrine System

A
  • produces hormones
  • chemical messenger
  • controls functions of body
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Linea Terminalis

A
  • invisible line from the sacral promontory to symphysis pubis
  • division between abdominal and pelvic cavities
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Connective Membranes

A
  • meninges

- synovial

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Epithelial Membranes

A
  • cutaneous
  • mucous
  • serous
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Hiatus is a…

A

hole or opening

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

How many major organ systems are there?

A

11

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What are the boundaries of the Abdominal Cavity?

A
  • superiorly: diaphragm
  • inferiorly: linea terminalus
  • anteriorly: umbilicus, skin, muscles
  • posteriorly: muscles, vertebrae
  • laterally: skin, muscles
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What lumbar level is transpyloric?

A

mid L1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What lumbar level is subcostal?

A

mid L3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What lumbar level is transumbilical?

A

between L3 and L4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What lumbar level is interiliac?

A

lower L4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What lumbar level is transtubular?

A

mid L5

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Xiphoid Process

A

bone on bottom of sternum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What are the 2 types of membranes in body cavities?

A

1) connective

2) epithelial

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Parietal Serosa

A

lines cavity wall

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Visceral Serosa

A

covers organs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Cavity Membranes

A

-thin sheets of tissue that line cavities and organs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

External Oblique Muscle

A
  • outermost layer
  • originates from ribs
  • extends downward and medially
  • inserts on the anterior side of the rectus abdominus, aponeurosis, iliac crest and pubic tubercle
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Internal Oblique Muscle

A
  • middle layer
  • originates from the iliac crest to the inferior borders of the ribs and the aponeurosis on the lateral portion of rectus abdominus muscle
  • extends upward and medially
  • perpendicular to the external oblique muscle
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Transverse Abdominus Muscle

A
  • inner most of the flat abdominal muscles
  • originates from: costal margin, lumbar fascia, anterior 2/3 of iliac crest and lateral half of the ingual ligament
  • inserts on the aponeurosis of the posterior rectus sheath
  • fibers are transverse
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Aponeurosis

A
  • layers of flat broad tendons
  • ventral abdominal region has one of the thickest aponeuroses (also seen in the dorsal lumbar region, palmar and plantar regions)
  • joins muscles and body parts the muscle acts on
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Rectus Abdominus Muscle

A
  • anteriorly on each side of the linea alba
  • long and vertical
  • extends from xiphoid process to symphysis pubis
  • enclosed in a sheath of the aponeuroses of the 3 lateral muscles
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Psoas Major Muscle

A
  • origin: vertebral bodies, intervertebral discs and transverse process of T12-L5
  • pass along the iliac crest of the pelvis
  • inserts on the lesser trochanter of femur
  • long and thick
  • in transverse, they appear as large muscular masses adjacent to the lumbar vertebral bodies
  • circular muscle
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Quadratus Lumborum (QL) Muscle

A
  • thick muscular sheath
  • origin: iliac crest and transverse process of L1-L4
  • ascends to insert on inferior border of 12th rib
  • in transverse, appears lateral and posterior to psoas major muscle
  • flat muscle
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Serous Membranes

A
  • lines cavities that are closed to exterior (pleural, pericardial, peritoneal)
  • occur in pairs
  • secretes a fluid that lubricates the surface of membranes, reducing friction
  • double lined (everything is expanding and contracting)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Peritoneum

A

-the serous membrane in the abdominal cavity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Epithelial Membranes

A
  • moist membranes

- line all body cavities that are open to the exterior (respiratory, digestive, urinary, reproductive)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Synovial

A

-membrane that lines joint cavities

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Epithelial means…

A

skin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Synovial means…

A

joints

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Cutaneous means…

A

skin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Visceral means…

A

organ

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Parts of Digestive System (aka GI/Gastrointestinal Tract)

A
  • extends from mouth to anus
  • liver
  • gall bladder
  • pancreas
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Parts of Cardiovascular System

A
  • heart
  • arteries
  • veins
  • capillaries
  • blood (45% blood cells, 55% plasma)
  • red blood cells
  • white blood cells
  • plasma
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Parts of Respiratory System

A
  • nose
  • mouth
  • pharynx
  • larynx
  • trachea
  • bronchi and bronchioles
  • alveoli
  • lungs
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Parts of Nervous System

A
  • brain
  • spinal cord
  • nerves
  • sensory organs
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Parts of Excretory/Urinary System

A
  • kidneys
  • ureters
  • urinary bladder
  • urethra
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Parts of Reproductive System

A
  • ovaries and testes (gonads)
  • uterus (female)
  • penis (male)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Parts of Lymphatic System

A
  • thymus
  • spleen
  • tonsils
  • adenoids
  • appendix
  • lymph nodes
  • lymph fluid
  • lymph vessels
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Parts of Integumentary System

A
  • skin
  • hair
  • nails
  • eyelashes
  • eyebrows
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Parts of Endocrine System

A
  • pituitary
  • pineal
  • thyroid
  • parathyroid
  • adrenal glands
  • hypothalamus
  • pancreas
  • ovaries
  • testicles
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Abdominal Cavity

A
  • stomach
  • intestines
  • gall bladder
  • liver
  • kidneys
  • pancreas
  • spleen
  • ureters
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Pelvic Cavity

A
  • reproductive organs
  • urinary bladder
  • lowest part of large intestine
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

What are the 2 major categories of glands in the body?

A

1) exocrine

2) endocrine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

Endocrine Glands

A
  • part of Endocrine System

- secrete their products (hormones) directly into the blood (rather than through a duct)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Exocrine Glands

A

-glands that produce and secrete substances onto an epithelial surface or into a lumen by way of a duct

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

Examples of Endocrine Glands

A
  • pineal gland
  • pituitary gland
  • hypothalamus gland
  • thyroid gland
  • parathyroid glands
  • adrenal glands
  • pancreas
  • ovaries (female)
  • testes (male)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

Examples of Exocrine Glands

A
  • sweat glands
  • salivary glands
  • mammary glands
  • ceruminous glands
  • lacrimal glands
  • sebaceous glands
  • mucous glands
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

Osseous means…

A

bone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

Pleural Cavity

A

fluid filled space between the lungs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

Mediastinum Cavity

A
  • division of the thoracic cavity

- between the lungs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

Pericardial Cavity

A

cavity within the mediastinum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

Is the aorta intraperitoneal or retroperitoneal?

A

retroperitoneal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

What is the function of the aorta?

A

-supplies body structures with oxygen rich blood

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

Where does the abdominal portion of the aorta begin?

A

-2.5cm above the transpyloric line at the aortic hiatus (T12) in the diaphragm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

Where does the aorta run?

A

-vertically along midline, slightly left lateral and anterior to spinal column

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

What are the aortic subdivisions?

A
  • ascending aorta
  • aortic arch
  • descending aorta (thoracic and abdominal)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

What are the branches of the abdominal aorta?

A
  • celiac trunk (left gastric artery, common hepatic artery, splenic artery)
  • superior mesenteric artery (SMA)
  • Lt and Rt Suprarenal Arteries (same level as SMA)
  • Lt and Rt Renal Arteries
  • Lt and Rt Gonadal Arteries
  • Lumbar Arteries (L3/L4)
  • Inferior Mesenteric Artery (IMA)
  • Branches into Lt and Rt Common Iliac Arteries (CIA)
  • Median Sacral Artery
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

What do the paired and unpaired visceral branches of the aorta supply?

A

-supply the viscera (organs) of the abdominal cavity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

Unpaired Visceral Branches

A
  • celiac trunk
  • superior mesenteric artery
  • inferior mesenteric artery
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

Paired Visceral Branches

A
  • suprarenal arteries
  • renal arteries
  • gonadal arteries
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

What do the unpaired and paired parietal branches supply in the aorta?

A

-supply the abdominal wall

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

Celiac Trunk

A
  • anterior branch of abdominal aorta
  • 1st unpaired visceral branch
  • L1 level
  • lies superior to and within a few centimetres of the SMA
  • superior to the level of the pancreas
  • also known as celiac axis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

What are the major branches of the celiac trunk?

A
  • left gastric artery (LGA)
  • splenic artery (SA)
  • common hepatic artery (CHA)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

Left Gastric Artery

A
  • branch of the celiac trunk
  • courses superior and left lateral
  • supplies the lesser curvature of stomach
  • joins with right gastric artery
  • not readily visualized
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

Left Splenic Artery

A
  • branch of the celiac trunk, travelling left towards the splenic hilum
  • supplies the spleen, pancreas, stomach and greater omentum
  • forms the superior border of the pancreas
  • easily visualized (very tortuous due to it’s relationship with the pancreas)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

Common Hepatic Artery

A
  • celiac trunk branch
  • courses horizontally to the right
  • branches into gastroduodenal artery, proper hepatic artery and right gastric artery
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

Gastroduodenal Artery (GDA)

A
  • courses inferiorly
  • landmark: head of pancreas
  • supplies the greater curvature of the stomach and anastomoses with the splenic artery
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

Proper Hepatic Artery

A
  • courses superiorly

- supplies the liver by branching into the right and left hepatic arteries

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

Right Gastric Artery

A
  • supplies medial aspect of the stomach

- anastamoses with left gastric artery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

Superior Mesenteric Artery

A

-anterior
-lower level of L1
-just below transpyloric line
inferior to the celiac axis
-courses anteroinferiorly
-proximal portion is readily seen as a landmark
-branches supply: small intestine, cecum, ascending colon and transverse colon
-other branches supply: pancreatic head and duodenal area

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

Renal Arteries

A
  • paired visceral branches off lateral aspect of aorta
  • located a few centimetres inferior to the origin of SMA at upper L2 level
  • courses horizontally to each kidney
  • RRA runs posterior to IVC
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

Gonadal Arteries

A
  • paired visceral branches just inferior to the renal vessels (lower level of L2)
  • descend along the psoas muscles, over the external iliac vessels
  • not readily visualized
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

Lumbar Arteries

A
  • 4
  • arise from posterolateral surface of the aorta along the upper four lumbar vertebrae
  • supply the posterolateral abdominal wall
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

Median Sacral Artery

A
  • unpaired
  • arises from posterior surface of aorta
  • proximal to bifurcation
  • supplies posterior abdominal wall
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

Aortic Bifurcation

A
  • L4
  • bifurcates into Lt and Rt common iliac arteries
  • at L5 and S1 they divide further into internal and external iliac arteries
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

Internal Iliac Artery

A

-supplies the wall and the viscera of the pelvis, perineum, and gluteal region

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

External Iliac Artery

A
  • continuous with the femoral artery

- supplies the lower limbs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

Common Iliac Veins

A
  • external and internal iliac veins join to form a common iliac vein anterior to the sacroiliac joint
  • drain the regions supplied by the iliac arteries
  • Rt and Lt common iliac veins pass obliquely upward from the SI joint to the 5th lumbar vertebrae where they form the IVC
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

Lumbar Veins

A

-4 to 5 pairs of vessels that collect blood from the muscles and skin of the posterior abdominal wall

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

Gonadal Veins

A
  • testicular veins ascend through spermatic cord, into abdomen
  • ovarian veins originate in the ovary
  • ascends retroperitoneally into the abdomen
  • Rt opens directs into IVC
  • Lt drains into the left renal vein
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

Renal Veins

A
  • L2
  • around same level as renal arteries
  • anterior to renal arteries
  • superior to gonadal veins
  • LRV: drains left kidney, receives the left suprarenal vein and left gonadal vein before emptying into the IVC, LRV passes anteriorly to aorta just inferior to the origin of SMA
  • RRA: drains right kidney, slightly inferior to the LRV because the right kidney is lower than the left
  • RRV is shorter and narrower than LRV
  • passes posteriorly to the 2nd part of duodenum
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

Why is the RRV narrower than the LLV?

A

-the LRV has the suprarenal and gonadal veins emptying into it

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

Suprarenal Veins

A
  • Rt is shorter than Lt
  • Rt empties directly into IVC
  • Lt empties into Lt renal vein
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

Hepatic Veins

A
  • drain blood from the liver
  • the central veins of liver lobules collect blood from the interlobular venous sinusoids
  • central veins merge to form right, middle and left hepatic veins
  • exit from the posterior surface of the liver and empty directly into the IVC
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

Hepatic Portal System

A
  • drains all of the nutrient rich blood from the stomach, intestines, pancreas and spleen
  • delivers it to the liver to be processed via the portal vein
  • all blood from the digestive system must pass through the liver before entering into the IVC
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q

What does the SMV drain?

A
  • small intestine
  • cecum
  • ascending colon
  • transverse colon
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
105
Q

What does the IMV drain?

A
  • descending colon
  • sigmoid colon
  • rectum
  • empties into the splenic vein posterior to pancreatic body
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
106
Q

What does the SV drain?

A
  • spleen

- pancreas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
107
Q

What vein does the IMA drain into?

A

-splenic vein

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
108
Q

What 2 veins join to form the Portal Confluence?

A
  • splenic vein

- superior mesenteric vein

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
109
Q

Serous Membranes

A
  • lines cavities that are closed to the exterior (pleural, pericardial, peritoneal)
  • occur in pairs
  • secrete a serous fluid that lubricates the surfaces of membranes, reducing friction
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
110
Q

What is the peritoneum?

A
  • thin serous membrane that forms lining of the abdominal and pelvic cavities
  • covers most intra abdominal organs
  • provides a pathway for blood vessels and lymph
  • secretes a serous fluid that separates the 2 linings, where they come together and allows the organs to move around in the abdominal cavity with less friction
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
111
Q

Visceral Peritoneum

A

-covers organs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
112
Q

Parietal Peritoneum

A

-lines cavity (forms a closed sac)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
113
Q

What is the difference between the peritoneal cavity in males and females?

A
  • males it is closed

- females it is open through uterine tubes, uterus and vagina

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
114
Q

What are the 3 layers of the peritoneum?

A
  • mesenteries
  • omenta
  • peritoneal ligaments
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
115
Q

Mesentary

A
  • double layer of peritoneum that suspends organs in abdominal cavity
  • serves as a conduit for blood vessels, lymphatic vessels and nerves
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
116
Q

Omenta

A

-double layer of peritoneum that is attached to the stomach

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
117
Q

What is the greater omentum?

A
  • connects stomach to transverse colon

- folds back up and attaches to the anterior surface of the transverse colon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
118
Q

What is the lesser omentum?

A
  • connects stomach to liver
  • forms hepatogastric and hepatoduodenal ligaments
  • connects the greater sac via the ‘Foreman of Winslow’
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
119
Q

What is the function of the greater omentum?

A

1) fat deposition
- fat storage area

2) immune contribution
- phagocytosis

3) infection/wound isolation
- may physically limit the spread of infection
- can wrap around areas of infection/trauma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
120
Q

What is the space behind the lesser omentum and stomach?

A
  • omental bursa (aka lesser sac)

- the remainder is termed the greater sac

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
121
Q

What does the passageway between the greater and lesser sacs allow for?

A

-passage of vessels and nerves

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
122
Q

Epiploic Foreman (Foreman of Winslow)

A

‘epiploic’- associated with omentum

‘omentum’- fold of peritoneum that attaches the stomach to something else

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
123
Q

The greater sac is also called the…

A

abdominopelvic cavity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
124
Q

The lesser sac is also called the…

A

omental bursa

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
125
Q

What are the 3 ligaments of the greater omentum?

A
  • gastrophrenic ligament
  • gastrosplenic ligament
  • gastrocolic ligamaent
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
126
Q

Gastrophrenic Ligament

A

-connects greater curvature of stomach to the diaphragm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
127
Q

Gastrosplenic Ligament

A

-connects greater curvature of stomach to the spleen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
128
Q

Gastrocolic Ligament

A
  • connects greater curvature of stomach to the first part of the duodenum and the transverse colon
  • forms a fatty apron that lies over the intestines
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
129
Q

What ligaments make up the lesser omentum?

A
  • hepatogastric ligament

- hepatodudodenal ligament

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
130
Q

Hepatogastric Ligament

A

-connects lesser curvature of stomach to the liver

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
131
Q

Hepatoduodenal Ligament

A

-connects lesser curvature of stomach to the duodenum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
132
Q

Falciform Ligament

A
  • divides liver into Lt and Rt lobes

- attaches anterosuperior surface of the liver to the anterior abdominal wall and diaphragm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
133
Q

Ligamentum Teres (round ligament)

A
  • remnant of left umbilical vein

- originates from free edge of falciform ligament and extends to umbilicus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
134
Q

Coronary Ligament

A
  • attaches liver to inferior surface of diaphragm

- has 2 layers of peritoneum that are separated by the bare area

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
135
Q

Lt and Rt triangular Ligaments

A

-where the layers of coronary ligament meet to the Lt and Rt

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
136
Q

What are intraperitoneal structures?

A
  • completely surrounded by visceral peritoneum

- attach to the abdominal cavity by the mesentery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
137
Q

What are the intraperitoneal structures?

A
  • stomach
  • first part of duodenum
  • majority of intestines
  • ovaries
  • gallbladder
  • spleen
  • liver (except bare area)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
138
Q

What are introperitoneal structures?

A

-structures in the abdominal cavity, but not the peritoneal cavity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
139
Q

What are the retroperitoneal structures?

A
  • adrenal glands
  • aorta
  • IVC
  • transverse and descending duodenum
  • pancreas
  • ureters
  • ascending and descending colon
  • kidneys
  • esophagus
  • rectum
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
140
Q

What are the borders of the liver?

A
  • superior, anterior and a portion of posterior: diaphragm

- posterior: lumbar region and muscular abdominal wall

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
141
Q

Bare Area (liver)

A
  • direct contact with diaphragm

- not covered by peritoneum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
142
Q

Subphrenic Recess

A

-peritoneal space that separates the inferior portion of the liver from the diaphragm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
143
Q

What is the inferior margin of the liver?

A

-border between diaphragm and visceral surface

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
144
Q

Subhepatic Space

A

-inferior to anterior visceral surface of the liver

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
145
Q

Hepatorenal Recess (Morrison’s Pouch)

A

-space between the liver and right kidney

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
146
Q

According to Couinaud, in the centre of each liver segment there is a…

A
  • portal vein
  • hepatic artery
  • bile duct
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
147
Q

According to Couinaud, in the periphery of each segment there is…

A

-vascular outflow through hepatic veins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
148
Q

What divides the liver into superior and inferior segments?

A

portal veins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
149
Q

What divides the Rt lobe of the liver into anterior and posterior sections?

A

right hepatic vein

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
150
Q

What divides the Lt lobe into medial and lateral sections?

A

left hepatic artery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
151
Q

What do the hepatic veins do?

A

drain blood to IVC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
152
Q

Which part of the liver does the RHV drain?

A

right anterior and posterior

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
153
Q

Which part of the liver does the MHV drain?

A
  • right anterior

- left medial

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
154
Q

Which part of the liver does the LHV drain?

A

-left medial and lateral

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
155
Q

What is the gastrointestinal tract composed of?

A
  • mouth
  • pharynx
  • esophagus
  • stomach
  • sm and lg intestines
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
156
Q

Esophagus

A
  • cricoid cartilage to stomach
  • mostly in thoracic cavity, but partly in abdomen
  • anterior to vertebral column and Rt of aorta
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
157
Q

At what level does the esophagus move to the left, passing anterior to the aorta, en route to the stomach?

A

T7

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
158
Q

At what level does the esophageal hiatus penetrate the diaphragm?

A

T10

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
159
Q

The right margin of the esophagus is continuous with the ______ ______ ___ ___ ______.

A

lesser curvature of the stomach

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
160
Q

Cardiac Notch

A

-separates the left margin of esophagus from the fundus of stomach

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
161
Q

Where does the esophagus enter the stomach?

A

the cardiac orifice

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
162
Q

What is the EGJ?

A

-esophageal gastric junction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
163
Q

What is the lower esophageal sphincter?

A
  • located at the cardiac orifice (where the stomach and esophagus meet)
  • slows passage of food into the stomach to avoid reflux
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
164
Q

What quadrant is the stomach located in?

A

LUQ

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
165
Q

Where is the lesser curvature of the stomach?

A

directly medial and superior

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
166
Q

Where is the greater curvature of the stomach?

A

directly lateral and inferior

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
167
Q

What are the regions of the stomach?

A
  • cardia
  • fundus
  • body
  • pylorus: antrum and canal
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
168
Q

What vessels supply the stomach?

A
  • LGA: lesser curvature and part of stomach
  • SA: lateral fundus (via short gastric arteries) greater curvature (via Lt gastro-epiploic artery)
  • CHA: greater curvature (via Rt gastric and Rt gasto-epiploic arteries)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
169
Q

What are the 4 parts of the duodenum?

A

1) bulb
2) descending
3) transverse
4) ascending

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
170
Q

What surrounds the jejunum and ileum?

A

-superiorly and laterally by large bowel (colon)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
171
Q

How long is the jejunum and ilium?

A

5.8m

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
172
Q

Where is the jejunum and ileum located?

A
  • central and lower part of abdominal cavity

- extends from duodenaljejunal flexure and terminates at the large bowl in the Rt iliac fossa (ileocecal junction)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
173
Q

Where do most digestive processes take place?

A

small bowel

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
174
Q

The large intestine is also known as the…

A
  • large bowel

- colon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
175
Q

What are the 7 portions of the colon?

A
  • cecum
  • ascending colon
  • transverse colon
  • descending colon
  • sigmoid colon
  • rectum
  • anus
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
176
Q

Is the colon intraperitoneal or retroperitoneal?

A

retroperitoneal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
177
Q

What are the 2 flexures associated with the colon?

A

1) hepatic/Rt colic

2) splenic/Lt colic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
178
Q

Where is the appendix located?

A
  • RLQ

- 1/3 of the distance between a line drawn from the ASIS and umbilicus (aka McBurney’s point)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
179
Q

Which vessel runs posterior to the pancreas?

A

-splenic vein

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
180
Q

Where is the portosplenic confluence?

A

-anterior to the uncinate process and posterior to the neck of the pancreas?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
181
Q

Which vessels supply the pancreas and which vessels drain the pancreas?

A
  • supplied by splenic artery

- drained by splenic vein

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
182
Q

What are the 2 pancreatic ducts?

A

1) Duct of Wirsung (aka main pancreatic duct)

2) Duct of Santorini (aka accessory duct)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
183
Q

Duct of Wirsung (main pancreatic duct)

A
  • begins at the tail of pancreas

- empties into the descending duodenum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
184
Q

Duct of Santorini (accessory pancreatic duct)

A
  • branch of the main pancreatic duct

- enters the duodenum superior to the duct of Wirsung

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
185
Q

What do the Lt and Rt hepatic ducts do?

A

-drain Rt and Lt lobes of the liver of bile

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
186
Q

What do the Lt and Rt hepatic ducts join to form?

A

the common hepatic duct

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
187
Q

Where are the Lt and Rt hepatic ducts located?

A
  • intrahepatic

- on inferior surface of the liver and exited medially toward the hilum (aka porta hepatis)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
188
Q

What are the 2 billiard ducts?

What do the join to form?

A

1) common hepatic duct
2) cystic duct

-join to for the CBD (common bile duct)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
189
Q

Where is the CBD (common bile duct) located?

A
  • enters descending duodenum through the Sphincter of Oddi

- runs posterior to the 1st portion of the duodenum and the pancreatic head

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
190
Q

Where are the kidneys located?

A
  • lateral to each side of the spine
  • along posterior body wall, against psoas muscles
  • inferior to the diaphragm
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
191
Q

Which kidney is more superior?

A

left

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
192
Q

What protects the kidneys?

A
  • floating ribs
  • pararenal fat
  • Gerota’s fascia
  • perirenal fat
  • renal capsule
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
193
Q

Hydronephrosis

A
  • kidney slips out of protective layers

- ureters twist and block urine (caused by nephroptosis)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
194
Q

What is the renal hilum and where is it located?

A
  • medial border of kidneys where blood vessels enter and exit
  • located at the transpyloric plane
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
195
Q

What structures are located at the renal hilum?

A
  • ureter
  • renal artery
  • renal vein
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
196
Q

What do the renal arteries supply and where are they located?

A

-supply kidneys with blood

  • arise bilaterally from AO, below the SMA
  • horizontal orientation
  • lie posterior to renal veins
  • RRA runs directly posterior to IVC
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
197
Q

How much cardiac output passes through the renal arteries to be filtered?

A

1/3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
198
Q

What do the renal veins drain and where are they located?

A

-drains blood that has been filtered by the kidneys

  • enter IVC horizontally
  • LRV passes directly posterior to the SMA and anterior to the AO
199
Q

Which renal vein is longer?

A

-left is longer than right

200
Q

Where are the ureters located?

A
  • originate in renal pelvis
  • lie medial to renal hilum
  • descend anteriorly along psoas major from the hilum to bladder
  • cross anteriorly over the iliac arteries
  • insert in bladder on inferior posterolateral aspect
201
Q

Where are the kidneys in relation to the QL muscle?

202
Q

Where are the kidneys in relation to the abdominal wall muscles?

A

posteromedial

203
Q

Where are the kidneys in relation to the psoas major muscles?

A

anterolateral

204
Q

Where are the kidneys in relation to the diaphragm?

205
Q

Where are the adrenal glands located?

A
  • superior and slightly medial to each kidney

- anterior to QL and psoas muscles

206
Q

What encloses the kidneys and adrenal glands?

A

Gerota’s fascia

207
Q

Which vessels supply the suprarenal/adrenal glands and which vessels drain the suprarenal/adrenal glands?

A
  • supply: 3 suprarenal arteries

- drain: Lt drains into LRV and Rt drains directly into IVC

208
Q

Pelvic Cavity

A

-basin shaped cavity inferior portion go the abdominal/pelvic cavity

209
Q

What are the 2 components of the pelvic cavity?

A
  • pelvis major (false pelvis)

- pelvis minor (true pelvis)

210
Q

Pelvis Major (false pelvis)

A
  • between the iliac fossa superiorly and the pelvic brim inferiorly
  • considered part of abdominal cavity
  • contains abdominal viscera such as parts of the small intestine and sigmoid colon
211
Q

Pelvis Minor (true pelvis)

A
  • between pelvic brim superiorly and pelvic diaphragm inferiorly
  • enclosed by the sacrum, ischium, pubis, and pelvic portions of the ilium
  • contains bladder, rectum, internal reproductive organs, and some intestinal tract if it reaches
212
Q

Linea Terminalis

A
  • imaginary line that separates the true pelvis and false pelvis
  • runs from the sacral promontory to the symphysis pubis
213
Q

Os Coax (hip bones)

A

Consists of:

  • ilium
  • ischium
  • pubis

-individual bones at birth that fuse in adults

214
Q

Osseous Components of Pelvic Cavity

A
  • ilium
  • ischium
  • pubis
  • sacrum
  • coccyx
215
Q

Which bones meets to fuse the acetabulum?

A
  • ilium
  • ischium
  • pubis
216
Q

Ilium

A
  • largest hip bone
  • superior part has large wing like surface called the ‘ala’
  • iliac crest is the superior margin limited anteriorly by the anterior superior iliac spine (ASIS) and posteriorly by the posterior superior iliac spine (PSIS)
  • inner aspect of the ala: iliac fossa (origin for iliac muscle)
  • articulates posteromedially with the sacrum at the SI joints
217
Q

Pubic Bones

A
  • bodies meet at midline at the symphysis pubis
  • small projection lateral to body is pubic tubercle
  • superior pubic ramus extends laterally from pubic tubercle to ilium
  • inferior pubic ramus extends inferiorly from body to connect with ischium
218
Q

What does the superior margin of the pubic ramus form?

A
  • pectineal line

- continuous with the arcuate line (pelvic brim)

219
Q

Pubic Arch in Males

A

less than 70 degrees in males

220
Q

Pubic Arch in Females

A

greater than 80 degrees in females

221
Q

Ischium Bone

A
  • inferior portion of os coxae
  • ramus of ischium meets ischium of pubis bone: ischiopubic ramus
  • posteroinferior border of ischium has a bulky, rough surface called the ischial tuberosity
222
Q

Ischiopubic Ramus

A

-ramus of ischium meets ischium of pubis bone

223
Q

What is the inferior border of the greater sciatic notch?

A

-ischial spine

224
Q

What is the superior border of the lesser sciatic notch?

A

-ischial spine

225
Q

Sacrum

A

-5 fused distal segments of the vertebral spine
-posterior midline border of the pelvic cavity
-posterior tilt
-anteriorly concave
-supports pelvic viscera
-weight transfer from
sacrum to hip bones to legs
-articulates the 5th lumbar vertebra superiorly, coccyx inferiorly and the os coxae laterally

226
Q

Sacral Promontory

A

-marks the posterior portion of the pelvic inlet/brim

227
Q

What forms the sacral nerve passage?

A

-anterior and posterior bilateral columns of sacral foramina

228
Q

SI Joint

A
  • articular surface on lateral aspect to articulate with iliac bones
  • aka iliosacral joint, sacroiliac joint
229
Q

Coccyx

A
  • aka tailbone
  • most inferior portion of spine
  • 3 to 5 fused rudimentary vertebrae with no processes or foramina
  • offers no support, but provides attachment points for some pelvic floor muscles
230
Q

Female Pelvis

A
  • bones are lighter, thinner
  • false pelvis is shallow
  • pelvic cavity is wide and shallow
  • pelvic inlet is round/oval
  • pelvic outlet is comparatively large
  • pubic angle large
  • coccyx more flexible, straighter
  • ischial tuberosities more everted
231
Q

Male pelvis

A
  • bones heavier and thicker
  • false pelvis is deep
  • pelvic cavity is narrow and deep
  • pelvic inlet heart shaped and smaller
  • pelvic outlet compositely small
  • subpubic angle more acute
  • coccyx less flexible, more curved
  • ischial tuberosities longer, face medially
232
Q

What is the inferior boundary of the pelvis major?

A

-pelvic brim, linea terminalis

233
Q

What articulates with the auricular surface of the ilium?

234
Q

What bones form the os coxa?

A
  • ilium
  • ishium
  • pubic bones
235
Q

Where do the 3 bones of the os coxa meet?

A

-acetabulum

236
Q

Which pelvic bone is most inferior?

237
Q

Which bone articulates with the sacrum inferiorly?

238
Q

What is the pelvis minor also referred to as?

A

-true pelvis

239
Q

A pelvis with an acute subpubic angle belongs to which gender?

240
Q

False Pelvis Muscles

A
  • actually abdominal muscles, but extend down into the pelvis
  • iliopsoas (psoas major and iliacus)
  • rectus abdominus
241
Q

Iliopsoas Muscle

A
  • psoas major joins the iliac muscle at the iliac crest level
  • courses anteriorly along the linea terminalis
  • travels over pelvic brim
  • inserts onto the lesser trochanter of the femur
242
Q

Rectus Abdominus Muscle

A
  • most anterior muscle of the pelvic cavity
  • bilateral to the line alba
  • ascends from pubis to xiphoid process vertically
243
Q

Which 2 muscles cover the true pelvic wall?

A
  • obturator internus (ant)

- piriformis (post)

244
Q

Obturator Internus

A
  • fan shaped
  • covers anterolateral wall of true pelvis
  • originates on inner inferior aspect of the obturator foramen, crosses it and leaves pelvis through the lesser sciatic notch where it makes a sharp turn to insert on the medial surface of the greater trochanter
  • rotates the thigh
245
Q

Piriformis Muscle

A
  • originates on anterior surface of the sacrum
  • passes through the greater sciatic notch to insert on the greater trochanter of femur
  • rotation and abduction of the thigh
246
Q

Pelvic Outlet Muscles

A
  • support pelvic viscera
  • peritoneum
  • pelvic diaphragm (levator ani and coccygeus)
  • urogenital diaphragm (transverse perineal and external urethral sphincter)
247
Q

Muscles of the Peritoneum

A
  • external to the pelvic and urogenital diaphragms
  • divided into 2 regions:
    • urogenital triangle (bulbospongiosus, ishiocavernosus and transversus perineal)
    • anal triangle (sphincter ani muscle)
248
Q

Pelvic Diaphragm Muscles

A
  • levator ani (pubococcygeous, iliococcygeous)
  • coccygeous
  • line the floor of the true pelvis
  • provide support for pelvic organs
249
Q

Levator Ani Muscles

A
  • pubococcygeous
  • iliococcygenous
  • hammock like portion of pelvic floor
  • aids in contractions of vagina and rectum
250
Q

Pubococcygeus Muscles

A
  • most medial and anterior muscle of pelvic diaphragm

- extends from pubic bone to coccyx

251
Q

Iliococcygeous Muscles

A
  • lie posterolateral to the pubococcygeous

- extend from lateral pubic bone and ischial spine to coccyx

252
Q

Coccygeous

A
  • most posterior muscle pair of the pelvic diaphragm

- extend from ischial spine to coccyx

253
Q

The pelvic diaphragm is composed of ___ paired muscles.

254
Q

Deep Transverse Perineal

A
  • aka transverse perinei
  • horizontal muscles
  • originate on ischial tuberosities and pass medially to insert on central perineal tendon
255
Q

External Urethral Sphincter

A
  • voluntary (unlike internal urethral sphincter)

- stops urine from exiting the bladder

256
Q

Perineal Muscles

A
  • most superficial layer
  • diamond shaped area between pubic arch anteriorly, coccyx posteriorly, and ischial tuberosities laterally
  • divided into urogenital (ant.) region and anal region (post.)
257
Q

UG Region Muscles

A
  • bulbospongiosus
  • ishiocavernosus
  • superficial transverse perineal
258
Q

Anal Region Muscles

A

-sphincter ani

259
Q

Superficial Transverse Perineal

A
  • arise on ischial tuberosities and pass medially to insert on central perineal tendon
  • divides perineum into UG and anal regions
260
Q

Ischiocavernosus

A

-arise on ischial tuberosities, pass forward to insert on pubic arch and crus of penis (males) or clitoris (females)

261
Q

Bulbospongiosus

A
  • median line of UG region
  • female it is separated by the urethra/vagina
  • male is unites midline and encircles corpus spongiosum of penis
262
Q

Sphincter Ani Muscles

A

-surround anal canal

263
Q

Extrapelvic Muscles

A

-seen on pelvic sections, but are technically part of lower extremity

  • gluteus maximus
  • gluteus medius
  • gluteus minimis
264
Q

Which group of organs are located in the false/greater pelvis?

A

-gastrointestinal organs

265
Q

Which groups of organs are located in the true/lesser pelvis?

A
  • urinary organs

- reproductive organs and accessory structures (sex dependant)

266
Q

Where are the cecum and ascending colon found?

A

-Rt side of greater pelvis

267
Q

Where is the descending colon located?

A

-becomes continuous with sigmoid colon at pelvic brim

268
Q

What does the sigmoid colon join with?

A
  • rectum at level of mid sacrum

- becomes fixed to posterior pelvic wall

269
Q

Where is the rectum located?

A

-follows curvature of sacrum/coccyx onto the pelvic floor where it penetrates the levator ani muscle and becomes the anal canal

270
Q

Rectouterine Pouch

A
  • peritoneum that extends from the surface of the rectum to the uterus
  • female
271
Q

Vesicouterine pouch

A
  • peritoneum that extends over the uterus anteriorly to the bladder
  • female
272
Q

Rectovesicle

A
  • peritoneum that extends from the upper anterior portion of rectum to the bladder
  • male
273
Q

Where are the ureters located?

A
  • upper half is in abdomen
  • cross over pelvic brim anterior to the internal iliac artery origin
  • follow course of internal iliac arteries then turn medially at the level of ischial spine to enter urinary bladder on its posteroinferior surface
274
Q

Where is the urinary bladder located?

A

-true pelvis

275
Q

Where is the bladder in females?

A
  • rests on pelvic floor

- posterior to symphysis pubis

276
Q

Where is the bladder in males?

A

-superior to prostate gland, which is on pelvic floor

277
Q

Which way does the urethra project?

A
  • inferiorly from bladder to exterior

- through the prostate gland in males

278
Q

Female Urethra

A
  • 4cm long muscular tube
  • extends from internal urethral orifice to external urethral orifice
  • external urethral orifice opens into vestibule just anterior to vagina
279
Q

Male Urethra

A
  • approx 5 times the length of female urethra
  • extends from the internal urethral orifice at the tip of the glans penis
  • 3 regions
280
Q

What are the 3 regions of the male urethra?

A
  • prostatic urethra–prox
  • membranous urethra–mid
  • penile (spongy) urethra–distal
281
Q

Prostatic Urethra

A
  • passes through prostate gland
  • ejaculatory ducts from prostate gland open into this part
  • most proximal portion
282
Q

Membranous Urethra

A
  • shortest/narrowest portion
  • passes through urogenital diaphragm to enter penis
  • medial portion
283
Q

Penile (spongy) Urethra

A
  • longest part
  • extends full length of the corpus spongiosum of the penis
  • ducts of the bulbourethral glands open into the proximal region of the spongy urethra
  • most distal portion
284
Q

Trigone

A
  • area of bladder forced between the openings for 2 ureters and one opening for the internal urethral orifice
  • most sensitive to pain
285
Q

Female Reproductive Organs

A
  • ovaries
  • uterine tubes
  • uterus
  • vagina
286
Q

Peritoneal Ligaments

A

-double folds of peritoneum that hold the reproductive organs in place

287
Q

Broad Ligament of Uterus

A
  • large fold of peritoneum that covers uterus, uterine tubes, and ovaries
  • divides pelvic cavity into anterior (bladder) and posterior (rectum)
288
Q

Round Ligaments (x2)

A
  • extend from the uterine horns to the anterior pelvic wall

- pass through the inguinal canal and attach to subcutaneous tissue of labia major

289
Q

Uterosacral Ligaments (2x)

A

-connects uterus to sacrum

290
Q

Lateral Cervical (Cardinal) Ligaments

A
  • extend from lateral walls of cervix to the pelvic floor

- stabilize the cervix

291
Q

What are the 3 peritoneal ligaments that hold the ovaries?

A
  • mesovarium
  • ovarian ligament
  • suspensory ligament
292
Q

Mesovarium

A

-attaches ovary to posterior layer of broad ligament

293
Q

Ovarian Ligament

A
  • cord like thickening in the broad ligament

- attaches ovary to the lateral wall of uterus

294
Q

Suspensory Ligament

A
  • extension of broad ligament

- carries ovarian vessels and attaches ovary to lateral pelvic wall

295
Q

Ovary

A
  • small, solid, oval structure
  • 3cm long
  • contains 250 000 primary oocytes at birth
296
Q

Ovarian Fossa

A

shallow depression in lateral wall of pelvis on either side of uterus

297
Q

Uterine Tubes

A
  • slender tubes about 10cm long
  • located in upper border of broad ligament
  • extend from upper lateral angle of the uterus to the ovarian region
  • lumen is continuous with the uterine cavity
298
Q

Infundibulum

A

-funnel shaped distal portion of uterine tube which is edged with finger like extensions called ‘fimbriae’

299
Q

Are ovaries and uterine tubes connected?

300
Q

Uterus

A
  • hollow, pear shaped, muscular organ
  • functions to receive embryo and sustain it’s life during development
  • located in anterior portion of pelvic cavity, superior to vagina
  • usually tilted forward relative to the vagina and bends over superior surface of urinary bladder (anteverted and anteflexed)
  • can be retroverted as well
301
Q

What are the 3 layers of the uterus?

A

1) endometrium-inner layer
2) myometrium- middle muscular layer
3) perimetrium- serous peritoneum, continuous with broad ligament (outer layer)

302
Q

How is the uterus divided?

A
  • body
  • horn
  • cervix
  • external os
303
Q

Uterus Body

A
  • upper 2/3rds (bulges superiorly to fundus)

- uterine tubes enter uterus at it’s broadest part, between the fundus and the body

304
Q

Uterus Horn

A

-area where the uterine tube and uterus connect

305
Q

Cervix

A

-lower 1/3rd of uterus that expands inferiorly into the upper portion of the vagina

306
Q

External Os

A

-opening of cervix into vagina

307
Q

Vagina

A
  • plays a key role in both beginning and end of reproductive process
  • receives the male erect penis during intercourse and acts as a birth canal during childbirth
  • 10 to 15cm long muscular tube that extends from the cervix to the vestibule on the exterior
  • located posterior to the urethra and anterior to the rectum
308
Q

Fornices

A
  • aka fornix
  • the recesses of vagina around cervix
  • posterior fornix is longer than anterior fornix due to cervical angle
  • posterior fornix is related to rectouterine pouch
309
Q

If a surgical instrument penetrated the rectouterine pouch, what could it cause?

A
  • hemmorage

- peritonitis

310
Q

Why is the anterior wall of the vagina shorter than the posterior wall?

A

-because the cervix projects into the vagina on an angle

311
Q

Vulva (aka pudendum)

A

-collective term referring to all portions of the external female genitalia

312
Q

Mons Pubis

A
  • subcutaneous fat pad anterior to symphysis pubis

- area where pubic hair grows

313
Q

Labia Majora

A

-2 large folds of skin filled with subcutaneous fat located at the lateral margins of the vulva

314
Q

Labia Minora

A
  • 2 thin, delicate folds of skin located medial to the labia majora, but lateral to the urethral and vaginal openings
  • united anteriorly to form the prepuce over the clitoris
315
Q

Clitoris

A

-inferior to mons pubis and between the anterior ends of labia minor

316
Q

Vestibule

A
  • narrow cleft between the 2 labia minor

- bordered by the clitoris at the anterior end

317
Q

Urethral Orifice

A

-opens into the anterior portion of the vestibule

318
Q

Vaginal Orifice

A

-opens within the vestibule, posterior to the urethra

319
Q

Paraurethral and Greater Vestibular Glands

A
  • secrete mucous for lubrication

- located on either side of urethral and vaginal offices

320
Q

Male Reproductive Organs

A
  • testes
  • scrotum
  • vas deferens
  • ejaculatory duct
  • seminal vesicles
  • prostate
  • bulbourethral glands
  • penis

*all of these organs are located in the pelvic cavity, except the testes and penis

321
Q

What are the best imaging modalities for the brain?

A

-CT or MRI

322
Q

Why is the fetal brain easier to see on US than the adult brain?

A

-fetal brain has thinner bone structure

323
Q

How is the fetal brain visualized with US?

A
  • through unclosed fontanels of the cranium

- can assess bleeding

324
Q

How can vasculature of the Circle of Willis be assessed?

A
  • transcranial doppler (TCD)

- using windows of thinner bone (temporal area)

325
Q

Layers of the Scalp

A
  • skin
  • CT
  • aponeurosis
  • loose areolar tissue
  • periosteum
326
Q

CT Layer of Scalp

A

-subcutaneous fat and fibrous tissue that holds nerves and vessels

327
Q

Aponeurosis Layer of Scalp

A

-dense fibrous tissue

328
Q

Loose Areolar Tissue of Scalp

A
  • contains collagen

- allows upper layers to move

329
Q

Brain Layers

A
  • bone

- meninges: dura mater, arachnoid mater and pia mater

330
Q

Dura Mater

A
  • tough, outer layer
  • pierced only by cranial nerves, carotid and vertebral vessels
  • 2 layer: endosteal and meningeal
331
Q

Arachnoid Mater

A
  • thin, delicate, middle layer

- vessels flow through

332
Q

Arachnoid Villi

A

-protrude into dural venous sinuses (CSF reabsorption)

333
Q

Pia Mater

A
  • inner, thin, vascular layer

- continuous with contours of he brain

334
Q

Gyrus

A

-outpouching part of brain tissue (mountain)

335
Q

Sulcus

A

-portion of brain that is recessed (valley)

336
Q

Central Sulcus

A
  • lg coronal sulcus

- divides frontal and parietal lobes

337
Q

Sylvian Fissure

A
  • x2
  • lateral
  • divides temporal lobe (below) from frontal and parietal lobes (above)
  • ends in the insula
338
Q

Fontanelles

A

-junctions of skull sutures that have not yet ossified

339
Q

When do fontanelles ossify by?

A

-18 months

340
Q

How many cranial bones are there?

341
Q

What are the paired cranial bones?

A
  • temporal

- parietal

342
Q

What are the unpaired cranial bones?

A
  • frontal
  • occipital
  • sphenoid
  • ethmoid
343
Q

How many facial bones are there?

344
Q

What are the facial bones?

A
  • maxillae (2)
  • nasal (2)
  • zygomatic (2)
  • lacrimal (2)
  • mandible
  • vomer
  • inferior nasal conchae (2)
  • palatine (2)
345
Q

How many brain lobes are there?

346
Q

What are the brain lobes?

A
  • frontal
  • parietal (2)
  • occipital
  • temporal (2)
347
Q

What are the skull sutures?

A
  • coronal
  • sagittal
  • lambdoidal
  • lateral (2)
348
Q

What are the brain fontanelles?

A
  • anterior
  • posterior
  • sphenoid (2)
  • mastoid (2)
349
Q

How many skull sutures are there?

350
Q

How many brain fontanelles there?

351
Q

Regions of the Brain

A
  • cerebral hemisphere
  • cerebellum
  • diencephalon
  • brainstem
352
Q

Parts of the Diencephalon

A
  • thalamus

- hypothalamus

353
Q

Parts of the Brainstem

A
  • midbrain
  • pons
  • medulla oblongata
354
Q

Corpus Callosum

A
  • largest fibre pathway in the brain

- links Lt and Rt cerebral hemispheres

355
Q

4 Parts of the Corpus Callosum

A
  • rostrum
  • genu (ant.)
  • isthmus (body)
  • splenium (post.)
356
Q

What forms the anterior, superior and posterior border around the lateral ventricles?

A

-corpus callosum

357
Q

Where are ventricles of the brain located?

A

-within the brain parenchyma

358
Q

What are the ventricles of the brain responsible for?

A

-communication network of cavities

359
Q

What are the ventricles of the brain filled with?

360
Q

What is the ventricular system composed of?

A
  • lateral ventricles (2)
  • 3rd ventricle
  • cerebral aqueduct
  • 4th aqueduct
361
Q

Choroid Plexus’

A
  • located within ventricles

- produce CSF

362
Q

What does CSF fill?

A
  • fills ventricles and subarachnoid space

- follows cycle of constant production and reabsorption

363
Q

What is another word for the intervetricular foramen?

A

-Foramen of Monroe

364
Q

Basal Ganglia

A
  • clusters of grey matter

- lateral to diencephalon

365
Q

What separates the diencephalon from grey matter?

A

-internal capsule (white matter)

366
Q

Brain Vascular Supply

A

2 Sets of Arteries:

  • vertebral arteries
  • internal carotid arteries
367
Q

Circle of Willis

A
  • anastomotic system of arteries
  • at base of brain
  • supplies blood to brain and surrounding structures
368
Q

What does the structure of the Circle of Willis allow for?

A

-preservation of brain tissue

369
Q

What happens if there is a blockage in the Circle of Willis?

A

-blood moves around the circle, supplying the same area from a different direction

370
Q

Where are dural venous sinuses located?

A

-between the endosperm layer and meningeal layer of the dura mater

371
Q

Where do dural venous sinuses receive blood from?

A

-veins in the brain (do NOT run along arteries)

372
Q

Where do the dural venous sinuses mainly drain into?

A

-internal jugular vein

373
Q

Where do dural venous sinuses receive CSF from?

A

-arachnoid villi in the subarachnoid space

374
Q

What are the 4 major components of the brain?

A
  • vertebral compartment
  • visceral compartment
  • vascular compartments (x2)
375
Q

What are the 4 major components of the brain enclosed in?

A

-the musculofascial collar

376
Q

Visceral Compartment

A

-contains thyroid, thymus and parts of larynx and pharynx that pass between head and thorax

377
Q

Vertebral Compartment

A

-contains cervical vertebrae and associated postural muscles

378
Q

Vascular Compartments (x2)

A

-contains major blood vessels and the vagus nerve

379
Q

How many cervical vertebrae are there?

380
Q

Why are the osseous components of the neck easily distinguishable?

A

-due to their transverse foramina where the vertebral arteries pass through

381
Q

Shape of Osseous Components

A
  • bifid spinous processes

- except C7, which is long, pointed and palpable

382
Q

C1

A
  • atlas

- carries weight of head

383
Q

C2

A
  • axis

- allows head to rotate on neck

384
Q

Structures of the Visceral Compartment of the Neck

A
  • epiglottis
  • hyoid bone
  • thyroid cartilage
  • thyroid gland
  • trachea
  • esophagus
385
Q

Where is the hyoid bone located?

A
  • superior to the thyroid gland
  • anterior midline of neck
  • between the chin and the thyroid cartilage
386
Q

What is the shape of the hyoid bone?

A

-horseshoe

387
Q

What does the hyoid bone provide attachment for?

A

-the floor of the mouth muscles, larynx and tongue

388
Q

What is another name for thyroid cartilage?

A

-adams apple

389
Q

What forms the anterior wall of the larynx?

A

-thyroid cartilage

390
Q

What does the thyroid cartilage protect?

A

-vocal cords

391
Q

Where is thyroid cartilage located?

A

-mid anterior of neck

superior to thyroid gland

392
Q

Is thyroid cartilage visualized on US?

393
Q

What forms the attachment for laryngeal muscles?

A

-thyroid cartilage

394
Q

What is the largest gland in the neck?

A

-thyroid gland

395
Q

What is the shape of the thyroid gland?

A
  • butterfly/bowtie

- wings representing Rt and Lt lobes (wrap around the trachea)

396
Q

Where is the thyroid gland located?

A
  • anterior

- deep to the skin and muscle layers

397
Q

What connects Rt and Lt lobes of the thyroid gland?

398
Q

What lobes can sometimes be seen on superior aspects of both thyroid lobes?

A

-pyramidal lobes

399
Q

What projects superiorly from the isthmus level and inferior to the hyoid bone?

A

-thyroid gland

400
Q

How many parathyroid glands are there?

401
Q

Where are the parathyroid glands located?

A
  • posterior aspect of the thyroid gland
  • adjacent to each lobe
  • medial and posterior to thyroid lobes
402
Q

Are parathyroid glands easy to see?

A
  • no

- unless enlarged

403
Q

What is located posterior to sternocleidomastoid and the strap muscles?

A

-thyroid gland

404
Q

What is medial to carotid artery and internal jugular vein?

A

-thyroid gland

405
Q

Where is the trachea located?

A
  • posterior to isthmus of thyroid gland
  • medial to both lobes
  • midline
406
Q

Is the trachea seen on US?

A
  • no

- air filled

407
Q

Why is the trachea a landmark for US?

A

-casts a shadow

408
Q

Where is the esophagus located?

A
  • posterior and slightly Lt lateral to trachea

- inferomedial to Lt thyroid lobe

409
Q

Why is the esophagus not assessed on US?

A
  • air filled

- can be a landmark

410
Q

What do the muscular components of the neck deal with?

A
  • swallowing

- movement of head, neck and shoulders

411
Q

Can neck muscles be imaged?

A
  • yes

- they are small and hard to visualize

412
Q

What are neck muscles divided into?

A

-2 triangles (anterior and posterior)

413
Q

What are the 2 triangles (anterior and posterior) of neck muscles separated by?

A

-sternocleidomastoid muscle (SCM)

414
Q

What are the anterior neck muscles?

A
  • sternocleidomastoid muscle (lateral)
  • longus colli muscle (deep)
  • strap muscles
415
Q

Strap Muscles (ant. neck muscles)

A
  • omohyoid muscle (lateral)
  • sternohyoid muscle (middle)
  • sternothyroid muscle (medial, deepest and shortest)
416
Q

Where are the anterior neck muscles located?

A
  • extend from midline of neck to anterior margin of SCM

- superiorly from mandible to manubrium inferiorly

417
Q

What is the largest, paired neck muscle?

A

-sternocleidomastoid

418
Q

Where are the sternocleidomastoid muscles located?

A
  • antero lateral

- transverse, obliquely across the side of neck

419
Q

Where do the sternocleidomastoid muscles extend from?

A

-the mastoid process to the sternum

420
Q

What do the sternocleidomastoid muscles aid in?

A

-flexion and rotation of the head

421
Q

What is the most anterior neck muscles?

A

-sternohyoid

422
Q

What attaches the hyoid bone to the sternum?

A

-sternohyoid muscles

423
Q

Where are the sternothyroid muscles located?

A
  • posterior to the medial border of the sternohyoid muscle inferiorly, and the lateral border of it superiorly
  • shorter and deeper
424
Q

Where do the sternothyroid muscles extend from?

A

-sternum to thyroid cartilage

425
Q

Location of Omohyoid Muscles

A
  • anterolateral
  • extends from scapula to hyoid bone
  • posterior to sternocleidomastoid muscle
426
Q

Location of Longus Colli Muscles

A
  • posterior border of thyroid gland

- anterior to vertebrae

427
Q

Posterior Neck Muscles

A
  • trapezius
  • semispinalis capitus
  • splenius capitus
  • splenius cervices
428
Q

What are the posterior neck muscles responsible for?

A

-rotating, extending and flexing the neck

429
Q

Where is the trapezius muscle located?

A
  • superficial
  • extends from occipital bone to lower T spine
  • laterally to scapular spine
430
Q

What does the trapezius move?

A
  • moves scapula

- supports the arm

431
Q

What are the neck muscles from deepest to most superficial?

A

Deepest: semispinalis capitis
Middle: splenius capitis and splenius cervicis
Superficial: trapezium

432
Q

Vasculature of the Neck

A
  • bilateral common carotid arteries

- bilateral internal jugular veins

433
Q

Bilateral Common Carotid Arteries

A

-arise from the brachiocephalic artery (RT) and aortic arch (LT) and supply the brain, face and scalp

434
Q

Bilateral Internal Jugular Veins

A

-drain into the Rt and Lt brachiocephalic veins

435
Q

Where are the common carotid arteries located?

A
  • lateral to thyroid gland
  • medial to internal jugular vein
  • posterior ot strap muscles
436
Q

Where are the internal jugular veins located?

A
  • lateral to the common carotid arteries
  • medial to the SCM
  • posterior to strap muscles
437
Q

What are the most frequently imaged lymph nodes?

A

-internal jugular (deep chain)

438
Q

Where are lymph nodes located?

A

-follow the SCM, lateral to the internal jugular vein

439
Q

Salivary Glands

A
  • exocrine glands

- secrete saliva to help break down food

440
Q

3 Paired Salivary Glands

A

1) parotid
2) submandibular
3) sublingual

441
Q

Which paired salivary glands are easily seen on US?

A
  • parotid

- submandibular

442
Q

Which paired salivary gland is not seen easily on US due to position?

A

-sublingual

443
Q

Parotid Glands

A
  • paired
  • anterior to mastoid process
  • lateral to internal carotid artery
  • wraps around posterolateral aspect of mandibular ramus
444
Q

Submandibular Glands Location

A

-paired on each side of midline inferior to the mandibular body

445
Q

What is inferomedial to the submandibular glands?

A

-hyoid bone

446
Q

Where are sublingual glands located?

A
  • under the tongue

- medial to mandibular body

447
Q

Are the sublingual glands visualized on US?

A

-no, unless enlarged

448
Q

Bony Framework of Thorax

A
  • thoracic spine
  • ribs
  • sternum
449
Q

Cavities in Thorax

A
  • thoracic
  • mediastinal
  • pleural
  • pericardial
450
Q

Vital Organs Within the Thorax

A
  • heart

- lungs

451
Q

Vascular Structures of Thorax

A
  • AO
  • IVC
  • SVC
  • pulmonary vessels
452
Q

Boundaries of Thorax

A

Anterior: sternum, ribs, intercostal and chest wall muscles, skin

Posterior: spine, scapula, ribs, intercostal and back muscles, skin

Superior: thoracic inlet

Inferior: diaphragm, thoracic outlet

453
Q

True Ribs

A

-attach directly to the sternum

454
Q

False Ribs

A
  • first 3 attach to the cartilage of the rib above it

- aka vetebrochondral ribs

455
Q

Floating Ribs

A
  • last 2 false ribs

- cartilage ends in the abdominal wall muscles

456
Q

3 Parts of Sternum

A
  • manubrium: superior
  • body: middle
  • xiphoid process: inferior
457
Q

Function of Thoracic Bones

A
  • protection of organs

- suport of head and neck

458
Q

Thoracic Inlet

A
  • superior portion of thorax

- aperture ring of bone

459
Q

Which vital structures pass through the thoracic inlet?

A
  • trachea
  • esophagus
  • carotid arteries
  • jugular veins
  • nerves
  • lymphatics
460
Q

What is the inferior boundary of the thorax?

A

-convex upper surface of diaphragm

461
Q

What separates the thoracic and abdominal cavities?

A

-diaphragm

462
Q

Diaphragm

A
  • extends across the bottom of the rib cage

- muscle fibres converge into a central tendon

463
Q

Where do the 3 hiatus’ for the IVC, AO and esophagus pass through?

A

-diaphragm

464
Q

What are the anterior chest wall muscles from superficial to deep?

A
  • pectoralis major
  • pectoralis minor
  • serratus
  • intercostal muscles
465
Q

3 Layers of Intercostal Muscles

A
  • external intercostal
  • internal intercostal
  • innermost intercostal
466
Q

Posterior Chest Wall Muscles

A
  • rhomboid
  • latissmus dorsi
  • trapezius
  • shoulder girdle muscles
467
Q

Where is the pericardial cavity?

A

-within the mediastinal cavity

468
Q

Mediastinum

A

-area found in the middle of thorax between the 2 pleural cavities

469
Q

What is the mediastinum divided into?

A
  • superior

- inferior: anterior, middle, posterior

470
Q

What is inside of the superior mediastinum?

A
  • trachea
  • esophagus
  • thymus
  • nerves and nervous plexuses
  • SVC, brachiocephalic veins
  • aortic arch, CCA, Lt subclavian and brachiocephalic arteries
471
Q

What is in the middle mediastinum?

A
  • heart and pericardium
  • ascending AO
  • pulmonary trunk
  • SVC
472
Q

Anterior Mediastinum Contents

A
  • thymus remnants

- lymph nodes

473
Q

Posterior Mediastinum Contents

A
  • esophagus
  • thoracic AO and it’s branches
  • nerve plexuses from the sympathetic NS
474
Q

Is there a gap between the visceral and parietal pleura?

A

Yes, with serous fluid.

475
Q

Parietal Pleura

A

-serous membrane lining the chest cavity

476
Q

Visceral Pleura

A

-serous membrane covering the lung surface

477
Q

Where does the trachea bifurcate?

A
  • T5

- aka carina

478
Q

Where is the lung hilum in relation to the AO?

479
Q

Where is the bronchus in relation to the pulmonary arteries?

A

-posterior to pulmonary arteries

480
Q

Where are the pulmonary arteries in relation to the pulmonary veins?

A

-pulmonary arteries are superior to pulmonary veins

481
Q

What does the heart do?

A

-pump that circulates the blood between the lungs and body cells

482
Q

What does blood do?

A
  • delivers oxygen from lungs to body cells

- delivers carbon dioxide to lungs to be exhaled

483
Q

Where is the esophagus in relation to the trachea?

A

-esophagus is posterior to trachea

484
Q

Which vein is to the Rt of the ascending AO?

485
Q

Where does the main pulmonary trunk arise from?

A

-Rt ventricle

486
Q

What does the main pulmonary trunk bifurcate into?

A

-Lt and Rt pulmonary arteries

487
Q

What does the main pulmonary trunk carry?

A

-deoxygenated blood

488
Q

How many pulmonary veins drain the oxygenated blood from the lungs into the left atrium?

489
Q

Branches of Aortic Arch

A
  • brachiocephalic trunk
  • Lt common carotid artery
  • Lt subclavian artery

**alphabetical order from anterior to posterior

490
Q

2 Chamber View of Heart

A

-long axis view that demonstrates the Lt ventricle and Lt atrium

491
Q

4 Chamber View of Heart

A

-demonstrated 4 chambers of the heart

  • 2 ventricles
  • 2 atrium
  • bicupsid valve
  • tricupsid valve
492
Q

5 Chamber View of Heart

A

-demonstrates the 4 chambers of the heart with the aortic root/ascending aorta leaving the ventricle

  • 2 ventricles
  • 2 atrium
  • AO
493
Q

3 Vessel View of Heart

A

-demonstarted the great vessels leaving/entering the heart

  • SVC
  • AO
  • main pulmonary artery
  • ductus arteriosus (fetus)
494
Q

Short Axis (OWL view) of Heart

A

-demonstrated the wall of the Lt and Rt ventricles as well as the papillary muscles

Term 1 (17 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions