Chapter 41 Musculoskeletal Flashcards

1
Q

Fracture definition

A

Break in the continuity of a bone

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2
Q

Open vs Closed Fracure

A
  • Open: passes through skin

- Closed: does not pass through skin

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3
Q

Compound fracture

A

Broken in multiple places

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4
Q

Types of Fractures (11)

A
  • Linear -Bowing
  • Oblique -Pathological
  • Spiral -Stress
  • Transverse -Fatigue
  • Greenstick -Transchondral
  • Torus
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5
Q

Symptoms of Fractures (7)

A
  • Unnatural alignment
  • Swelling
  • Muscle spasm
  • Tenderness
  • Pain
  • Impaired sensation
  • Decreased mobility
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6
Q

Fracture Treatments

A
  • Immobilization
  • Closed manipulation
  • Traction
  • Open reduction
  • Internal and external fixation
  • Improper reduction
  • Immobilization
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7
Q

Fracture Complications (8)

A
  • Shock
  • Fat embolism
  • Delayed union
  • Nonunion
  • Malunion
  • DVT
  • Nerve injury
  • PE
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8
Q

Compartment Syndrome

A

Decreased perfusion to muscle tissue from construction by a cast or dressing

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9
Q

6 P’s of Assessing Compartment Syndrome

A
  • Paresthesia
  • Pallor
  • Pain
  • Pressure
  • Paralysis
  • Pulselessness
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10
Q

Dislocation

A

Displacement or one or more bones in a joint

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11
Q

Subluxation

A

-Contact between articular surfaces is only partially lost

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12
Q

RICE

A
  • Rest
  • Ice
  • Compression
  • Elevation
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13
Q

If a sprain is severe enough it may require what?

A

Surgical repair or casting

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14
Q

Rhabdomylosis defined as…

A

-Rapid breakdown of muscle that causes the release of intracellular contents

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15
Q

Rhabdomyolysis can cause what (2)

A
  • Acute renal failure

- Electrolyte imbalances

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16
Q

How is Rhabdomyolysis diagnosed?

A

When CK/Trop levels are 5-10x the upper limit of normal (1000units/L)

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17
Q

Osteoporosis is defined as…

A

Poorly mineralized bone and increased risk of fractures due to alterations in bone micro architecture

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18
Q

Osteoporosis bone is describes as what?

A

Spongy

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19
Q

Causes of osteoporosis (

A
  • Endocrine dysfunction
  • Medication
  • Vitamin D deficiency
  • Underlying diseases
  • Abnormal BMI
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20
Q

Causes/Risk Factors for Osteoporosis (6)

A
  • Small bone structure
  • Sex hormone deficiency (menopause)
  • Cigarette smoking
  • Alcohol abuse
  • Low calcium and Vitamin D
  • Sedentary lifestyle or immobility
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21
Q

Osteoporosis Symptoms

A
  • Fractures (vertebrae, wrists, hips)
  • Low back pain
  • Neck pain
  • Bone pain or tenderness
  • Loss of height over time
  • Stooped posture
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22
Q

Osteoporosis treatment (2)

A
  • Weight bearing exercise

- Increase calcium

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23
Q

Post menopausal osteoporosis (4)

A
  • Middle-aged and older women
  • Estrogen deficiency
  • Increased Ned for Calcium and Vit D
  • Remodeling imbalance
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24
Q

Glucocorticoid-induced osteoporosis (2)

A
  • Type of secondary osteoporosis

- Glucocorticoids improve osteoclast survival

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25
Q

Osteoporosis Diagnostic Testing Gold Standard

A

Dual X-Ray Absorptionmetry (DXA)

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26
Q

DXA Normal Range Normal Bone

A

833mg/cm2

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27
Q

Osteopenic bone DXA range

A

833-648 mg/cm2

28
Q

Osteoporosis DXA range

A

<648 mg/cm2

29
Q

Piaget Disease of Bone definition

A
  • Chronic accelerated remodeling of spongy bone
  • Symptomless
  • Bowing of legs
  • Fractres
30
Q

Causes of Piaget Disease of Bone

A

-Early viral infection and genetic causes likely

31
Q

Symptoms of Pagets Disease (9)

A
  • Bone pain -Fracture
  • Joint pain -Neck pain
  • Headache -Reduced height
  • Bowing of the legs -Hearing loss
  • Warmth of skin
32
Q

Osteomyelitis definition

A
  • Bone infection often caused by bacteria

- Stahylococcus aureus

33
Q

Hematogeous Osteomyelitis

A

Pathogens are carried through the bloodstream

34
Q

Brodie abscesses

A

Characterize subacute or chronic osteomyelitis

35
Q

Osteomyelitis treatment

A
  • Antibiotics
  • Debridement
  • Surgery
  • Hyperbaric oxygen therapy
36
Q

Osteoarthritis where is the problem?

A

The cartilage that cushions the ends of bones

37
Q

Osteoarthritis is characterized by (2)

A
  • Loss and damage of articular cartilage

- New bone formation of joint margins

38
Q

Two types of bone formations that are associated with osteoarthritis (2)

A

Heberden’s and Bushard’s

39
Q

Osteoarthritis Risk Factors (3)

A
  • Increased age
  • Joint trauma
  • Obesity
40
Q

Symptoms of osteoarthritis (2)

A
  • Pain that worsens with activity

- Stiffness that diminishes with activity

41
Q

Rheumatoid Arthritis Definition

A
  • Autoimmune disease

- Systemic damage to connective tissue, primarily in the joints (synovial membrane)

42
Q

RA manifestations (8)

A
  • Inflammation -Weight loss
  • Fever -Generalized aching
  • Fatigue -Siffness
  • Weakness
  • Anorexia
43
Q

RA experiences what tell tale sign in the wrists?

A

Ulnar drift

44
Q

RA is diagnosed with what lab values

A

Autoantibodies (RF)

45
Q

RA Evaluation

A
  • 4 or more of the following
  • Morning stiffness lasting at least one hour
  • Arthritis in 3 or more areas
  • Arthritis of the hand joints
  • Rheumatoid nodules
  • Abnormal RF
  • Radiographic changes
46
Q

Gout definition (2)

A
  • Inflammatory response to excessive quantities of úrico acid
  • Elevated levels lead to formation of irate crystals in joints
47
Q

Gout risk factors

A
  • Males
  • Increasing age
  • High intake of alcohol, red meat, and fructose
48
Q

Individuals with gout are 1000x more likely to develop what compared to the general population

A

Renal stones

49
Q

Fibromyalgia definition

A

Chronic, widespread diffuse joint and muscle pain, fatigue, and tender points

50
Q

Fibromyalgia symptoms

A
  • Increased sensitivity to touch

- Fatigue and non restorative sleep

51
Q

Fibromyalgia Manifestations

A
  • Diffuse, chronic pain

- Profound fatigue

52
Q

Diagnosis of fibromyalgia (4)

A
  • Axial pain
  • Left and right sided pain
  • Upper and lower segment pain
  • SS score
53
Q

Bone Tumors can originate from where?

A
  • Bone cells
  • Cartilage
  • Fibrous tissue
  • Marrow
  • Vascular tissue
54
Q

Most common malignant bone forming tumor

A

Osteosarcoma

55
Q

Osteosarcoma is predominantly found in what age people?

A

20 years and younger

56
Q

Ewing sarcoma (2)

A
  • Most lethal childhood bone tumor

- Penetrates the bone to form soft tissue mass

57
Q

How to the foot turn in children with clubfoot?

A

Inward and downward

58
Q

Hip Dysplasia Risk Factors (3)

A
  • Female sex
  • Positive family history
  • Breech presentation
59
Q

How can the hip present in individuals with hip dysplasia?

A
  • Subluxated
  • Dislocated
  • Acetabular dysplasia
60
Q

How is hip dysplasia managed? (4)

A
  • Pavlik harness
  • Closed reduction with spica casting
  • Surgery
  • Outcome becomes poorer with age
61
Q

Scoliosis is defined as…

A

Rotational curvature of the spine

62
Q

Symptoms of Scoliosis (4)

A
  • Uneven shoulders
  • Uneven waist
  • One hip elevated compared to the other
  • Leaning to one side
63
Q

Scoliosis Complications

A
  • Lung and heart damage
  • Bone loss
  • Back problems
  • Emotional effects
64
Q

What is the most common neuromuscular disorder in children?

A

Duchenne Muscular Dystrophy

65
Q

Duchenne Muscular Dystrophy is what type of inheritance?

A

X-linked recessive gene

66
Q

When to Duchenne Muscular Dystrophy manifestations begin to appear?

A

3-4 years old

67
Q

Manifestations of Duchenne Muscular Dystrophy (6)

A
  • Progressive weakness
  • Respiratory insufficiency
  • Cardiomyopathy
  • Orthopedic complications
  • Cognitive dysfunction
  • Constipation