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cOGtext Flashcards

1
Q

Uncomplicated gonorrhoea treatment?

A

IM ceftriaxone

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2
Q

Which types of HPV are associated with genital warts?

A

6 and 11

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3
Q

Which types of HPV are associated with cancer?

A

16 and 18

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4
Q

How is primary and secondary syphilis diagnosed?

A

PCR of swab

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5
Q

Incubation period for chlamydia?

A

3-21 days

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6
Q

In HIV patients, risk of opportunistic infections is greatly increased below what CD4 count?

A

200

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7
Q

Define HAART HIV treatment?

A

Highly Active Anti- Retroviral Treatment

3 drugs from 2 drug classes to which virus is susceptible

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8
Q

What is a cephalohaematoma in newborn?

A

Collection of blood between a baby’s scalp and skull, does not cross suture lines

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9
Q

Swelling in parietal region of newborn which does not cross the suture lines

A

Cephalohaematoma

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10
Q

How long does it take for a cephalohaematoma to go away?

A

Up to 3 months

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11
Q

Average rate of cervical dilation expected in primiparous mother?

A

1cm/hr

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12
Q

Respiratory distress, hypoxia, and hypotension during labour. Diagnosis?

A

Amniotic fluid embolism

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13
Q

Best option to induce pregnancy in closed firm cervix?

A

Vaginal prostaglandins

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14
Q

What treatment change should happen in pregnant woman with T2DM?

A

Convert from oral tablets to insulin therapy

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15
Q

What is first line in treating hypertensive disorders of pregnancy?

A

Labetalol

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16
Q

How soon after abortion can IUD and IUS be inserted?

A

Immediately

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17
Q

What volume of amniotic fluid is classed as Polyhydramnios?

A

> 2litres

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18
Q

How and when to monitor pregnant woman with history of gestational diabetes? (2)

A

OGTT at booking

OGTT at 24-26 weeks

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19
Q

STI organism: intracellular gram-negative diplococci

A

Neisseria Gonorrhoeae

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20
Q

STI organism: intracellular gram-negative rods

A

Chlamydia Trachomatis

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21
Q

Neisseria Gonorrhoeae. Describe organism

A

Intracellular gram-negative diplococci

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22
Q

Chlamydia Trachomatis: Describe organism

A

Intracellular gram-negative rods

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23
Q

Classic renal pathology in sickle cell anaemia?

A

Renal papillary necrosis

sickle cells infarct in kidney

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24
Q

How to investigate tubal patency in patients with known co-morbidities (like previous ectopic, PID, endometriosis)?

A

Laparoscopy and dye

dye will leak out of non-patent tubes

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25
Q

Is Factor V Leiden a Haemophilic or Thrombophilic disorder?

A

Thrombophilic (slightly increased tendency to clot)

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26
Q

Is von Willebrand disease a Haemophilic or Thrombophilic disorder?

A

Haemophilic (increased tendency to bleed)

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27
Q

When to induce labour for macrosomia?

A

Don’t need to induce, no benefit in doing so

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28
Q

Gold standard investigation of endometriosis?

A

Laparoscopy

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29
Q

Definitive Tx for Adenomyosis?

A

Hysterectomy

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30
Q

What is adenomyosis?

A

Endometrial tissue grows within layers of myometrium

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31
Q

What are the symptoms of adenomyosis? (3)

A

Identical to endometriosis

Dyspareunia
Dysmenorrhoea
Subfertility

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32
Q

What are the symptoms of endometriosis? (3)

A

(Identical to adenomyosis)

Dyspareunia
Dysmenorrhoea
Subfertility

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33
Q

Name a test that must be done in all women with heavy menstrual bleeding

A

FBC

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34
Q

Ehler’s Danlos Syndrome presents with joint hypermobility and elastic skin. What else?

A

Bruising and bleeding with normal haematological findings

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35
Q

Hepatosplenomegaly
Generalised Lymphadenopathy
New bruising

Must suspect what Dx in children?

A

Haematological malignancy

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36
Q

Hearing loss worse in pregnancy. Likely Dx?

A

Otosclerosis

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37
Q

What happens in otosclerosis?

A

Stapes fuses into surrounding bone

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38
Q

Pathological fracture at what vertebral level suggests malignant rather than osteoporotic change?

A

T4 or above

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39
Q

Pathological fracture at level T4 or above suggests what cause of weakened vertebrae?

A

Malignancy

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40
Q

What test is raised in Acromegaly?

A

IGF-1

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41
Q

IGF-1 is raised in what disorder?

A

Acromegaly

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42
Q

What volume of blood defines a major PPH?

A

More than 1000ml

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43
Q

Within what timeframe is a bleed termed primary PPH?

A

<24hrs after birth

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44
Q

Within what timeframe is a bleed termed secondary PPH?

A

> 24hrs after birth

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45
Q

How much blood is a mild PPH?

A

> 500ml- 1000ml

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46
Q

What does APGAR stand for?

A 
Appearance
Pulse
Grimace 
Activity
Respiration
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47
Q

What is the commonest ovarian cancer?

A

Epithelial carcinoma (90%)

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48
Q

Name a high risk factor for ovarian cancer

A

Early menarche

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49
Q

Early menarche increases risk for what cancers?

A

Ovarian

Breast

50
Q

Tamoxifen increases risk of what cancer?

A

Endometrial

51
Q

Breast cancer drug that increases risk of endometrial cancer?

52
Q

HPV positive patient with negative cytology. When to follow up?

53
Q

What level of uterine prolapse is seen at the introitus?

A

2nd degree

54
Q

What level of uterine prolapse protrudes through vaginal introitus?

A

3rd degree

55
Q

Colposuspension treats what problem?

A

Stress incontinence

56
Q

Surgical treatment for Stress Incontinence?

A

Colposuspension

57
Q

Type of incontinence presenting with nocturia?

A

Urge Incontincence

58
Q

STIs not requiring partner notification?

A

Genital Herpes

HPV

59
Q

What is procidentia?

A

When all of uterus prolapses outside vagina

60
Q

What is it called when all of uterus prolapses outside vagina?

A

Procidentia

61
Q

Oral Hairy Leukoplakia is an AIDs defining condition. True or false?

A

False, as it occurs at CD4+ counts of 200-500

Assoc with EBV

62
Q

What age smoker can take COCP?

63
Q

What age non-smoker can take COCP?

64
Q

What ages of women can take COCP?

A

<35 smoker

<50 non-smoker

65
Q

When can IUS/IUD be inserted after abortion?

A

Immediately after pregnancy confirmed to pass

66
Q

Commonest site of ectopic pregnancy?

A

Fallopian tube

67
Q

Treatment for complete mole?

A

Surgical evacuation of contents

68
Q

What structure secretes fluid to lubricate urethra and neutralise pH prior to ejaculation?

A

Bulbourethral gland

69
Q

Functions of Bulbourethral gland?

A

Secretes fluid to lubricate urethra and neutralise pH prior to ejaculation

70
Q

What structures produce seminal fluid? (2)

A

Prostate

Seminal Vesicles

71
Q

When can vacuum aspiration abortion be performed?

A

Up to 14 weeks gestation

72
Q

Patient misses one POP. For how long is there no protection from pregnancy?

73
Q

Most likely gynae cancer with Lynch Syndrome?

A

Endometrial

74
Q

Foetal pole is also known as?

75
Q

At what size should foetal pole have detectable heart rate?

76
Q

Should 5mm foetal pole have detectable heart rate?

77
Q

Should 9mm foetal pole have detectable heart rate?

78
Q

Male infertility with Mumps. What is happening?

A

Mumps orchitis, obstructive infertility

79
Q

What is meant by multiple pregnancy?

A

Pregnancy with 2 or more foetuses concurrently (twins triplets etc)

Different to multiparity

80
Q

Difference between multiple pregnancy and multiparity?

A

Multiple pregnancy= >1 foetus, eg twins

Multiparity= Previously given birth

81
Q

What hormone is consistently high in menopause?

82
Q

Primary Ovarian Insufficiency is also known as?

A 
Premature Ovarian Failure
Early Menopause (<45)
83
Q

When is menopause considered early?

84
Q

Technical term for early menopause?

A

Primary Ovarian Insufficiency

85
Q

Confirm Primary Ovarian Insufficiency?

A

2x FSH tests, 2 weeks apart

Should be raised on both

86
Q

Within what timeframe should a semen sample be analysed?

A

<1hr after production

87
Q

At what temperature should semen sample be kept before analysis?

A

Body temperature

analyse <1hr after production

88
Q

How long should a diaphragm be left in place after sex?

89
Q

When does more spermicide need to be added to a diaphragm? (2)

A

If in place for >3hrs
If having sex again

(don’t need to remove diaphragm to add more spermicide)

90
Q

Does diaphragm need to be removed to apply more spermicide?

A

No, leave it in place

91
Q

Define Gravida

A

Total number of pregnancies, regardless of outcome

NB Includes current pregnancy!

92
Q

Does Gravida include current pregnancy?

93
Q

What next step should be taken if dyskaryosis is seen on cervical smear test?

A

Refer for colposcopy

94
Q

What type of Hormone Replacement Therapy (HRT) has the lowest assoc risk of Venous Thromboembolism (VTE)?

A

Transdermal patch

95
Q

Pseudomyxoma Peritonei is associated with what gynaecological malignancy?

96
Q

What is the key feature of Pseudomyxoma Peritonei?

A

Cancerous cells produce abundant mucin in peritoneal cavity

97
Q

Coffee bean nuclei seen on histology. Diagnosis?

A

Granulosa Cell Sex Cord tumour

98
Q

Exner bodies seen on histology. Diagnosis?

A

Granulosa Cell Sex Cord tumour

99
Q

Pathognomonic histological features of Granulosa Cell Sex Cord tumour? (2)

A

Coffee bean nuclei

Exner bodies

100
Q

When gestationally should the uterine fundus be felt at the umbilicus?

101
Q

When gestationally should the uterine fundus be felt at the symphysis pubis?

102
Q

Where should the uterine fundus be felt at 12 weeks’ gestation?

A

Symphysis Pubis

103
Q

Where should the uterine fundus be felt at 22 weeks’ gestation?

104
Q

What duration of active labour increases risk of PPH?

A

> 12 hours

105
Q

Most significant risk factors for puerperal psychosis? (3)

A

Bipolar disorder
Psychotic episode
Family history of these

106
Q

Primary risk factor of Ovarian Torsion?

A

Cyst on surface

107
Q

Why is Ovarian Torsion associated with PCOS?

A

Cysts are major risk factor for Torsion

108
Q

First investigation for Urinary Incontinence?

A

Urine Dipstick

109
Q

List the cardinal movements of Labour

A 
Engagement
Descent
Flexion
Internal Rotation
Extension
External Rotation
Expulsion

Every Darn Fool In Egypt Eats Raw Eggs

110
Q

Every Darn Fool In Egypt Eats Raw Eggs. Explain?

A

Cardinal movements of Labour

Engagement
Descent
Flexion
Internal Rotation
Extension
External Rotation
Expulsion

Every Darn Fool In Egypt Eats Raw Eggs

111
Q

Say the rhyme for Cardinal Movements of Labour

A 
Engagement
Descent
Flexion
Internal Rotation
Extension
External Rotation
Expulsion

Every Darn Fool In Egypt Eats Raw Eggs

112
Q

Supply of detrusor muscle?

A

Parasympathetics from pelvic splanchnic nerves

113
Q

What drug treatment is recommended for all women with PPH?

A

Tranexamic acid

114
Q

Can a woman with pelvic organ prolapse have sex?

A

Yes but may be uncomfortable

115
Q

Can a woman with pelvic organ prolapse do weightlifting?

A

No

Should avoid heavy weightlifting as much as poss- NICE

116
Q

Name AIDS-defining pneumonias? (2)

A

Pneumocystis

Recurrent bacterial

117
Q

AIDS-defining conditions, apart from pneumonia? (2)

A

Oesophageal candidiasis

Kaposi’s Sarcoma

118
Q

What BMI should the male partner achieve before IVF treatment is authorised in Scotland?

A

Any BMI go for it fatty

119
Q

Gynaecological causes of raised CA125, other than Ovarian Cancer? (3)

A

Pregnancy
Endometriosis
Fibroids

120
Q

When is the first trimester of pregnancy in weeks?

A

0 to 12 weeks

121
Q

When is the second trimester of pregnancy in weeks?

A

13 to 28 weeks

122
Q

When is the third trimester of pregnancy in weeks?

A

29 weeks to birth

Formative Revision (50 decks)

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