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Term 1 > A & P (Ch. 32-40) > Flashcards

A & P (Ch. 32-40) Flashcards

1
Q

What do the immune system and lymphatic system work together to do?

A

-protection from pathogens

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2
Q

What is the immune system made up of?

A
  • lymphatic system
  • specialized cells
  • free floating molecules
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3
Q

Antigens

A

-identifying molecules recognized by the immune system

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4
Q

Self Antigens

A

-on the surface of cells that are unique to an individual (ex. antigens on an individual’s RBC’s)

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5
Q

Nonself Antigens

A

-on the surface of foreign cells (ex. pathogens, organ transplants)

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6
Q

Self Tolerance (self antigens)

A

-immune system attacks abnormal foreign cells, but leaves the body’s own cells alone

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7
Q

Immunocompetence (nonself antigens)

A

-immune system activates an effective response to a nonself antigen

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8
Q

Categories of Immunity

A

1) innate (non specific) immunity
2) adaptive (specific) immunity

*work together

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9
Q

Innate (non specific) Immunity

A
  • always present
  • general defense against ‘non self’ antigens
  • quick, initial response
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10
Q

Adaptive (specific) Immunity

A
  • develops through exposure to nonself antigens
  • response in specific (unique to particular antigens)
  • slower, developed response (especially if it is the body’s first exposure to the antigen)
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11
Q

Innate (nonspecific) Immunity Cells

A
  • epithelial (skin, mucous)

- phagocytic cells: neutrophils, monocytes, macrophages, natural killer

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12
Q

Phagocytic Cells- Neutrophils

A

-most numerous

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13
Q

Phagocytic Cells- Monocytes

A

-large phagocytes (macrophages)

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14
Q

Phagocytic Cells- Macrophages

A
  • kupffer’s cells (liver)

- dust cells (lungs)

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15
Q

Phagocytic Cells- Natural Killer (NK Cells)

A

-apoptosis (cell suicide)

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16
Q

Adaptive (specific) Immunity

A

-lymphocytes (b cells, t cells)

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17
Q

Substances that Contribute to Immunity

A
  • cytokines
  • complement
  • antibodies
  • interferon
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18
Q

Cytokines

A

-chemicals released from cells to trigger/regulate immune response

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19
Q

Examples of Cytokines

A
  • interleukins (ILs)
  • leukotrines
  • interferons (IFNs)
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20
Q

Complement

A
  • group of 20 inactive enzymes (plasma proteins)
  • produce a domino effect (formation of a membrane attack complex)
  • end result is lysis of foreign cell
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21
Q

MAC

A

-membrane attack complex

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22
Q

Antibodies

A

-plasma protein made of B cells to destroy or inactivate antigens

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23
Q

Interferon

A
  • protein made by cells when they are invaded by a virus

- interferes with virus replication

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24
Q

Immune System 1st Line of Defense (innate/non specific)

A
  • skin
  • mucous
  • tears, salvia
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25
Q

Immune System 2nd Line of Defense (innate/non specific)

A
  • inflammation (heat, redness, pain, swelling, fever, etc.)

- phagocytes

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26
Q

Imune System 3rd Line of Defense (adaptive/specific)

A
  • phagocytes (APCs)
  • specific (customized) immune responses
  • natural killer cells
  • systemic response
  • has memory
  • B cells and T cells
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27
Q

What is a response to pathogens that causes tissue damage (heat, redness, pain, swelling, fever)?

A

-inflammatory response

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28
Q

What does inflammatory response trigger?

A
  • release of immune factors from immune system cells
  • attracts WBCs
  • increased blood flow
  • increased vascular permeability
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29
Q

What is this type of immunity?

“Protection against invaders due to the ability of the body to recognize, respond to, and remember specific harmful substances or bacteria.”

A

-adaptive/specific

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30
Q

Where do B cells and T cells originate from?

A

-hematopoietic cells in the red bone marrow

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31
Q

Once formed, where to B cells and T cells circulate to?

A
  • lymph nodes

- spleen

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32
Q

How do B cells and T cells become activated?

A

-exposure to antigens/chemicals

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33
Q

How do activated B cells form 2 cloned populations of cells?

A

-mitosis

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34
Q

Plasma Cells

A

-secrete antibodies into blood to form an ‘army’ of protection against an antigen (up to 2000 antibody molecules/sec)

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35
Q

Memory Cells

A

-stored in lymph nodes as emergency cells

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36
Q

If exposure to the same antigen occurs, what do memory cells do?

A
  • become plasma cells

- secrete antibodies

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37
Q

B cells

A

-do NOT directs attack antigens

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38
Q

B cells make antibodies that either…

A
  • attack antigen

- direct other cells to attack antigens

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39
Q

What are B cells referred to as?

A
  • antibody (mediated) immunity

- humoral immunity

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40
Q

Antibodies

A
  • types of immunoglobulins

- protein compounds with specific combining sites

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41
Q

Types of Immunoglobins

A
  • G, A, M, E, D
  • lgG
  • lgM
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42
Q

What forms a antigen-antibody complex?

A

-combining sites attach antibodies to specific antigens

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43
Q

Humoral/Antibody Mediated Immunity

A

-inactivation of antigens by B cells

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44
Q

lgG

A

-most abundant circulating lg (makes up 75% of all antibodies in the blood)

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45
Q

lgM

A

-immature B cells make it and insert in their plasma membrane (most predominant)

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46
Q

Antigen-Antibody Complexes May…

A
  • neutralize toxins
  • clump or agglutinate enemy cells
  • promote phagocytosis
  • complement fixation
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47
Q

Complement Fixation

A
  • mechanism of action for antibodies
  • cause cell lysis by permitting entry of sodium and water through holes (MACs) created in plasma membrane by complement molecules
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48
Q

Cytolysis

A

-cells burst due to an increase in internal osmotic pressure

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49
Q

Do T cells make antibodies?

A

No.

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50
Q

Which cells to T cells react to?

A

-cells that are already infected or have engulfed antigen

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51
Q

Which cells can only react to protein fragments on the surface of APC’s or infected cells?

A

-T cells

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52
Q

Can antibodies made by B plasma cells react to soluble antigens in blood plasma?

A

Yes.

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53
Q

Adaptive/Specific Immunity can also be referred to as…

A
  • cell mediated immunity

- cellular immunity

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54
Q

How do T cells carry out cell to cell direct contact?

A
  • kill APCs/infected cells by poison

- release chemicals that attract/activate macrophages to destroy APCs/infected cells by phagocytosis

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55
Q

T Cell Development

A
  • similar to B
  • T cell is activated by antigen
  • forms 2 types of clones of original T cell
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56
Q

2 Types of Cloned Populations of the Original T Cell

A

1) effector

2) memory

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57
Q

Memory T Cells

A
  • in red bone marrow until needed

- produce active T cells

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58
Q

Effector T Cells

A

-release cytokines and use contact to kill APCs/infected cells

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59
Q

Interleukins (ILs)

A

-cytokines involved in immunity

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60
Q

Lymphotoxins

A

-posions

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61
Q

Cytotoxic T Cells

A

-aka killer T cells

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62
Q

What do cytotoxic T cells release?

A

-lymphotoxins

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63
Q

What do helper T cells and suppressor T cells regulate?

A

-adaptive immunity

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64
Q

Helper T Cells

A
  • secrete cytokines: stimulate B cells and cytotoxic T cells, phagocytes and leukocytes
  • activate TH form clones TH cells and memory TH cells
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65
Q

Suppressor T Cells

A
  • aka regulator cells (T-regs)
  • suppress B cells into plasma cells
  • regulate other T cells (reduce T cell reactions with self antigens)
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66
Q

Humoral Immunity

A
  • action of antibodies

- activated by B cells (plasma and memory)

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67
Q

Cell Mediated Immunity

A
  • action of cells

- activated T cells kill APCs directly

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68
Q

How do activated T cells kill APCs?

A
  • releasing toxins

- releasing cytokines to attract and activate macrophages

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69
Q

Adaptive/specific immunity can be either…

A
  • natural

- artificial/acquired

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70
Q

Natural Immunity

A
  • exposure to pathogen is not deliberate

- can be active or passive

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71
Q

Artificial Immunity

A
  • exposure to pathogen is deliberate

- can be active or passive

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72
Q

Natural Immunity (inherited or inborn immunity)

A
  • inherited immunity to certain diseases at birth
  • exposure to pathogen is not deliberate
  • can be passive or active
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73
Q

Active (natural immunity)

A

-promotes immunity (production of antibodies)

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74
Q

Passive (natural immunity)

A

-mother passes immunity (antibodies) to fetus through placenta or breast milk

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75
Q

Immunization

A
  • exposure to pathogen is deliberate

- artificial/acquired

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76
Q

Active (artificial/acquired immunity)

A
  • vaccination stimulates antibody production leading to immunity
  • longer lasting
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77
Q

Passive (artificial/acquired immunity)

A
  • immune material (antibodies) developed in another individual is given to a non immune person via an injection
  • shorter
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78
Q

Respiratory Organs

A
  • nose
  • pharynx
  • larynx
  • trachea
  • bronchi
  • lungs
  • alveoli
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79
Q

Respiratory Functions

A
  • air distribution
  • gas exchange
  • homeostasis
  • filters, warms and humidifies air for breathing
  • speech and sound
  • olfaction
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80
Q

Upper Respiratory Tract

A

-outside of thorax

  • nose
  • pharynx
  • larynx
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81
Q

What kind of cold would an upper respiratory tract infection cause?

A

-head cold

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82
Q

What kind of cold would a lower respiratory tract infection cause?

A

-chest cold

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83
Q

Lower Respiratory Tract

A

-within thorax

  • trachea
  • bronchial tree
  • lungs
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84
Q

What is the frame of the nose?

A

-bone and cartilage covered by skin with sebaceous glands

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85
Q

What forms the frontal root of the nose?

A

-nasal bones (2) meet and are surrounded by the frontal bone

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86
Q

What is the nose surrounded by?

A

-maxilla

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87
Q

What is the the internal structure of the nose referred to as?

A

-nasal cavity

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88
Q

What separates the nasal cavity?

A

-palantine bones

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89
Q

Where is the nasal cavity?

A

-lies over roof of mouth

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90
Q

What does the cribiform plate separate?

A

-roof of nose from cranial cavity

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91
Q

Septum

A

-separates nassal cavity into Lt and Rt

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92
Q

Which part of the nose gets broken?

A

-nasal bone

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93
Q

Cleft Palate

A
  • palantine bones don’t close/join
  • nose and mouth are only partially separated
  • difficulty swallowing
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94
Q

How is each nasal cavity divided?

A
  • superior
  • middle
  • inferior meatus
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95
Q

Nostrils (external nares)

A
  • external openings into nasal cavities

- entrance for air

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96
Q

Paranasal Sinuses

A

-frontal, maxillae, sphenoidal, ethmoidal and lacrimal sacs that drain into nose

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97
Q

Conchae

A

-fold like structures that increase surface area in nasal cavity

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98
Q

Respiratory Muscosa

A
  • membrane that lines air distribution tubes
  • covered with ‘mucus blanket’
  • rich blood supply
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99
Q

How much muscus is produced each day?

A

125ml

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100
Q

What does air purification/filtration do?

A

-traps inspired irritants

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101
Q

Where is cilia found?

A

-on mucosal cells

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102
Q

What does cilia do?

A

-beat in one direction to propel mucous and trapped irritants toward the pharynx for expulsion

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103
Q

What can paralyses cilia?

A

-cigarette smoke

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104
Q

How many pair of paranasal sinuses are there?

A

-4 pairs

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105
Q

Where do paranasal sinuses open to?

A

-nasal cavity

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106
Q

what are paranasal sinuses lined with?

A

-respirator mucosa

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107
Q

Function of the Nose

A
  • passageway for air to and from lungs
  • filters, warms and mostens inhaled air as it flows over conchae
  • aids speech
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108
Q

Where are olfactory receptors found?

A

-nasal mucosa

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109
Q

How long is the pharynx?

A

12.5 cm

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110
Q

Where is the pharynx located?

A

-base of skull

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111
Q

What is the pharynx made of?

A

-muscle

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112
Q

What are the 3 segments of the pharynx?

A
  • nasopharynx
  • oropharynx
  • laryngopharynx
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113
Q

What is the common name of the pharynx?

A

-throat

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114
Q

What are pharyngeal tonsils referred to when they become enlarged?

A

-adenoids

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115
Q

Where are pharyngeal tonsils?

A

-nasopharynx

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116
Q

Where are palantine tonsils and lingual tonsils located?

A

-oropharynx

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117
Q

What do eustachian/auditory tubes connect?

A

-middle ears with nasopharynx (allowing equalization of air pressure between the middle and exterior ear)

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118
Q

What is lining of tubes continuous with?

A
  • nasopharynx and middle ear

- this means a sinus infection can develop from an ear infection

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119
Q

What 2 functions does the pharynx have?

A
  • digestive (passageway for food and liquids)

- respiratory (passageway for air)

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120
Q

Where is the larynx located?

A

-below the pharynx

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121
Q

What is the framework of the larynx?

A

-several pieces of cartilage

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122
Q

What is the lining of the larynx?

A

-ciliated mucous lining

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123
Q

Thyroid Cartilage

A
  • largest

- adams apple

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124
Q

What does the epiglottis cover?

A

-opening of larynx

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125
Q

What does the epiglottis prevent?

A

-food from entering trachea

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126
Q

Vocal Cords

A

-2 fibrous bands that stretch across the interior of the larynx

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127
Q

Functions fo Larynx

A
  • air distribution (passageway for air to move to and from lungs)
  • voice production
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128
Q

How is a voice produced?

A

-muscles attached to larynx cartilage pull on the vocal cords

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129
Q

What sound happens when cords are tense?

A

-high pitched

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130
Q

What sound happens when cords are relaxed?

A

-high pitched

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131
Q

What is the trachea known as?

A

-windpipe

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132
Q

How long is the trachea?

A

11cm

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133
Q

Where does the trachea run from?

A

-larynx to primary bronchi

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134
Q

What holds the trachea open?

A

-C shaped rings of cartilage

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135
Q

What is the lining of the trachea?

A
  • mucous

- ciliated epithelium

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136
Q

What is the main function of the trachea?

A

-passageway for air to move to and from lungs

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137
Q

What traps airborne irritants in the trachea?

A

-ciliated mucous lining

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138
Q

What does complete occlusion of the airway cause?

A

-death in minutes

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139
Q

Heimlich Maneuver

A

-lifesaving technique used in cases of tracheal obstruction

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140
Q

How many deaths happen per year in the US due to tracheal obstruction?

A

-over 4000

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141
Q

What does the trachea branch into?

A

-Lt and Rt bronchi (primary bronchi)

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142
Q

What do the bronchi lead into?

A

-lungs

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143
Q

What do the primary bronchi branch into in the lungs?

A
  • smaller secondary bronchi which eventually lead to bronchioles
  • 23 LEVELS OF BRANCHING***
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144
Q

What are the walls of bronchioles made of?

A
  • smooth muscle

- no rings of cartilage

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145
Q

What do bronchioles divide into?

A

-microscopic tubes called alveolar ducts (look like a stem of grapes)

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146
Q

What do alveolar ducts end in?

A

-clusters of microscopic alveolar sacs

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147
Q

What are the walls of alveolar sacs made of?

A

-alveoli

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148
Q

How many alveoli are in each lung?

A

-millions

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149
Q

What are bronchi and bronchioles a passageway for?

A

-air to move to and from alveoli

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150
Q

Alveoli

A

-site of exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide between blood in lung capillaries and air in alveoli

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151
Q

What are the walls of alveoli?

A
  • thin

- single layer of cells

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152
Q

what are alveoli in direct contact with?

A

-blood capillary

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153
Q

What is the thin membrane that lies between the blood in capillaries and the air in each alveolus?

A

-alveoli

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154
Q

What is alveoli covered with?

A

-surfacatant (reduces tension to prevent collapse of alveoli as air moves in and out)

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155
Q

Where are the lungs located?

A

-chest cavity (except mediastinum) from diaphragm to above the clavicles

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156
Q

How many lobes does the Rt lung have?

A

3

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157
Q

How many lobes does the Lt lobe have?

A

2

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158
Q

Hilum of Lungs

A

-where primary bronchi and pulmonary blood vessels enter

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159
Q

Base of Lungs

A
  • broad lower part of each lung

- rests on diaphragm

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160
Q

Apex of Lungs

A
  • narrow upper part

- under collarbone

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161
Q

Costal Surface of Lungs

A

-lies against ribs

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162
Q

Pleura

A

-moist, smooth, slippery membrane that lines chest cavity and covers outer surface of lungs

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163
Q

Parietal Pleura

A

-lines walls of thoracic cavity

164
Q

Visceral Pleura

A

-covers lungs

165
Q

Intrapleural Space

A

-lies between parietal and visceral

166
Q

Pleurisy

A

-inflammation of the pleura

167
Q

Pneumothorax

A

-lung collapse

168
Q

What causes pneumothorax (lung collapse)?

A

-presence of air in the intrapleural space on one side of the chest will increase the pressure on that side of the lung

169
Q

Function of Lungs

A

-pulmonary ventilation (breathing)

170
Q

Function of Pleura

A

-reduced friction between the lungs and chest wall during breathing

171
Q

External Respiration

A
  • pulmonary ventilation

- pulmonary gas exchange

172
Q

Pulmonary Ventilation

A

-air moving in and out of the lungs (breathing)

173
Q

Pulmonary Gas Exchange

A

-exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide between the air in the lungs and the blood

174
Q

Internal Respiration

A

-exchange of gases between the blood and the cells of the body/systemic tissue

175
Q

Cellular Respiration

A

-use of oxygen by cells in the process of metabolism

176
Q

Where does cellular respiration occur?

A

-mitochondria

177
Q

Pulmonary Ventilation

A

-breathing

178
Q

What are the 2 phases of air moving in and out of the lungs?

A
  • inspiration

- expiration

179
Q

Inspiration

A

-movement of air into lungs

180
Q

Expiration

A

-movement of air out of lungs

181
Q

What causes changes in air pressure within the thoracic cavity and the lungs?

A

-change in the size and shape of thorax (ex. diaphragm)

182
Q

What do air pressure changes cause?

A

-air to move in and out of lungs

183
Q

When does inspiration happen?

A

-when the pressure within the alveoli of the lungs is lower than atmospheric pressure

184
Q

When does expiration happen?

A

-when pressure in the alveoli of the lungs is higher than atmospheric pressure

185
Q

Respiration Muscles

A
  • diaphragm
  • internal intercostals
  • external intercostals
186
Q

Tidal Volume (TV)

A

-amount of air exhaled after normal inspiration

187
Q

Expiratory Reserve Volume (ERV)

A

-amount of air that can be forcibly exhaled after a normal expiration

188
Q

Inspiratory Reserve Volume (IRV)

A

-amount go air that can be forcibly inhaled after normal inspiration

189
Q

Residual Volume (RV)

A

-air left in lungs after the most forceful expiration

190
Q

Vital Capacity (VC) =

A

IRV + TV + ERV

-largest amount of air that can be breathed out in one respiration/pulmonary ventilation

191
Q

What are pulmonary volumes and capacities measured with?

A

-a spirometer

192
Q

What does regulation of ventilation permit?

A

-the body to adjust to varying demands for oxygen supply and carbon dioxide removal

193
Q

What stimulates muscles of respiratory system with nervous impulses?

A

-respiratory control centres

194
Q

Where are respiratory control centres located?

A

-medulla and pons

195
Q

What are the most important respiratory control centres and where are they located?

A
  • inspiratory centre
  • expiratory centre
  • in medulla
196
Q

normal rate/resting =

A

12 to 18/min

197
Q

What are the medulla’s respiratory control centre influences by?

A
  • cerebral cortex

- voluntary, but limited

198
Q

Ventilation Receptors

A
  • chemoreceptors (involuntary)

- pulmonary stretch receptors

199
Q

Where are ventilation chemoreceptors located and what do they respond to?

A
  • in carotid and aortic bodies

- respond to changes in oxygen, carbon dioxide and pH blood levels

200
Q

Where are pulmonary stretch receptors located?

A

-throughout the pulmonary airways

201
Q

what do pulmonary stretch receptors prevent?

A

-lungs from overinflating

202
Q

Eupnea

A

-normal breathing

203
Q

Hyperventilation

A

-rapid and deep respirations

204
Q

Hypoventilation

A

-slow and shallow respiration

205
Q

Dyspnea

A

-difficult respiration

206
Q

Apnea

A

-stopped respirations

207
Q

Respiratory Arrest

A

-failure to resume breathing after a period of apnea

208
Q

Pulmonary Gas Exchange

A
  • exchange of gases in the lungs

- takes place between the alveolar air and blood flowing throat lung capillaries

209
Q

What affects the amount of oxygen that diffuses into the blood?

A

1) oxygen pressure gradient between alveolar air and blood
2) total functional surface area of the respiratory membrane
3) respiratory minute volume (ml of air moved/min)
4) alveolar ventilation (volume of blood inspired air that reaches the alveoli) and alveolar function

210
Q

How does pulmonary gas exchange occur?

A

-passive diffusion due to the pressure gradient of oxygen and carbon dioxide between blood and lung capillaries surrounding alveoli

211
Q

Which was does oxygen move alone a pressure gradient?

A

-area of high concentration to area of low concentration

212
Q

Which way does carbon dioxide move along a pressure gradient?

A

-in the opposite direction of the pressure gradient

213
Q

When oxygen leaves alveoli, where does it go to?

A

-lung capillaries

214
Q

Oxyhemoglobin

A

-hemoglobin combined with oxygen

215
Q

What does carbaminohemoglobin break down into?

A

-carbon dioxide and hemoglobin

216
Q

What does the exchange of gases in tissue occur from?

A

-pressure gradient between the tissue capillaries and the tissue cells

217
Q

Internal Respiration

A

-exchange of gases between blood in tissue capillaries and body cells

218
Q

What does oxyhemoglobin break down into?

A
  • oxygen

- hemoglobin

219
Q

What state are oxygen and carbon dioxide transported to blood in?

A

-dissolved or combined with other chemicals

220
Q

Why do dissolved oxygen and carbon dioxide rapidly form a chemical union with some other molecule (ex. hemoglobin)?

A

-because fluids (ex. blood) can only hold small amounts of gas in solution

221
Q

What happens when oxygen and carbon dioxide are bound to another molecule?

A

-concentration decreases and more gas can diffuse into the plasma allowing concentration decreases and more gas can diffuse into the plasma allowing comparatively lg volumes of these gases to be transported

222
Q

What is the majority of oxygen transported by blood in the form of?

A
  • oxyhemoglobin

- only 1.5% is dissolved as oxygen

223
Q

Hemoglobin Molecules

A

-lg proteins containing 4 iron containing heme components, each capable of combining with an oxygen molecule

224
Q

2 Forms of Oxygen in the Blood

A

1) dissolved oxygen

2) oxyhemoglobin (majority)

225
Q

Deoxygenated blood is ___% saturated with oxygen and is found in _______ veins and _______ arteries?

A
  • 75%
  • systemic
  • pulmonary
226
Q

What is carbon dioxide a by product of?

A

-cellular metabolism

227
Q

What does carbon dioxide contribute to?

A

-pH

228
Q

Why and how is excess carbon dioxide released?

A
  • excess can be toxic

- enters alveoli and is expelled during expiration

229
Q

In order to expel carbon dioxide via expiration, it must be transported in the blood to the lungs as either…

A
  • dissolved carbon dioxide
  • carbaminohemoglobin
  • bicarbonate ions
230
Q

Dissolved Carbon Dioxide

A

-10% of total carbon dioxide transported in blood

231
Q

Carbaminohemoglobin

A

carbon dioxide + hemoglobin + plasma proteins

  • 20% of total carbon dioxide transported in blood
  • formation is accelerated by an increase in PCO2 and slowed down by a decrease in PCO2
232
Q

Bicarbonate Ions

A

-70% of total carbon dioxide transported in blood

233
Q

Structure of Digestive System

A
  • irregular tube
  • open at both ends
  • aka alimentary canal or GI tract
234
Q

Functions of Digestive System

A
  • digestion
  • absorption
  • metabolism
235
Q

What are the walls of GI Tract from deep to superficial?

A
  • mucosa
  • submucosa
  • muscularis
  • serosa
236
Q

Mucosa Wall of GI Tract

A
  • mucus lined
  • secretion of digestive enzymes and hormones
  • absorption of end products of digestion
  • protection against pathogens
237
Q

Submucosa Wall of GI Tract

A
  • CT
  • glands, blood vessels, lymphatic vessels and parasympathetic nerves
  • elastic fibres, especially in stomach (allow tubes to stretch and recoil)
238
Q

Muscular Wall of GI Tract

A
  • mixes/churns food
  • peristalsis

2 or 3 Layers:

  • inner circular (lots of sphincters)
  • outer longitudinal
  • oblique
239
Q

Serosa Wall of Digestive Tract

A
  • protective, outer layer

- visceral and parietal peritoneum in abd cavity

240
Q

Mouth (oral/buccal cavity)

A
  • where digestion begins
  • hollow chamber
  • 3 parts: roof, floor, walls
241
Q

Roof of Mouth

A

Hard Palate

  • 2 maxillary bones
  • 2 palatine bones

Soft Palate

  • arch shapes muscle
  • separates mouth from nasopharynx

Uvula
-projection of soft palate

242
Q

What part of the roof of the mouth prevents food and liquids from entering the nasal cavity?

A

-uvula and soft palate

243
Q

Floor of the Mouth

A
  • tongue (skeletal muscle)

- tip, body and root

244
Q

What anchors the tongue to the floor of the mouth?

A

-frenulum

245
Q

Papilla of Tongue

A
  • small nipple like projections on tongue

- where taste buds are

246
Q

Tongue Tied (ankyloglossia)

A
  • frenulum is short and thick
  • can be mild (bands)
  • can be complete (entire tongue is attached to floor of mouth)
  • affects eating, swallowing, oral hygiene and speech
  • may recede on it’s own or may need surgery
247
Q

What forms the lateral walls of the mouth?

A
  • cheeks (buccinator muscle)

- contains mucous secreting glands

248
Q

What forms the anterior wall of the mouth?

A
  • lips

- skin on outside and mucous membrane on inside (junction is sensitive)

249
Q

Oral Fissure

A

-line of contact between closed lips

250
Q

Function of Salivary Glands

A

-secrete 1 L of saliva (salivary amylase and mucous) everyday

251
Q

3 Salivary Glands

A

1) parotid
2) submandibular
3) sublingual

252
Q

Parotid Glands

A
  • largest
  • bottom of ear, at jaw angle
  • ducts secrete into mouth cavity
  • produce watery saliva (containing enzymes)
253
Q

Submandibular Glands

A
  • below mandible
  • ducts secrete on either side of lingual frenulum
  • contain enzyme and mucous producing substances
254
Q

Sublingual Glands

A
  • below tongue
  • anterior to submandibular glands
  • ducts secrete into floor of mouth
  • produce a mucous type of saliva
255
Q

Section of a Tooth

A
  • crown
  • neck
  • root
256
Q

Crown of Tooth

A
  • visible part

- covered with enamel

257
Q

Enamel

A

hardest tissue in body

-perfect for withstanding the abrasion of chewing food

258
Q

What does the pulp cavity in the centre of the tooth contain?

A
  • CT
  • blood
  • lymphatic tissue
  • sensory nerves
259
Q

Neck of Tooth

A
  • joins crown to root

- surrounded by pink/gingival tissue (aka gums)

260
Q

Root of Tooth

A
  • fits in socket/jaw bone

- socket lined with periodontal membrane (anchors tooth to bone)

261
Q

How many deciduous teeth (baby teeth) are there?

A

20

262
Q

When do we get our first deciduous (baby) teeth?

A
  • 6 months

- 8 incisors first

263
Q

When do we get our complete set of deciduous (baby) teeth?

A
  • 2 years

- no premolars (2 pairs of molars per jaw)

264
Q

When do we lose our deciduous (baby) teeth?

A

6 to 13 years old

265
Q

How many permanent teeth are there?

A

32

266
Q

At what age do we get our permanent teeth?

A

6 years

267
Q

When do we get our complete set of 32 permanent teeth?

A

-between 17 and 24 years age

268
Q

Pharynx

A

-tube like structure
made of muscle
-lined with mucous membrane
-3 divisions

269
Q

Function of Pharynx

A
  • digestion

- respiration

270
Q

What passes through the pharynx?

A
  • air to lungs

- food to stomach

271
Q

Esophagus

A
  • muscular
  • mucous lined
  • connects pharynx to stomach
  • sphincters at both ends
  • mucous secretions help pass food
  • collapses when not moving food
272
Q

Stomach

A
  • in upper abd cavity (under diaphragm and liver)

- temporary storage for chewed food

273
Q

Where does chemical digestion of protein begin?

A

-stomach

274
Q

How big is the stomach?

A
  • size of a lg sausage when empty
  • expands after a lg meal
  • 1 to 1.5 L capacity
275
Q

Divisons of the Stomach

A
  • cardia
  • fundus
  • body
  • pylorus
276
Q

Cardia (stomach)

A

-collar like region at junction with esophagus

277
Q

Fundus (stomach)

A

-enlarged portion to the Lt and above the opening of the esophagus into the stomach

278
Q

Body (stomach)

A

-central portion

279
Q

Pylorus (stomach)

A

-lower part

280
Q

Cardiac Sphincter (LES- lower esophageal sphincter)

A
  • ring of muscle at end of esophagus

- prevents stomach contents from refluxing back into esophagus

281
Q

Hiatal Hernia

A
  • due to weakening of esophageal hiatus
  • end of esophagus bulges
  • stomach bugles upward
  • leads to GERD
282
Q

Pyloric Sphincter

A

-controls emptying of stomach into duodenum

283
Q

4 Parts of Stomach Wall

A

1) gastric mucosa
2) gastric submucosa
3) gastric muscularis
4) gastric serosa

284
Q

Gastric Mucosa (stomach wall)

A
  • epithelial lines
  • rugae
  • gastric glands below gastric pits (secrete gastric juice)
285
Q

What is gastric juice made of?

A
  • chief cells: secrete enzymes
  • parietal cells: secrete HCl, intrinsic factor, B12
  • endocrine cells: secrete hormones (gastrin and ghrelin)
286
Q

Gastrin Muscularis (stomach wall)

A
  • thick muscle layer

- 3 different directions (oblique, circular, longitudinal) that allow the stomach to churn

287
Q

Function of Stomach

A
  • holds food until is can be moves along GI tract
  • secrets gastric juice (aids in digestion)
  • breaks food into small particles and mixes wit gastric juice
  • secretes intrinsic factor
  • absorption
  • produces gastrin and ghrelin
  • protects body from swallowed bacteria
288
Q

What is the man digestive organ?

A

-sm intestine

289
Q

Where does the sm intestine run from, and how big is it?

A
  • pyloric sphincter to ileocecal valve
  • 6 to 8 m lone
  • 2.5 cm wide
290
Q

What are the 3 divisions of the sm intestine?

A
  • duodenum
  • jejunum
  • ileum
291
Q

Peristalsis

A

-smooth muscle fibres in wall of sm intestine

292
Q

Lining of Sm Intestine

A
  • mucus membrane

- secretion and nutrient absorption

293
Q

Plicae

A
  • circular folds in sm intestine

- covered with villi

294
Q

Villi

A
  • blood capillaries and lymph lacteals for nutrient absorption
  • covered by microvilli
295
Q

What cells are on microvilli? (lining of sm intestine)

A
  • mucous secreting cells
  • enteroendocrine cells
  • tuft cells
296
Q

What increases the surface area of the sm intestine hundreds of times?

A
  • villi

- microvilli

297
Q

Where are intestinal crypts located?

A

-valley’s between villi

298
Q

What is the last part of the GI tract?

A

-lg intestine

299
Q

How big is the lg intestine?

A
  • 1.5 to 1.8 m long

- 6 cm wide

300
Q

Lg Intestine

A
  • smooth muscle
  • mucous membrane: absorption of water, salts and vitamins
  • no villi: less surface area (less absorption than sm intestine)
301
Q

Divisons of Lg Intestine

A
  • cecum
  • colon
  • rectum
  • anus
302
Q

Cecum

A
  • pouch like
  • 1st section of lg intestine
  • at iliocecal valve
303
Q

Colon

A
  • ascending
  • transverse
  • descending
  • sigmoid
304
Q

Rectum

A
  • last 17 to 20 cm

- holding tank before exit

305
Q

Anus

A
  • opening to exterior
  • inner anal sphincter (involuntary)
  • outer anal sphincter (voluntary)
306
Q

Vermiform

A

-worm shaped

307
Q

Vermiform Appendix

A
  • blind tube off cecum
  • lymphatic tissue
  • reservoir/bredding ground for beneficial gut bacteria
308
Q

Peritoneum

A
  • lg
  • sseroud membrane
  • lines abd cavity
  • covers abd organs
309
Q

Mesentery

A
  • fan like extensions of parietal peritoneum
  • attaches most of sm intestines to lumbar area of posterior abd wall
  • keeps sm intestine in place
  • fans out from 15/20 cm from to 6 m
310
Q

Greater Omentum

A
  • apron
  • pouch like extensions of visceral peritoneum (greater curvature to 1st part of duodenum)
  • hangs down from lower edge of stomach and transverse colon over intestines
311
Q

Lesser Omentum

A

-from liver to lesser curvature of stomach/1st part of duodenum

312
Q

What is the largest gland in the body?

A

-liver

313
Q

What separates Lt and Rt lobes of the liver?

A

-falciform ligament

314
Q

What are the anatomical units of the liver?

A
  • hepatic lobules

- each has a hepatic vein through it

315
Q

Hepatocytes

A
  • liver cells

- around each central vein (aka interloper vein)

316
Q

Portal Triad

A

Consists of:

  • interlobular artery
  • interlobular portal vein
  • interlobular bile duct

-on the outside corner of each lobule

317
Q

What forms the Rt and Lt hepatic ducts?

A

-small bile ducts

318
Q

What do the Rt and Lt hepatic ducts form?

A

-1 hepatic duct

319
Q

What forms the CBD, and where does it open into?

A
  • hepatic duct and cystic duct

- into duodenum

320
Q

Liver Functions

A
  • detoxification
  • bile secretion
  • metabolism (proteins, fats, carbohydrates)
  • storage (iron, vitamins)
  • production (plasma proteins)
321
Q

What are bile salts formed from?

A

-cholesterol in liver

322
Q

How much bile does the lover secrete per day?

A

1 pint

323
Q

What is the GB shape and size?

A
  • pear shaped
  • 7 to 10 cm long
  • 3 cm wide
324
Q

What are the layers of the GB wall?

A
  • serous
  • muscular
  • mucous
325
Q

What allows the Gb to expand?

A
  • rugae in mucous lining

- allows GB to store 30 to 50 ml of bile

326
Q

Function of GB

A
  • stores bile
  • concentrates bile (5 to 10x)
  • moves concentrated bile to duodenum
327
Q

What happens in bile is too concentrated?

A

-gallstones

328
Q

When does jaundice occur? (in regards to the GB)

A
  • when bile flow to duodenum is blocked
  • bile is absorbed into blood instead of being eliminated via feces
  • excess bile pigments get deposited in body tissues
329
Q

Where does the main pancreatic duct empty into?

A

-duodenum

330
Q

Where is the pancreas located?

A
  • being stomach
  • from duodenum to spleen
  • in the C of duodenum
331
Q

How long is the pancreas?

A

12 to 15 cm long

332
Q

Exocrine Portion of Pancreas

A
  • majority
  • compound acing arrangement (cluster of cells)
  • tiny ducts unite to form main pancreatic duct (empties into duodenum)
333
Q

Endocrine Portion of Pancreas

A
  • embedded between exocrine
  • called pancreatic islets
  • 2% of pancreatic mass
  • made of alpha and beta cells
  • pass secretions to capillaries
334
Q

Functions of Pancreas

A
  • acinar units secrete digestive enzymes: lipase, protase, amylase
  • beta cells secrete insuin
  • alpha cells secrete glucagon
335
Q

Primary Function of Digestive System

A

-bring nutrients to body

336
Q

Ingestion

A

-food is taken into body through the mouth

337
Q

Digestion

A

-complex nutrients are broken down into simple nutrients

338
Q

Motility of the GI Wall

A

-mechanical breakdown ad movement of food through GI tract

339
Q

Secretion

A

-digestive enzymes to chemical digestion

340
Q

Absorption

A

-movement of nutrients from Gi mucosa to internal environment

341
Q

Elimination

A

-excretion of unabsorbed material

342
Q

Regulation

A

-coordination of all digestive system functions

343
Q

Mechanical Digestion

A

-physically breaks chunks of food into smaller pieces

344
Q

Chemical Digestion

A

-breaks molecules apart and chemically changes the food

345
Q

What does mechanical digestion involve?

A
  • mastication (chewing)
  • deglutition (swallowing)
  • peristalsis and segmentation
  • regulation of motility
  • intestinal motility
346
Q

Mastication (chewing)

A

-reduces size of food particles and mixed food with saliva to prepare for deglutition

347
Q

Deglutition (swallowing)

A

-complex process involving several stages: oral, pharyngeal, esophageal

348
Q

Oral Stage of Deglutition

A
  • mouth to oropharynx
  • voluntary
  • food bolus is formed, pushed against palate by tongue, then moved back into the oropharynx
349
Q

Pharyngeal Stage of Deglutition

A
  • oropharynx to esophagus
  • involuntary
  • requires blockage of mouth, nasopharynx and larynx
  • accomplished by contractions and gravity
350
Q

Esophageal Stage of Deglutition

A
  • esophagus ot stomach
  • involuntary
  • accomplished by contractions and gravity
351
Q

What are the 2 main types of motility produced by smooth muscle of the GI tract?

A
  • peristalsis

- segmentation

352
Q

Gastric Peristalsis

A
  • wave like ripple of muscle layer or a hollow organ
  • moves matter forward in GI tract
  • triggered by presence of food
353
Q

Gastric Segmentation

A
  • forward and backward mixing movement within a single segment of the GI tract
  • mixes food with digestive juices and brings in contact with intestinal mucosa where absorption takes place
354
Q

How is chyme formed?

A
  • food in stomach is churned and mixed (via peristaltic contractions called propulsion and retropropulsion) with gastric juices
  • exits stomach every 20 sec
355
Q

How long does the stomach take to empty after eating a meal, and what is it controlled by?

A
  • 2 to 6 hours

- hormonal or nervous mechanisms

356
Q

Hormonal Mechanisms of Gastric Motility

A

-presence of fat in the duodenum stimulates a hormone that slows down the passage of chyme into the duodenum

357
Q

Nervous Mechanisms of Gastric Motility

A
  • presence of acid and distention picked up by receptors in duodenal mucosa
  • impulses travel through vagus nerve
  • inhibits gastric peristalsis
358
Q

What does intestinal motility include?

A
  • peristalsis

- segmentation

359
Q

Intestinal Segmentation

A
  • occurs in duodenum and 1st part of jejunum

- mixes chyme with digestive juices from pancreas, liver and intestinal mucose

360
Q

Intestinal Peristalsis

A

-moves chyme through the rest of the sm and lg intestine

361
Q

How many hours does it take for chyme to travel through the sm intestine?

A

5 hrs

362
Q

What is intestinal peristalsis regulated by?

A
  • stretch reflexes

- CCK (cholecystokinin)

363
Q

Digestion

A

-all changes in chemical composition of food as it travels through the digestive tract

364
Q

Hydrolysis

A
  • chemical changes in digestion

- digestive enzymes are involved

365
Q

Where do digestive enzymes function?

A
  • lumen of digestive tract

- extracellular enzymes

366
Q

Hydrolases

A

-digestive enzymes breaking down food molecules using water

367
Q

Digestive Enzymes

A
  • lock and key action
  • require specific pH and temp
  • continually synthesize since they are continually destroyed/eliminated
368
Q

Do digestive enzyme actions reverse?

A

No.

369
Q

Are digestive enzymes synthesized?

A
  • most are

- secreted as inactive proenzymes

370
Q

How do polysaccharides form disaccharides?

A

-hydrolysed by amylases

371
Q

Where does the final step of carbohydrate digestion happen?

A
  • sm intestine

- disaccharide to monosaccharide

372
Q

Maltase

A

maltose = glucose + glucose

373
Q

Sucrase

A

sucrose = glucose + fructose

374
Q

Lactase

A

lactose = glucose + galactose

375
Q

fat =

A

glycerol + fatty acids

376
Q

What must happen to fats before they can be digested?

A

-emulsified by bile

377
Q

Bile

A
  • contains no enzymes

- emulsifies fats

378
Q

Pancreatic Lipase

A

-changes emulsified fats to fatty acids and glycerol in sm intestine

379
Q

Digestive Secretion

A
  • the release of various substances from exocrine glands that serve the digestive system
  • ex. saliva, bile, pancreatic juice, gastric juice, intestinal juice
380
Q

What is saliva secreted by?

A

-salivary glands

381
Q

What is saliva made up of?

A
  • mucus

- enzymes (amylase)

382
Q

What is the min enzyme is saliva and when does it function best?

A
  • amylase

- functions best in an alkaline pH

383
Q

What is gastric juice secreted by?

A

-exocrine glands in stomach

384
Q

Pepsin (gastric juice)

A

-protease that begins digestion of proteins

385
Q

What does HCl do in gastric juice?

A

-decreases pH of chyme to a level that activates and optimizes pepsin activity

386
Q

Why is the intrinsic factor required in gastric juice?

A

-for B12 vitamin absorption

387
Q

What does mucous and water do in gastric juice?

A
  • lubricates
  • protects
  • mixing of chyme
388
Q

What makes up gastric juice?

A
  • pepsin
  • HCl
  • intrinsic factor
  • mucus and water
389
Q

What does pancreatic juice secrete?

A

Enzymes

  • protease
  • lipase
  • nuclease
  • amylase

-sodium bicarbonate

390
Q

What part of the pancreas is pancreatic juice secreted from?

A

-exocrine

391
Q

What does sodium bicarbonate do in pancreatic juice?

A
  • buffers stomach contents that enter duodenum
  • increase pH for optimum enzyme function
  • maintains pH
392
Q

Bile

A

-lecithin and bile salts (emulsify fat in preparation for digestion by lipase)

393
Q

What initiates the release of bile?

A

-presence of fat in chyme

394
Q

What does the detection of fat in chyme stimulate?

A

-release of the hormone CCK (cholecystokinin) from duodenum

395
Q

Where is intestinal juice secreted from?

A

-cells of intestinal exocrine glands

396
Q

What is salivary secretion controlled by?

A
  • reflex mechanism
  • chemical and mechanical stimuli from presence of food in mouth
  • olfactory and visual stimuli
397
Q

3 Phases of Gastric Secretion

A

1) cephalic
2) gastric
3) intestinal

398
Q

Cephalic Phase of Gastric Secretion

A
  • sensations of thoughts of food are sent to the brainstem
  • parasympathetic signals are sent to the gastric mucosa via vagus nerve
  • gastric juice secretion is stimulates
  • gastric secretion is stimulated
399
Q

Gastric Phase of Gastric Secretion

A
  • presence of food in stomach (distension)

- triggers reflexes that increase secretion of gastric juices and gastrin

400
Q

Intestinal Phase of Gastric Secretion

A
  • occurs as food moves into/through duodenum

- presense of fats, carbs, proteins and acid stimulates hormonal and nervous reflexes that inhibit stomach activity

401
Q

What is pancreatic secretion stimulated by?

A
  • hormones released in intestinal mucosa
  • secretin: stimulates production of pancreatic fluid that is low in enzymes and high in bicarbonate
  • CCK: stimulates contraction of GB
402
Q

Bile Secretion

A
  • continually secreted by liver

- stored in GB

403
Q

What does CCK do?

A

-stimulates GB to squeeze out bile

404
Q

How many days does it take for fecal matter to pass?

A

3 to 5 days

405
Q

Constipation

A
  • prolonged time in L.I. leads to more water being absorbed

- feces becomes more solid

406
Q

Diarrhea

A

-fecal matter rushes through the L.I. before the water is absorbed

Term 1 (17 decks)

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