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Year 1 Summative 2 > BMS04 > Flashcards

BMS04 Flashcards

1
Q

Name 4 ways anti-biotics prevent transcription/translation occuring

A

Mimic tRNA to AA can’t be added
Inhibit peptidyl transferase enzyme
Block the tRNA binding site so AA can’t be added
Distort the shape of the ribosome so mRNA can’t bind to it

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2
Q

What does peptidyl transferase do?

A

Forms peptide bonds between AA and moves the chain along through the ribosome

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3
Q

What is the 3rd base wobble?

A

When if the 3rd base changes to a different on but the first 2 remain the same the AA won’t change

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4
Q

What is a codon?

A

The 3 bases used to choose an AA

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5
Q

What is the genetic code?

A

How each genetic codon makes an AA

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6
Q

What is the central dogma?

A

Going from DNA to RNA

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7
Q

What is an anticodon?

A

The 3 bases held in tRNA

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8
Q

What does aminoacyl-tRNA synthetase do?

A

Charges tRNA by using ATP to add the AA to it

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9
Q

How does the ribosomal unit form?

A

Initiation factors attach a tRNA to the 30s subunit, the 50s subunit the joins releasing the initiation

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10
Q

How does the AA chain stop getting longer?

A

Release factor reads a stop codon

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11
Q

What happens in the E site of the ribosome?

A

Where tRNA leaves the ribosome

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12
Q

What happens in the P site of the ribosome?

A

Holds tRNA on the mRNA chain

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13
Q

What happens in the A site of the ribosome?

A

A holds the tRNA which is going to be added to the chain next

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14
Q

How is bacteria translation different to ours? (2)

A

The chain is translated as it is being made and one chain codes for multiple peptides not just one

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15
Q

Describe the 4 areas of the mRNA chain

A

5 untranslated region, open reading frame (mRNA), 3 untranslated region and a polyA tail

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16
Q

What does untranslated region mean?

A

This section is transcribed but not translated

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17
Q

What is the purpose of the polyA tail? (3)

A

Stop enzymes degrading it and helps transportation/translation

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18
Q

What does the untranslated region do?

A

Regulate translation

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19
Q

Name a start codon

A

AUG

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20
Q

Name 3 stop codons

A

UAA, UAG and UGA

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21
Q

In basic terms what is mitosis?

A

Chromosomes separating and being duplicated

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22
Q

What is cytokinesis?

A

Cell dividing into 2

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23
Q

What is interphase?

A

The from one batch of mitosis to the next

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24
Q

What happens in G1?

A

Deciding whether to divide or not

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25
Q

What happens in S?

A

Chromosomes duplicate

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26
Q

What happens in G2?

A

Chromosomes move to the other side of the cell ready to decide

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27
Q

If the cell is resting what is this called?

A

Quiescent

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28
Q

What do centromeres do?

A

Hold 2 chromatids together to make a chromosome

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29
Q

What is the purpose of the kinetochore?

A

Binds to the centromere so the microtubules have something to attach to

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30
Q

What makes up a centrosome?

A

Centriole and microtubules

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31
Q

What 2 key words are associated with heteroploid?

A

Polyploid when there are too many chromosomes in a diploid set
Aneuploid is the wrong number of chromatids in a haploid set

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32
Q

What is a karyotype?

A

The number type and shape of chromosomes unique to and defining each species

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33
Q

What makes up chromatin?

A

DNA and protein

34
Q

What is heterochromatin and which 2 places is this found?

A

highly condense DNA at the ends of chromosomes and at the centromere

35
Q

What is a telomere made of and what does it do (3)?

A

G rich sequence stopping deterioration, fusion and increasing the length of the chromosome as DNA polymerase doesn’t translate until the end

36
Q

When are telomeres made?

A

In the embryo and no more after that- they are responsible for ageing

37
Q

What happens in prophase? (3)

A

Chromosomes condense, nucleolus disappears and spindles form

38
Q

What happens in prometaphase? (2)

A

Envelope disintegrates and spindles attach to the kinetochore

39
Q

What happens in metaphase?

A

Chromosomes line up

40
Q

What happens in anaphase? (2)

A

Chromatids separate and actin causes cytokinesis

41
Q

What happens in telophase? (4)

A

The envelope reforms, chromosomes de-condense, spindles vanish and the nucleolus reforms

42
Q

What is the place where crossing over occur called?

A

Chiasmata

43
Q

Single stranded binding protein

A

Bind single strands of DNA so they then can’t bind to eachother

44
Q

DNA ligase

A

Links strand together by joining the back bones from 5 to 3

45
Q

RNaseH

A

Removes RNA primers

46
Q

RNA primers

A

Initiate the start of translation

47
Q

Primase

A

Makes RNA primers

48
Q

DNA helicase

A

Unwinds the double stranded DNA

49
Q

Topoisomers

A

Releases the supercoils in DNA

50
Q

How does DNA polymerase proof read?

A

Has exonuclease hydrolysing enzyme within it

51
Q

What can’t DNA polymerase do?

A

Start strand synthesis, it merely extends strands

52
Q

How does DNA polymerase hold the strand?

A

Sliding clamp

53
Q

Name the lagging strand fragments

A

Okazaki fragments

54
Q

Where does the strand split?

A

At the replication fork

55
Q

Why can’t the lagging strand be continuously replicated?

A

The 5 end is never truly accessible

56
Q

Explain why DNA is replicated 5 “ 3

A

It starts on the 3 of the template strand meaning the strand it makes starts with the 5 therefore is 5 to 3

57
Q

Describe DNA replication (7)

A

Proteins anneal to the binding site, helicase unwinds the strain, SSB bind the single strands, RNA primers bind so DNA polymerase can bind at the 3’ end, DNA ligase joins the fragments and then rNaseH removes the primers

58
Q

What are CpG islands?

A

Areas of lots of methylated C and G

59
Q

What does SAHA do?

A

It is an inhibitor stopping acyl groups being removed from histones

60
Q

What does 5-azacytidine do?

A

Stops methylation by inhibiting methyltransferase

61
Q

What forms chromatin?

A

DNA and histones

62
Q

What forms a histone? (3)

A

Globular head, 8 nucleosomes and N terminal tail

63
Q

What part of chromatin is affected to change transcription?

A

Histone tails

64
Q

Name the 4 ways the tails are affected

A

Acylation turns DNA off, methylation on, phosphorylation on and proteins can attach to them

65
Q

What else can be acylated?

A

Nucleosomes

66
Q

What is epigenetics? (3)

A

The fact that the genes are the same but its the expression that changes, how genes interact with the environment to make the phenotype, they are passed down

67
Q

Which AA gets methylated?

A

Cytosine

68
Q

How do proteins access DNA?

A

From methyl groups sticking out of the major groove

69
Q

What can prevent transcription?

A

Sequence specific DNA binding transcription factors

70
Q

Where does transcription start?

A

At the TATA box a non coding promotor

71
Q

How does polyadenylation work?

A

Binds to the polyA tail on the mRNA so it can’t swim around

72
Q

What 2 things decide gene expression?

A

Trans regulatory proteins and cis acting gene sequences

73
Q

What do trans regulatory proteins do?

A

Bind to the DNA promotor to allow DNA polymerase to bind

74
Q

What do cis acting gene sequences control?

A

Control transcription initiation

75
Q

What are the difference between purines and pyrimidines?

A

Purines are bigger; A and G

Pyrimidines; C, T and U

76
Q

Which directions do enzymes work on DNA?

A

Antiparallel

77
Q

What makes DNA polar?

A

Phosphodiester bonds

78
Q

What makes a nucleoside?

A

Base and sugar

79
Q

What makes a nucleoside monophosphate?

A

Base, sugar and phosphate

80
Q

What’s the difference between RNA and DNA pentose sugars?

A

RNA is deoxy and DNA is oxy

81
Q

What is at the 3 end and 5 end of DNA?

A

3: sugar
5: phosphate

Year 1 Summative 2 (24 decks)

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