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Anatomy/Physiology > Chapter 5 and 6: The Integumentary System and The Skeletal System > Flashcards

Chapter 5 and 6: The Integumentary System and The Skeletal System Flashcards

1
Q

what are the two parts of the integument?

A

cutaneous membrane and accessory structures

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2
Q

what is the epidermis made out of?

A

epithelial tissue

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3
Q

what is the dermis made out of?

A

dense connective tissue

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4
Q

what is the name of the epithelial tissue that makes up the epidermis?

A

stratified squamous

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5
Q

what are the 5 functions of the integument?

A

-protection
-temperature maintenance
-synthesis and storage of nutrients
-sensory reception
-excretion and secretion

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6
Q

what are the two types of the epidermis?

A

thick and thin

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7
Q

what are the 5 layers of the epidermis from bottom to top?

A

-stratum germinativum
-stratum spinosum
-stratum granulosum
-stratum lucidum
-stratum corneum

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8
Q

where is thick skin located?

A

on the palms of the hands and the soles of the feet

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9
Q

which layer of the epidermis is not in thin skin?

A

stratum lucidum

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10
Q

stratum ________________: attached to the basement membrane with hemidesmosomes

A

germinativum

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11
Q

what are the types of cells in the stratum germinativum

A

-germinativum cells
-germinativum cells’ daughter cells
-melanocytes

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12
Q

why do cells die in the stratum spinosum?

A

they are too far from blood vessels

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13
Q

stratum _______________: thin; new cells that are pushed up from stratum germinativum still go through mitosis; contains dermal papilla and epidermal ridges; found below the dark line on the microscope

A

spinosum

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14
Q

stratum _______________: makes granules; cells fill with keratin from granules

A

granulosum

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15
Q

stratum _____________: one clear layer; this layer is not in thin skin, only thick

A

lucidum

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16
Q

stratum ______________: top layer; cells have become keratinized

A

corneum

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17
Q

how many layers does the stratum corneum have?

A

15-30

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18
Q

how long does it take cells to get to the stratum corneum?

A

4 weeks

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19
Q

what are the two layers of the dermis?

A

-papillary layer
-reticular layer

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20
Q

contains dermal papilla; vascular; also contains loose connective tissue and has nerves, lymphatic vessels, and blood vessels

A

papillary layer

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21
Q

under the papillary layer; has lots of reticular fibers and also includes collagen and elastic fibers; less strength but the strength it has goes in multiple directions due to the branching of the reticular fibers

A

reticular layer

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22
Q

what are the 3 parts that make up skin?

A

epithelial, loose, and dense connective tissue

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23
Q

what is another name for the skin?

A

cutaneous membrane

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24
Q

what is another name for the hypodermis?

A

subcutaneous membrane

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25
Q

what does the hypodermis mostly consist of?

A

adipose tissue

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26
Q

what are the 3 factors that can affect skin pigmentation?

A

-carotene levels
-melanin
-amount of blood in the papillary layer

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27
Q

yellow, orange pigment found/stored in the stratum germinativum; obtained by eating orange foods such as carrots, squash, yams, sweet potato, etc.; used to produce Vitamin A

A

carotene

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28
Q

what is the function of carotene?

A

stabilize stem cells for the retina of the eye

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29
Q

made by melanocytes

A

melanin

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30
Q

what is the function of melanin?

A

releases melanin when in contact with UV damage

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31
Q

what is the melanocyte: stem cell ratio in places of high sun exposure

A

1:4

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32
Q

what is the melanocyte: stem cell ratio in areas of low sun exposure

A

1:20

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33
Q

what causes the skin to peel after a sunburn?

A

when out in the sun for a long time, 2 T’s on DNA will buckle, causing the cell to die and no longer be able to be used

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34
Q

what colors can the skin change to due to blood levels in the papillary layer?

A

pink/red or blue/purple/ashen/grey

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35
Q

how does skin turn pink/red?

A

blood vessels are open and fill the papillary layer; due to heat or embarassment

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36
Q

how does skin get a blue/purple/ashen/grey tone?

A

low amounts of blood go to the papillary layer; due to poor circulation, heart attack, respiratory issues, lung issues, etc.; located on extremities: nose, lips, fingertips(especially under nails), toes

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37
Q

what is it called when the skin gets a blue/purple/ashen/grey tone?

A

cyanosis

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38
Q

what are the benefits of UV light?

A

it forces the stratum germinativum to produce a steroid, which is converted into Vitamin D, which is then taken to the liver and converted into calcitriol

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39
Q

what is the function of calcitriol?

A

it tells the cells of the small intestine to absorb more calcium and phosphate from food

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40
Q

what is the harmful effect of UV light?

A

cancer

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41
Q

what are the types of cancer that can result from UV damage?

A

-basal cell carcinoma
-squamous cell carcinoma
-malignant melanoma

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42
Q

damages the stratum germinativum; cancer; affects the basement membrane

A

basal cell carcinoma

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43
Q

damages the cells of the upper stratum germinativum and stratum spinosum; benign(stays in the same tissue)

A

squamous cell carcinoma

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44
Q

damages the melanocytes; shows up as moles, birthmarks, etc

A

malignant melanoma

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45
Q

attachments to the skin(hair, nails, glands, etc)

A

accessory structures

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46
Q

smooth muscle; pulls entire hair shaft and squeezes follicle and cell; causes goosebumps

A

arrector pili

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47
Q

how long is a hair growth cycle?

A

2-5 years

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48
Q

how many hairs does a person lose per day on average?

A

100

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49
Q

when does hair turn grey?

A

when melanocytes run out of melanin and air pockets are released

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50
Q

when does hair turn white?

A

no pigment or air pockets left

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51
Q

what are the functions of hair?

A

-block UV light on the head
-deflect blows to the head
-traps debris
-attractant to the opposite sex

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52
Q

what are the 4 types of glands?

A

sweat, sebaceous, ceruminous, and mammary

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53
Q

what is another name for sweat glands?

A

sudiferous glands

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54
Q

what is the function of sebaceous glands?

A

lead and put hair in follicle; lubricate the hair and skin

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55
Q

what is secreted by sebaceous glands?

A

sebum

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56
Q

what type of secretion is done by sebaceous glands?

A

holocrine secretion

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57
Q

what stimulates sebaceous glands?

A

sex hormones (testosterone and estrogen)

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58
Q

what are the two types of sweat glands?

A

apocrine and merocrine

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59
Q

where are apocrine sweat glands located?

A

armpit and groin

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60
Q

what type of secretion do apocrine glands use?

A

merocrine

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61
Q

describe the secretion from apocrine glands

A

cloudy, odorous

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62
Q

why is apocrine secretion odorous?

A

bacteria eats the secretion and its waste product

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63
Q

where is merocrine secretion located?

A

on 99% of the body

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64
Q

what type of secretion do merocrine glands use?

A

merocrine secretion

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65
Q

describe the sweat released from merocrine glands

A

99.5% is water and the rest is salt(Na, K, Cl, urea)

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66
Q

what do ceruminous glands do?

A

release cerumen; trap materials, produce earwax

67
Q

what type of secretion is used by mammary glands?

A

apocrine secretion

68
Q

what do mammary glands do?

A

produce milk

69
Q

what is the name of the epithelium that makes up nails and hair?

A

stratified squamous

70
Q

stab/cutting of the skin

A

incision

71
Q

rubbing layers off of the skin

A

abrasion

72
Q

what are the 4 parts to repairing skin after a cut?

A

-mast cells release histamine to bring in more blood
-platelets and plasma produce clots and with the last clot they will produce fibrin
-clean out dead cells; stem cells replace damaged area
-fibroblasts produce collagen fibers to replace damaged dermis

73
Q

burns: the upper epidermis is killed, the lower epidermis is damaged; accessory structures are not harmed; red; painful

A

first-degree burn

74
Q

burns: kills entire epidermis, the reticular layer and upper dermis is injured; red, painful, has blisters

A

second-degree burn

75
Q

burns: kills dermis and chars accessory structures; no pain due to nerve damage

A

third-degree burn

76
Q

what are the functions of the skeletal system? (5)

A

-support/structure
-protection
-production of blood cells
-storage
-leverage

77
Q

what soft tissues are protected by the skeletal system?

A

brain, spinal cord, uterus, lungs, and heart

78
Q

the rotation/position of the bone allows you different abilities

A

leverage

79
Q

what are the approximate weights of bone?

A

–2/3(65-66%) is ground substance
–1/3(32%) is collagen fibers
–2% is bone cells

80
Q

what are the 4 different shapes of bones?

A

-flat
-long
-short
-irregular

81
Q

bone shapes: flat surface; thin and broad

A

flat bones

82
Q

examples of flat bones

A

skull bones, scapula, sternum

83
Q

bone shapes: length is greater than width; makes up limbs

A

long bones

84
Q

examples of long bones

A

humerus, radius, ulna, femur, tibia, fibula, phalanges

85
Q

bone shapes: length and width are equal

A

short bones

86
Q

examples of short bones

A

carpal and tarsal bones

87
Q

odd-shaped bones

A

irregular bones

88
Q

example of irregular bones

A

vertebrae

89
Q

what are the 2 different structures of bones?

A

compact and spongy bone

90
Q

bone structures: strongest; most dense bone; can withstand high amounts of pressure/weight in 2 directions

A

compact bone

91
Q

bone structures: not organized; spaces between spikes(trabecula); can withstand weight in multiple directions

A

spongy bone

92
Q

what are the 2 types of microscopic features in bone?

A

lamella and caneliculi

93
Q

microscopic features: circular layers of bones

A

lamella

94
Q

microscopic features: contain blood vessels that go from cell to cell

A

caneliculi

95
Q

what are the 3 types of bone cells?

A

-osteoblasts
-osteocytes
-osteoclasts

96
Q

bone cells: make the bone when told to do so because of high levels of Ca/Po

A

osteoblasts

97
Q

bone cells: maintains bone

A

osteoclasts

98
Q

bone cells: huge cells with 50 nuclei and lots of vesicles containing acid and digestive enzymes; increases blood levels when low

A

osteoclasts

99
Q

what does the outer layer of the periosteum do?

A

attach structures to bone

100
Q

what does the inner layer of the periosteum do?

A

contains stem cells, which become osteoblasts when needed

101
Q

what does the endosteum do?

A

lines the inside cavity of bone marrow; contains stem cells

102
Q

large tube in the middle of each osteon; contains an artery, vein, and nerve

A

harvesian/central canal

103
Q

osteocytes are arranged in concentric layers around a harvesian/central canal; basic unit of compact bone; only in compact bone

A

osteon

104
Q

making of bone; done by the process of calcification

A

ossification

105
Q

what are the 2 methods of ossification?

A

intramembraneous and endochondral ossification

106
Q

ossification: 6-8 weeks embryo–within the deep layers of the dermis, layers of connective tissue form calcified material, which kills all cells in this area

A

intramembraneous ossification

107
Q

what bones use intramembranous ossification?

A

flat bones of the skull, mandible, maxilla, and clavicle

108
Q

ossification: develops from pre-existing hyaline cartilage; molds

A

endochondral ossification

109
Q

what are the 3 types of articulations?

A

-synarthrosis
-amphiarthrosis
-diarthrosis

110
Q

what are the two types of synarthrosis joints?

A

fibrous and cartilaginous

111
Q

what are the two types of fibrous synarthrosis articulations?

A

sutures and gomphosis

112
Q

fibrous connections plus interlocked surfaces; found in between the bones if the skull

A

suture

113
Q

fibrous connections plus insertion in the bony socket(alveolus); between the teeth and jaw

A

gomphosis

114
Q

what is the name of the cartilaginous synarthrosis joint?

A

synchondrosis

115
Q

no movement

A

synarthrosis

116
Q

little movement

A

amphiarthrosis

117
Q

free movement

A

diarthrosis

118
Q

interposition of the cartilage plate; epiphyseal plate

A

synchondrosis

119
Q

what is the name of the fibrous amphiarthrosis articulation?

A

syndesmosis

120
Q

what is the name of the cartilaginous amphiarthrosis articulation?

A

symphisis

121
Q

ligamentous connection; between the tibia and fibula; function is protection; made up of mostly collagen fibers

A

syndesmosis

122
Q

connection by a fibrous pad; between the right and left halves of the pelvis(pubic symphisis) and between the adjacent vertebrae of the spinal column

A

symphysis

123
Q

what is the name of the diarthrosis articulation

A

synovial

124
Q

complex joint bounded by joint capsule containing ____________ fluid; 6 different ways to move

A

synovial

125
Q

what are the 6 different synovial diarthrosis articulations?

A

-gliding joint
-hinge joint
-pivot joint
-ellipsoidal joint
-saddle joint
-ball-and-socket joint

126
Q

example of a gliding joint

A

clavicle and manubrium

127
Q

example of a hinge joint

A

elbow; knee

128
Q

example of a pivot joint

A

twisting of hips/pelvis

129
Q

example of an ellipsoidal joint

A

radius and ulna

130
Q

example of a saddle joint

A

thumb

131
Q

example of a ball-and-socket joint

A

shoulder; hip

132
Q

the movement in the anterior-posterior plane that reduces the angle between the articulating elements; bending your wrist down/forward

A

flexion

133
Q

the movement in the anterior-posterior plane that increases the angle between the articulating elements; bending your wrist back

A

extension

134
Q

extension past anatomical position

A

hyperextension

135
Q

movement away from the longitudinal axis of the body; moving your arms out

A

abduction

136
Q

movement towards the longitudinal axis of the body; moving your arms towards the medial axis

A

adduction

137
Q

moving your arms in a loop; drawing a circle on a chalkboard

A

circumduction

138
Q

turning around the longitudinal axis of the body or a limb; twisting your head to the side

A

rotation

139
Q

the movement of the wrist down or backward; flicking of the wrist while serving in tennis

A

pronation

140
Q

the movement of the wrist down or backward; on your spine, holding a cup of soup

A

supination

141
Q

twisting motion of the foot that turns the sole inwards, elevating the medial edge of the foot

A

inversion

142
Q

twisting motion of the foot that turns the sole outwards, elevating the outer edge of the foot

A

eversion

143
Q

flexing of the foot, elevates the sole and digs the heel into the ground

A

dorsiflexion

144
Q

pointing of the toes, elevates the heel; standing on tiptoes

A

plantar flexion

145
Q

the movement of the thumb towards the palm or fingertips that enables you to grasp and hold an object; making a fist

A

opposition

146
Q

moving a part of the body anteriorly in the horizontal plane; sticking your jaw out

A

protraction

147
Q

moving a part of the body posteriorly in the horizontal plane; bringing your jaw back in

A

retraction

148
Q

a structure moves in a superior direction; closing your mouth

A

elevation

149
Q

a structure moves in an inferior direction; opening your mouth

A

depression

150
Q

when released, it tells the cells of the small intestine to absorb more calcium/phosphorus

A

calcitriol

151
Q

stimulates osteoblasts(dissolves bone) and breaks up CaPo

A

PTH-parathyroid hormone

152
Q

stimulates osteoblasts to make more bone and take CaPo from the blood

A

calcitonin

153
Q

vitamin d deficiency—not enough CaPo for bones; more cartilage in cartilage:bone ratio; common during youth; limits bone production; diaphysis cannot handle weight of the body and legs bow out

A

rickets

154
Q

vitamin a and c deficiency—causes brittle bones and lack of bone growth if not eaten

A

scurvy

155
Q

what does vitamin a help

A

osteoblasts

156
Q

what does vitamin c help

A

fibroblasts

157
Q

bone fracture where skin is torn

A

open fracture

158
Q

what do you need to worry about with open fractures

A

bacterial infections

159
Q

bone fracture where skin remains untouched

A

closed fracture

160
Q

bone breaks along longitudinal axis, most are complete fractures

A

transverse fracture

161
Q

bone fracture caused by high twisting of bone

A

spiral fractire

162
Q

when a bone has shattered parts

A

comminuted fractire

163
Q

fracture of the distal ends of the tibia and fibula

A

potts fracture

164
Q

fracture of the distal end of the radius

A

colles fracture

Anatomy/Physiology (27 decks)

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