Biochemistry Final Flashcards
What is the classification of vaccines
Alive weakened pathogens: live attenuated
Dead pathogens: inactivated
What are the types of pathogens used in vaccines
Viruses, bacteria, protein based, polysaccharide based (pure, conjugate)
What are live attenuated vaccines
Weakened form of bacteria or virus, similar to natural infection, effective in one dose, possible severe reaction
What are some examples of live attenuated vaccines
Measles, Herpes, TB, Typhoid
What are inactivated vaccines
Cannot replicate, generally not as effective, requires multiple doses, humoral immune response, may diminish with time
What are some examples of inactivated vaccines
Hep A and B, HPV, Rabies, Cholera, Plague, Lyme, Toxoid
What is a toxoid
A bacterial toxin whose toxicity has been inactivated or suppressed either by chemicals or heat while immunogenicity is maintained
What is an example of a toxoid
Tetanus
Why is HIV so hard to vaccinate against
Because the virus attacks the helper t cells (the virus’ evolution is too fast)
What is acellular vaccine
Only inject pieces of the vaccinations
Just as effective without side effects
What is MMR
3 in one vaccine, Measles, Mumps, Rubella
What are the disadvantages of attenuated vaccines
The virus may very rarely revert to its virulent form and cause disease
What is a subunit vaccine
Hep B surface antigen is produced from a gene transfected into yeast cells and purified for injection as a subunit vaccine
What is a recombinant vaccine
genes for desired antigen inserted into virus that has a low virulence
what are the disadvantages of a recombinant vaccine
dangerous and new/experimental
In the definition of epidemiology, distribution refers to:
Who
When
Where
In the definition of epidemiology, determinants includes
Agents Causes Control measure Risk Factors Sources (all of the above)
John Snow’s investigation of cholera is considered a model for epidemiologic field investigations because it included
all of the above
pubic health surveillance includes which of the following activities
B, C, D
case reports, graphs, writing a report
The hallmark feature of an analytic epidemiologic study is
use of an appropriate comparison group
Cruise ship from puerto rico
A
Comparing numbers and rates of illness in a community, rates are preferred for
estimating subgroups at highest risk
For the cruise ship scenario described in Question 6, how would you display the time course of the outbreak
epidemic curve
For the cruise ship scenario, if you suspected that the norovirus may have been transmitted by ice made or served aboard ship, how might you display place
A, B, C
spot map assigned dinner seating
spot map by cabin
shaded map of united states by state of residence
Which variables might you have included in characterizing the outbreak described in question 7 by person
A, C
age of passenger
status as passenger or crew
When analyzing surveillance data by age, which of the following age groups is preferred
depends on the disease
a study in which children are randomly assigned is an example of which type of study
A, E
experimental
clinical trial
The Iowa Women’s health study is an example of which type of study
B, C
Observational
Cohort
British investigators conducted a study to compare measles-mumps-rubella
B, D
observational
Case control
A cohort study differs from a case control study in that
subjects are enrolled or categorized on the basis of their exposure status in a cohort study but not in a case control study
A key feature of a cross sectional study is that
A, C, D
the epidemiologic triad of disease causation refers to
agent, host, environment
A reservoir of an infectious agent can be
all of the above
Indirect transmission includes which of the following
B, C, D
mosquito borne
foodborne
doorknobs or toilet seats
Disease control measures are generally directed at which of the following
all of the above
40-50 cases per week, last week 48 cases
endemic
fewer than 10 cases per year, last week 1 case
sporadic
usually no more than 2-4 cases per week, last week 13 cases
outbreak
A propagated epidemic is usually the result of what type of exposure
person to person
what do all hepatitis viruses have in common
they all lead to inflammation of the liver
Helicobacter pylori infection may lead to
ulcers
a patient presents with a fever and an elevated white blood cell count. the most likely agent of infection is
a fungus, bacteria, or virus
the rash in the above image is caused by
Borrelia burgdorferi
Botulism differs from tetanus in that
botulism causes flaccid paralysis and tetanus causes spastic paralysis
urinary tract infections are most likely due to
gram negative bacteria
which of the following is an advantage of the organ system approach to disease
knowledge of the organ systems that are experiencing symtpoms is diagnostic of the portal of entry
the blood brain barrier is
all of the above
antibiotics are commonly prescribed for
UTI’s
urinary tract infections ca be localized to
all of the above
Clostridium tetani bacteria infections usually occur via
exposure of a wound to C tetani spores
tetanus toxin causes
decreased release of neurotransmitter from inhibitory neurons
which from of plague is easily transmitted from person to person
pneumonic blauge
The Streptococcus pneumoniae bacteria
is surrounded by a polysachcaride capsule that makes phagocytosis very difficult
Yersinia pestis is the causative agent of
plague
which of the following is true of Neisseria menigitidis
it enters the cerebrospinal fluid via transcytosis
the cause of crutzfeldt-jakob disease, a spongiform encephalopathy, is most commonly thought to be
a prion
bacterial infection of the blood
bacteremia
selectively permeable membrane that supplies blood to the brain
blood brain barrier
a tick bone disease caused by borrelia bacteria
borreliosis
food borne disease caused by botulinum toxin that causes muscle paralysis
botulism
a disease caused by yersinia bacteria that causes lymph nodes that turn black
bubonic plague
a painless ulceration sore in primary stage syphilis - treponema bacteria
chancre
an obligate bacteria that is an intracellular parasite
chlamydia
transmitted from mother to child, 40% stillbirth, nose pus and rash
congenital syphilis
inflammation of the heart and inner lining
endocarditis
a bulls-eye rash of Lyme’s disease
erythema migrans
inflammation of the liver caused by infection or toxins
hepatitis
a lesion of infection or canceric cells that develop to secondary sites away from the site of infection
metastatic lesion
severe skin infection that is called flesh eating disease caused by gram positive streptococca pyogenesis
necrotizing fasciitis
highly virulent and contagious yersinia lung infection
penumonic plague
lesion called a chancre 21 days after infection, treponema bacteria
primary syphilis
an infectious agent that misfolds host proteins and makes them defective
prion
viruses that have non enveloped RNA and cause severe diarrhea in children
rotavirus
6-8 weeks becomes systemic, latent rashes, lesions
secondary syphilis
infection of the blood stream
septicemia
infection of blood by yersinia pestis bacteria
septicemic plague
serious and harmful immunological consequence of cross reaction between host on tigens and bacterial antigens
sequela
brain wasting disease caused by a prion
spongiform encephalopathy
10-30 years, cardiovascular syphilis, neurosyphilis
tertiary syphilis
tetanus causing exotoxin produced by tetani bacteria
tatanospasmin
the movement of a cell from one side of a cell to the other side
transcytosis
the presence of large numbers of virions in the blood
viremia
an infection that normally affects animals but can be transmitted to humans as well
zoonotic disease
what is found in patients with prostate carcinoma, but not in patients that only have benign prostatic hyperplasia
Prostatic acid phosphatase (PAP)
which childhood cancer has bombesin as a tumor marker
neuroblastoma
what cancer is NOT associated with B-hCG
Prostate carcinoma
what tumor marker is extremely elevated in a patient with a hydatidiform mole
B-hCG
what cancer marker is associated with CA-125
surface epithelial tumors of the ovaries
which tumor marker is associated with pancreatic cancers
CEA
CA-19-9
What tumor marker is associated with melanoma
S-100
obstructive billiary disease and paget’s disease of the bone have which of the following tumor markers in common
alkaline phosphatase
antibiosis is
an association between organisms that is injurious to one of them
TRUE OR FALSE: prokaryotic cells are human cells that are targeted by bacteria
false
the way in which an antibiotic attacks a pathogenic microorganism is
antimicrobial activity
a super infection is caused by
a pathogen that is resistant to the antibiotic
what destroys many types of bacteria?
broad spectrum antibiotics
TRUE OR FALSE: the bacteriostatic strategy is a direct hit, killing the pathogen
FALSE
what is the spectrum of antimicrobial activity
the number of different types of pathogenic microorganisms that an antibiotic can destroy
sulfanilamide is a
antimetabolite
TRUE OR FALSE the bacteriostasis strategy causes the host’ immune system to fight the pathogen through phagocytosis
True
TRUE OR FALSE penicillin is a cell wall inhibitor
True
what did paul ehrlich do
dye that stains bacteria cells and not animal cells
helped with syphilis
what did alexander fleming do
penicillin mold kills bacteria
what type of microbes produce the most antibiotics
???
general side effects of antibiotics
toxicity: KD, LV, nerve damage
allergies
spectrum of activity
antimicrobial medications vary with respect to the range of microorganisms they kill or inhibit
broad-spectrum antibiotics
kills wide range
narrow spectrum antimicrobial
some kill only limited range
5 modes of action of antimicrobial drugs
- inhibit cell wall
- inhibit protein
- inhibit nucleic acid
- injury to plasma membrane
- inhibit essential metabolites
what does penicilin do
inhibits cell wall synthesis
what does aminoglycosides do
bind to 30s subunit of ribosome causing it to distort and malfunction blocking initiation of translation
what does tetracycline do
bind to 30s subunit blocking attachment of tRNA
what do macrolides do
bind 50s subunit and prevent continuation of protein synthesis
what do rifamycins do
block prokaryotic RNA polymerase from initiating transcription
what does polymyxin do
binds to membrane G-bacteria and alters permeability
what do quinolones do
inhibit enzymes that maintain the supercoiling of closed structural DNA
what do sulfa drugs do
inhibit synthesis of essential metabolites
what are the modes of action of currently used antifungal drugs
- agents affecting fungal sterols
- agents affecting fungal cell walls
- agents inhibiting nucleic acids
what are the modes of action of currently used antiviral drugs
various points of viral reproduction
bacteriostatic
inhibit growth of microorganisms
bactericidal
kill microorganisms
chemotherapeutic index
lowest dose of toxic to patient divided by dose typically used for therapy
synergistic
action of one drug enhances the activity of another
antagonistic
activity of one drug interferes with the action of another
what are the mechanisms of drug resistance
limits use of all known antimicrobials
what are the three tests of efficacy of antimicrobials
- diffusion susceptibility test
- minimum inhibitory concentration test
- minimum bactericidal concentration test
what are the modes of action of Praziquantel
used in treatment of tapeworms by altering plasma membrane
