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ICTCM Year 2 > Biochemistry Final > Flashcards

Biochemistry Final Flashcards

1
Q

What is the classification of vaccines

A

Alive weakened pathogens: live attenuated

Dead pathogens: inactivated

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2
Q

What are the types of pathogens used in vaccines

A

Viruses, bacteria, protein based, polysaccharide based (pure, conjugate)

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3
Q

What are live attenuated vaccines

A

Weakened form of bacteria or virus, similar to natural infection, effective in one dose, possible severe reaction

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4
Q

What are some examples of live attenuated vaccines

A

Measles, Herpes, TB, Typhoid

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5
Q

What are inactivated vaccines

A

Cannot replicate, generally not as effective, requires multiple doses, humoral immune response, may diminish with time

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6
Q

What are some examples of inactivated vaccines

A

Hep A and B, HPV, Rabies, Cholera, Plague, Lyme, Toxoid

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7
Q

What is a toxoid

A

A bacterial toxin whose toxicity has been inactivated or suppressed either by chemicals or heat while immunogenicity is maintained

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8
Q

What is an example of a toxoid

A

Tetanus

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9
Q

Why is HIV so hard to vaccinate against

A

Because the virus attacks the helper t cells (the virus’ evolution is too fast)

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10
Q

What is acellular vaccine

A

Only inject pieces of the vaccinations

Just as effective without side effects

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11
Q

What is MMR

A

3 in one vaccine, Measles, Mumps, Rubella

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12
Q

What are the disadvantages of attenuated vaccines

A

The virus may very rarely revert to its virulent form and cause disease

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13
Q

What is a subunit vaccine

A

Hep B surface antigen is produced from a gene transfected into yeast cells and purified for injection as a subunit vaccine

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14
Q

What is a recombinant vaccine

A

genes for desired antigen inserted into virus that has a low virulence

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15
Q

what are the disadvantages of a recombinant vaccine

A

dangerous and new/experimental

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16
Q

In the definition of epidemiology, distribution refers to:

A

Who
When
Where

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17
Q

In the definition of epidemiology, determinants includes

A 
Agents
Causes
Control measure
Risk Factors
Sources
(all of the above)
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18
Q

John Snow’s investigation of cholera is considered a model for epidemiologic field investigations because it included

A

all of the above

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19
Q

pubic health surveillance includes which of the following activities

A

B, C, D

case reports, graphs, writing a report

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20
Q

The hallmark feature of an analytic epidemiologic study is

A

use of an appropriate comparison group

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21
Q

Cruise ship from puerto rico

A

A

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22
Q

Comparing numbers and rates of illness in a community, rates are preferred for

A

estimating subgroups at highest risk

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23
Q

For the cruise ship scenario described in Question 6, how would you display the time course of the outbreak

A

epidemic curve

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24
Q

For the cruise ship scenario, if you suspected that the norovirus may have been transmitted by ice made or served aboard ship, how might you display place

A

A, B, C
spot map assigned dinner seating
spot map by cabin
shaded map of united states by state of residence

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25
Q

Which variables might you have included in characterizing the outbreak described in question 7 by person

A

A, C
age of passenger
status as passenger or crew

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26
Q

When analyzing surveillance data by age, which of the following age groups is preferred

A

depends on the disease

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27
Q

a study in which children are randomly assigned is an example of which type of study

A

A, E
experimental
clinical trial

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28
Q

The Iowa Women’s health study is an example of which type of study

A

B, C
Observational
Cohort

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29
Q

British investigators conducted a study to compare measles-mumps-rubella

A

B, D
observational
Case control

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30
Q

A cohort study differs from a case control study in that

A

subjects are enrolled or categorized on the basis of their exposure status in a cohort study but not in a case control study

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31
Q

A key feature of a cross sectional study is that

A

A, C, D

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32
Q

the epidemiologic triad of disease causation refers to

A

agent, host, environment

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33
Q

A reservoir of an infectious agent can be

A

all of the above

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34
Q

Indirect transmission includes which of the following

A

B, C, D
mosquito borne
foodborne
doorknobs or toilet seats

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35
Q

Disease control measures are generally directed at which of the following

A

all of the above

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36
Q

40-50 cases per week, last week 48 cases

A

endemic

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37
Q

fewer than 10 cases per year, last week 1 case

A

sporadic

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38
Q

usually no more than 2-4 cases per week, last week 13 cases

A

outbreak

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39
Q

A propagated epidemic is usually the result of what type of exposure

A

person to person

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40
Q

what do all hepatitis viruses have in common

A

they all lead to inflammation of the liver

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41
Q

Helicobacter pylori infection may lead to

A

ulcers

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42
Q

a patient presents with a fever and an elevated white blood cell count. the most likely agent of infection is

A

a fungus, bacteria, or virus

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43
Q

the rash in the above image is caused by

A

Borrelia burgdorferi

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44
Q

Botulism differs from tetanus in that

A

botulism causes flaccid paralysis and tetanus causes spastic paralysis

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45
Q

urinary tract infections are most likely due to

A

gram negative bacteria

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46
Q

which of the following is an advantage of the organ system approach to disease

A

knowledge of the organ systems that are experiencing symtpoms is diagnostic of the portal of entry

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47
Q

the blood brain barrier is

A

all of the above

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48
Q

antibiotics are commonly prescribed for

A

UTI’s

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49
Q

urinary tract infections ca be localized to

A

all of the above

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50
Q

Clostridium tetani bacteria infections usually occur via

A

exposure of a wound to C tetani spores

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51
Q

tetanus toxin causes

A

decreased release of neurotransmitter from inhibitory neurons

52
Q

which from of plague is easily transmitted from person to person

A

pneumonic blauge

53
Q

The Streptococcus pneumoniae bacteria

A

is surrounded by a polysachcaride capsule that makes phagocytosis very difficult

54
Q

Yersinia pestis is the causative agent of

A

plague

55
Q

which of the following is true of Neisseria menigitidis

A

it enters the cerebrospinal fluid via transcytosis

56
Q

the cause of crutzfeldt-jakob disease, a spongiform encephalopathy, is most commonly thought to be

A

a prion

57
Q

bacterial infection of the blood

A

bacteremia

58
Q

selectively permeable membrane that supplies blood to the brain

A

blood brain barrier

59
Q

a tick bone disease caused by borrelia bacteria

A

borreliosis

60
Q

food borne disease caused by botulinum toxin that causes muscle paralysis

A

botulism

61
Q

a disease caused by yersinia bacteria that causes lymph nodes that turn black

A

bubonic plague

62
Q

a painless ulceration sore in primary stage syphilis - treponema bacteria

A

chancre

63
Q

an obligate bacteria that is an intracellular parasite

A

chlamydia

64
Q

transmitted from mother to child, 40% stillbirth, nose pus and rash

A

congenital syphilis

65
Q

inflammation of the heart and inner lining

A

endocarditis

66
Q

a bulls-eye rash of Lyme’s disease

A

erythema migrans

67
Q

inflammation of the liver caused by infection or toxins

A

hepatitis

68
Q

a lesion of infection or canceric cells that develop to secondary sites away from the site of infection

A

metastatic lesion

69
Q

severe skin infection that is called flesh eating disease caused by gram positive streptococca pyogenesis

A

necrotizing fasciitis

70
Q

highly virulent and contagious yersinia lung infection

A

penumonic plague

71
Q

lesion called a chancre 21 days after infection, treponema bacteria

A

primary syphilis

72
Q

an infectious agent that misfolds host proteins and makes them defective

A

prion

73
Q

viruses that have non enveloped RNA and cause severe diarrhea in children

A

rotavirus

74
Q

6-8 weeks becomes systemic, latent rashes, lesions

A

secondary syphilis

75
Q

infection of the blood stream

A

septicemia

76
Q

infection of blood by yersinia pestis bacteria

A

septicemic plague

77
Q

serious and harmful immunological consequence of cross reaction between host on tigens and bacterial antigens

A

sequela

78
Q

brain wasting disease caused by a prion

A

spongiform encephalopathy

79
Q

10-30 years, cardiovascular syphilis, neurosyphilis

A

tertiary syphilis

80
Q

tetanus causing exotoxin produced by tetani bacteria

A

tatanospasmin

81
Q

the movement of a cell from one side of a cell to the other side

A

transcytosis

82
Q

the presence of large numbers of virions in the blood

A

viremia

83
Q

an infection that normally affects animals but can be transmitted to humans as well

A

zoonotic disease

84
Q

what is found in patients with prostate carcinoma, but not in patients that only have benign prostatic hyperplasia

A

Prostatic acid phosphatase (PAP)

85
Q

which childhood cancer has bombesin as a tumor marker

A

neuroblastoma

86
Q

what cancer is NOT associated with B-hCG

A

Prostate carcinoma

87
Q

what tumor marker is extremely elevated in a patient with a hydatidiform mole

A

B-hCG

88
Q

what cancer marker is associated with CA-125

A

surface epithelial tumors of the ovaries

89
Q

which tumor marker is associated with pancreatic cancers

A

CEA

CA-19-9

90
Q

What tumor marker is associated with melanoma

A

S-100

91
Q

obstructive billiary disease and paget’s disease of the bone have which of the following tumor markers in common

A

alkaline phosphatase

92
Q

antibiosis is

A

an association between organisms that is injurious to one of them

93
Q

TRUE OR FALSE: prokaryotic cells are human cells that are targeted by bacteria

A

false

94
Q

the way in which an antibiotic attacks a pathogenic microorganism is

A

antimicrobial activity

95
Q

a super infection is caused by

A

a pathogen that is resistant to the antibiotic

96
Q

what destroys many types of bacteria?

A

broad spectrum antibiotics

97
Q

TRUE OR FALSE: the bacteriostatic strategy is a direct hit, killing the pathogen

A

FALSE

98
Q

what is the spectrum of antimicrobial activity

A

the number of different types of pathogenic microorganisms that an antibiotic can destroy

99
Q

sulfanilamide is a

A

antimetabolite

100
Q

TRUE OR FALSE the bacteriostasis strategy causes the host’ immune system to fight the pathogen through phagocytosis

A

True

101
Q

TRUE OR FALSE penicillin is a cell wall inhibitor

A

True

102
Q

what did paul ehrlich do

A

dye that stains bacteria cells and not animal cells

helped with syphilis

103
Q

what did alexander fleming do

A

penicillin mold kills bacteria

104
Q

what type of microbes produce the most antibiotics

A

???

105
Q

general side effects of antibiotics

A

toxicity: KD, LV, nerve damage

allergies

106
Q

spectrum of activity

A

antimicrobial medications vary with respect to the range of microorganisms they kill or inhibit

107
Q

broad-spectrum antibiotics

A

kills wide range

108
Q

narrow spectrum antimicrobial

A

some kill only limited range

109
Q

5 modes of action of antimicrobial drugs

A
  1. inhibit cell wall
  2. inhibit protein
  3. inhibit nucleic acid
  4. injury to plasma membrane
  5. inhibit essential metabolites
110
Q

what does penicilin do

A

inhibits cell wall synthesis

111
Q

what does aminoglycosides do

A

bind to 30s subunit of ribosome causing it to distort and malfunction blocking initiation of translation

112
Q

what does tetracycline do

A

bind to 30s subunit blocking attachment of tRNA

113
Q

what do macrolides do

A

bind 50s subunit and prevent continuation of protein synthesis

114
Q

what do rifamycins do

A

block prokaryotic RNA polymerase from initiating transcription

115
Q

what does polymyxin do

A

binds to membrane G-bacteria and alters permeability

116
Q

what do quinolones do

A

inhibit enzymes that maintain the supercoiling of closed structural DNA

117
Q

what do sulfa drugs do

A

inhibit synthesis of essential metabolites

118
Q

what are the modes of action of currently used antifungal drugs

A
  1. agents affecting fungal sterols
  2. agents affecting fungal cell walls
  3. agents inhibiting nucleic acids
119
Q

what are the modes of action of currently used antiviral drugs

A

various points of viral reproduction

120
Q

bacteriostatic

A

inhibit growth of microorganisms

121
Q

bactericidal

A

kill microorganisms

122
Q

chemotherapeutic index

A

lowest dose of toxic to patient divided by dose typically used for therapy

123
Q

synergistic

A

action of one drug enhances the activity of another

124
Q

antagonistic

A

activity of one drug interferes with the action of another

125
Q

what are the mechanisms of drug resistance

A

limits use of all known antimicrobials

126
Q

what are the three tests of efficacy of antimicrobials

A
  1. diffusion susceptibility test
  2. minimum inhibitory concentration test
  3. minimum bactericidal concentration test
127
Q

what are the modes of action of Praziquantel

A

used in treatment of tapeworms by altering plasma membrane

ICTCM Year 2 (24 decks)

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