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Chapter 6 Instrument Approach Procedures Flashcards

1
Q

What is the most important factor surrounding the design of an aerodrome?

A

Terrain

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2
Q

What is the Vat for category A, B, C, D and E aircraft?

A 
A = less than 91
B = 91-120
C = 121-140
D = 141-165
E = 165+
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3
Q

What are the categories of aircraft based upon?

A

Based on Vat (1.23Vs1g or 1.3Vso)

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4
Q

What is the radius of MSA?

A

25nm from the nav aid sevicing the approach

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5
Q

What is the guaranteed obstacle clearance when flying at MSA?

A

300m

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6
Q

When can you fly below MSA?

A
  • aerodrome is visible
  • aircraft is being radar vectored
  • aircraft is flying a published procedure
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7
Q

What is a NDBL?

A

NDB locator (low powered NDB)

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8
Q

Which type of approach has a DH?

A

Precision approach

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9
Q

Which type of approach has MDA?

A

Non-precision approach

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10
Q

Does a precision approach require distance measuring?

A

Doesn’t have to but can do

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11
Q

What is the expected accuracy of the pilot on a precision approach?

A

Pilots expected to within half of a scale deflection of the CDI

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12
Q

What is the minimum DH for each category of ILS?

A 
1 = 200ft
2 = 100ft
3A = none
3B = none
3C = none
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13
Q

What must be done if the glideslope is lost?

A
  • it becomes a non precision approach

- carry out a missed approach or if you have time descend to LOC only minimum

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14
Q

If a missed approach is executed before MDA what must be done and why?

A

Must pass over missed approach point because missed approach procedure starts at the missed approach procedure

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15
Q

Who sets the MDA/DH and what does it depend on?

A

Operator and depends on category of a/c (can be more restrictive than OCH/OCA but not less)

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16
Q

What is the OCH/OCA and who sets it?

A

The minimum level for MDA/DH and is set by the state

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17
Q

Is a visual approach part of an instrument approach?

A

Yes (it’s finishing an instrument approach visually)

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18
Q

Who provides separation on a visual approach?

A

ATC

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19
Q

How many segments are on an instrument approach?

A

5

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20
Q

What are the 5 segments of an instrument approach?

A 
1 = arrival
2 = initial approach
3 = intermediate approach
4 = final approach
5 = missed approach
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21
Q

Define a straight-in approach

A
  • non precision = where FAT is less than 30 degrees of runway heading
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22
Q

When are you established on an NDB?

A

Within 5 degrees of FAT

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23
Q

What is the guaranteed obstacle clearance in the primary area?

A

300m (600m in high terrain areas)

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24
Q

What is the guaranteed obstacle clearance in the secondary area?

A

Reduces to zero towards the outer edges of the secondary area

25
What is the fix tolerance area?
The zone of uncertainty area of where you are due to the inaccuracies of two fixes
26
What is the most accurate fix for track guidance and bearings?
ILS
27
What is the most accurate fix for overhead position?
NDB (smallest cone of confusion)
28
Where does the arrival segment begin and end?
``` Begins = at 25nm Ends = at IAF ```
29
Where does the initial segment begin and end?
``` Begins = at IAF Ends = at IF (initial approach fix) ```
30
Where does the intermediate segment begin and end?
``` Begin = IF Ends = FAF ```
31
Where does the final segment begin and end?
``` Begins = FAF Ends = MAPt ```
32
What is the MOC in the arrival segment?
300m
33
What is the MOC in the initial segment?
300m
34
What is the MOC in the intermediate segment?
300-150m
35
What is the MOC in the final segment?
DH for precision | MDH for non precision
36
When ATC ask you to carry out an approach what other info could they ask for?
To report over significant point or nav aid or beginning a procedure or base turn
37
Where does a STAR usually begin and end?
Starts at the end of the route and ends at the IAF
38
What is the max intercept between IF and IAF for each type of approach?
Non precision = 120 degrees | Precision = 90 degrees
39
What is the max intercept angle and track length for a DR segment?
Angle = 45 degrees | Track length = 10nm
40
What is the max and optimum distance of the FAF from the threshold?
``` Optimum = 5nm Max = 10nm ```
41
If there is no FAF when can you begin to let down to MDA/H?
Once established on the FAT
42
Define an FAP?
A point where an aircraft intercepts the glidepath - only found on ILSs without DME
43
Who is responsible for terrain clearance?
PIC except when under IFR radar vectors
44
What the optimum final approach gradient?
Not to exceed 5.2%
45
What is the max permissible gradient where a steeper gradient is necessary and can this be exceeded?
6.5% (this can be greater if approved by the state)
46
What are the three types of track reversal?
- 45/180 degree procedure turn (normal type) - 80/260 degree procedure turn - base turn
47
What is the leg of the 45 degree turn on a 45/180 procedure?
Cat A and B = 1 minute | Cat C, D and E = 1 minute 15 seconds
48
Which track reversal type gives a reciprocal reversal of track?
A procedure turn
49
What takes priority over timing when making a procedural turn?
A turning point (TP)
50
In what missed approach segment are now turns allowed to be designed?
Initial phase
51
What is the minimum missed approach climb gradient and what obstacle clearance does this guarantee?
2.5% and 30m clearance
52
When does the initial phase and intermediate phase of the missed approach begin and end respectively?
When climb is established
53
What is the minimum obstacle clearance in the final phase of a missed approach?
50m
54
Define a MAPt?
The point of intersection of an electronic glidepath (needs finishing)
55
What is the aim of MAPt?
To ensure the minimum obstacle clearance isn’t infringed throughout the procedure
56
What is area navigation (RNAV) based on?
VOR/DMEs which are co located and waypoints
57
Define a waypoint
A specified geographical location used to define an area nav route or flight path
58
What is the distance between RNAV and RNAV RNP?
RNAV RNP can detect errors in entry of waypoints
59
What is the most important factor with regards to instrument approaches?
Speed

Air Law (26 decks)

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