Big Daddy AFT Y3 Flashcards

1
Q

Coved ST elevation on ECG> Diagnosis?

A

Brugada Syndrome

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2
Q

Saddleback ST elevation on ECG> Diagnosis?

A

Brugada Syndrome

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3
Q

Increasing PR interval followed by dropped QRS complex on ECG> Diagnosis?

A

Mobitz type I/ Wenkeback
2nd degree Heart Block

(Longer, Longer, Longer, DROP> Then you have a WENKEBACK)

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4
Q

Dropped QRS complexes at regular ratio to those not dropped on ECG.
Diagnosis?

A

Mobitz Type II
2nd Degree Heart Block

(If some R’s don’t get through> Then you have Mobitz type II)

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5
Q

Epistaxis initial first aid treatment (2)

A

Lean patient forward (to reduce bloodflow to nasopharynx)

Pinch soft cartilagenous part of nose for 15-20 minutes

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6
Q

Epistaxis for >15mins. Treatment? (2)

A

Electrocautery if bleeding point can be visualised

Nasal packing if not

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7
Q

Why should asymptomatic bacteriuria be treated in pregnancy?

A

If untreated, 30% develop acute pyelonephritis

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8
Q

Treatment for Asymptomatic Bacteriuria in pregnancy?

A

Nitrofurantoin

Must treat or 30% progress to pyelonephritis!

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9
Q

Treat Placental Abruption after 34 weeks?

A

Deliver

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10
Q

Treat Placental Abruption before 34 weeks? (3)

A

Steroids to increase foetal lung maturation
Tocolytics (anti- contraction drugs)
Deliver at 37 weeks

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11
Q

Commonest cause of vertical diplopia?

A

Trochlear Nerve Palsy (CN IV)

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12
Q

Most common causative organism in Prosthetic Joint Infection? (2)

A

Staph Aureus
Staph Epidermidis
(Skin Commensals innit)

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13
Q

Cyclically lumpy and tender breasts. What is this?

A

Fibrocystic change

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14
Q

Observation of numerous variables (in individuals) at a single point in time. What type of study is this?

A

Cross sectional study

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15
Q

Repeated observation of the same variables in individuals, throughout time. What type of study is this?

A

Longitudinal study

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16
Q

What is a Longitudinal study?

A

Repeated observation of the same variables through time

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17
Q

What is a Cross-Sectional study?

A

Observation of numerous variables (in individuals) at a single point in time

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18
Q

Treat Scleritis?

A

Topical Steroid drops

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19
Q

What is a Cohort Study?

A

Type of Longitudinal study

All of the studied group share a defining characteristic (eg birth year)

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20
Q

Repeated observation of the same variables through time in a group who all share a defining characteristic. What type of study is this?

A
Cohort Study
(subtype of Longitudinal Study)
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21
Q

Drug treatment of Delirium?

A

Haloperidol

only when non-pharmacological treatments ineffective

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22
Q

First investigation for ?renal or ?urinary tract malignancy

A

USS

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23
Q

List the classic symptoms in Renal Cell Carcinoma (3)

A

Haematuria (frank)
Loin Pain
Renal Mass

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24
Q

What part of the nephron is usually affected by Renal Cell Carcinoma?

A

Proximal Convoluted Tubule

Adenocarcinoma of

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25
Q

What type of cancer is a Renal Cell Carcinoma?

A

Adenocarcinoma

Of Proximal Convoluted Tubule

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26
Q

What does Memantine treat?

A

Alzheimer’s Disease (less preferred to Donepezil)

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27
Q

Treatment for Gout in Renal Failure?

A

Febuxostat

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28
Q

Define azoospermia

A

Condition where semen contains no sperm

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29
Q

Side effects of Lithium Toxicity?

A
Leukocytosis
Insipidus (Diabetes Insipidus)
Tremor
Hypothyroidism
Increased Urine
Mums beware (teratogenic)

L.I.T.H.IU.M.

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30
Q

What does Oxybutnin treat?

A

Overactive bladder

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31
Q

Anti body associated with Grave’s Disease?

A

Thyrotropin Receptor Antibody (TRAb)

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32
Q

Antibody associated with Hashimoto’s thyroiditis?

A

anti- Thyroid Peroxidase (TPO antibodies)

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33
Q

First line treatment for overactive bladder with urge incontinence?

A

Oxybutnin

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34
Q

Lumpy breast pain associated with menstrual cycle. Diagnosis?

A

Fibrocystic breast change/ disease

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35
Q

Drug treatment of delirium with hallucination?

A

Haloperidol

36
Q

Headache 24hrs after spinal anaesthetic, observations normal. Diagnosis?

A

Low pressure headache (due to CSF leak, v common)

37
Q

Nerve supplying muscles of dorsiflexion?

A

Common peroneal nerve

38
Q

What is dorsiflexion?

A

Movement of the foot where toes move towards shin

39
Q

Other name for partial seizure?

A

Focal seizure

40
Q

Which nerve innervates the skin of the lateral forearm?

A

Radial nerve

41
Q

Most likely lobe affected in focal epilepsy with aura?

A

Temporal lobe

42
Q

Where is the seizure focus in an Aware Focal Seizure likely to be?

A

Temporal lobe

43
Q

Difference between Simple and Complex Focal Seizures?

A

Simple- awareness retained

Complex- loss of awareness

44
Q

What is CSF pressure like in bacterial meningitis?

A

High

45
Q

Weakness of Superior Oblique leads to what visual change?

A

Vertical diplopia

especially on looking down

46
Q

Fourth Cranial Nerve palsy leads to what visual change?

A

Vertical diplopia, especially on looking down

Due to weakness in Superior Oblique muscle

47
Q

Trochlear nerve palsy leads to what visual change?

A

Vertical diplopia, especially on looking down

Due to weakness in Superior Oblique muscle

48
Q

Vertical diplopia, worse on looking down suggests what pathology? (2)

A

Weakness of Superior Oblique

Palsy of Trochlear Nerve (CN IV)

49
Q

First line options in Alzheimer’s Disease? (3)

A

Donepezil
Galantamine
Rivastigmine

50
Q

Second line option in Alzheimer’s Disease?

A

Memantine

51
Q

When is Memantine indicated for Alzheimer’s Disease? (2)

A

Severe disease

Mild/moderate disease not responsive to Acetylcholinesterase Inhibitors (1st line- donepezil/ galantamine/ rivastigmine)

52
Q

guess what

A

you’re doing fine mate keep shifting

this is getting us places

53
Q

Treatment for non-infectious lactational mastitis?

A

Simple analgesia

Keep breastfeeding!

54
Q

A mother with non-infectious lactational mastitis should stop breastfeeding. True or false?

A

False

Very rarely should breastfeeding be stopped

55
Q

Test for chlamydia or gonorrhoea in a woman?

A

Vulvovaginal swab

56
Q

Placenta praevia without bleeding in second trimester. What should be done?

A

Scan again at 36 weeks as most resolve

Delivery >34 weeks if it bleeds

57
Q

Symptoms of peritonism? (2)

A

Guarding

Rigidity

58
Q

Main risk factor for uterine rupture?

A

Scarred uterus

previous Caesarean section or any other uterine surgery predisposes

59
Q

During labour:
Continuous abdominal pain
Maternal hypovolaemia
History of C section.

Likely diagnosis?

A

Uterine rupture

60
Q

Why should delivery be planned for any woman with a scarred uterus?

A

High risk of uterine rupture

61
Q

How is asymptomatic bacteriuria treated in the First Trimester?

A

Nitrofurantoin

1- Nitro
2- Nitro
3- Trim

62
Q

How is asymptomatic bacteriuria treated in the Second Trimester?

A

Nitrofurantoin

1- Nitro
2- Nitro
3- Trim

63
Q

How is asymptomatic bacteriuria treated in the Third Trimester?

A

Trimethoprim

1- Nitro
2- Nitro
3- Trim

64
Q

Is doxycycline safe in pregnancy?

A

No

Stains foetal teeth grey & may be teratogenic

65
Q

Define Discrimination

A

Prejudiced or unjust treatment of a certain group

66
Q

Prejudiced or unjust treatment of a certain group. What does this describe?

A

Discrimination

67
Q

Young patient with coved ST elevation and T wave inversion on ECG. Likely diagnosis?

A

Brugada syndrome

68
Q

Small cell lung cancer may release which hormone?

A

Anti Diuretic Hormone (ADH)

69
Q

What does ADH stimulate? (2)

A

Insertion of aquaporin 2 channels in collecting duct
Reabsorption of solute-free water

(Too much therefore leads to dilutional hyponatraemia)

70
Q

What solutes are reabsorbed with water through aquaporin 2 channels in the collecting duct?

A

None, water is solute-free

71
Q

How does SIADH lead to hyponatraemia? (3)

A

Stimulates insertion of aquaporin 2 channels
Solute-free water is reabsorbed
Dilutional hyponatraemia ensues

72
Q

Anti- TRAb antibodies suggest what diagnosis?

A

Grave’s Disease

73
Q

Anti-TPO antibodies suggest what diagnosis?

A

Hashimoto’s Thyroiditis

74
Q

History of cancer, even years ago, should raise suspicion of what? (MSK)

A

Bony mets

Recurrence, metastasis
Breast Lung Prostate Renal Thyroid

75
Q

Treat acute gout?

A

High dose NSAID or

Colchicine

76
Q

How do we differentiate Osteoarthritis of thumb and DeQuervain’s Tenosynovitis?

A

DeQuervain’s Tenosynovitis has pain along radial aspect of wrist

(tendinous sheath is inflamed)

77
Q

Painful eye with loss of acuity presents to GP. What do?

A

Refer that shit

Ophthalmology

78
Q

Define a case-control study

A

Two groups of patients are compared, where one group has a certain condition and the other group does not

79
Q

Two groups of patients are compared. In one group all patients have a certain condition, and in the other group they do not.

What type of study does this describe?

A

Case-control study

80
Q

Define hydronephrosis

A

Swelling of kidney due to fluid build-up

Due to Blockage/obstruction

81
Q

What causes Hydronephrosis?

A

Blockage/obstruction of renal outflow

Hydronephrosis= Swelling of kidney due to fluid build-up

82
Q

What is the name for swelling of kidney due to fluid build-up?

A

Hydronephrosis

83
Q

Treatment for Hydronephrosis with signs of infection?

A

Nephrostomy

84
Q

Define Nephrostomy

A

Surgical opening created between kidney and skin to drain backed up urine

Treatment for Hydronephrosis

85
Q

Epithelial cells and blood in urine should raise suspicion of what?

A

Transitional Cell Bladder Cancer

if in GP refer to urology

86
Q

If an exam question mentions GP setting, what should you consider?

A

Clue that maybe you should refer

Rather than try and do posh fancy tests yourself in primary care