Best Practices: Email Deliverability and Privacy Flashcards

1
Q

According to the 2014 Email Deliverability 101 report, how many opt-in marketing emails never make it to the in-box?

A

Over 20%.

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2
Q

Where do emails that don’t make it to in-boxes end up?

A

In spam or junk folders, or are blocked by ISP-level filtering before even making it to the email address.

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3
Q

What region had the highest rate of commercial emails delivered to the in-box?

A

Europe.

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4
Q

Define email deliverability.

A

The process of putting your email marketing messages into the in-box of recipients.

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5
Q

One of the key factors to successful email deliverability is creating email campaigns that are __________

A

relevant to your audience.

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6
Q

Your ability to reach prospects’ in-box is tied to ___

A

deliverability and privacy.

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7
Q

You are responsible for developing a comprehensive ___

A

privacy policy.

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8
Q

You need to reduce the likelihood of _____, unsubscribes, bounces, and spam traps.

A

complaints

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9
Q

You need to reduce the likelihood of complaints, ____, bounces, and spam traps.

A

unsubscribes

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10
Q

You need to reduce the likelihood of complaints, unsubscribes, ___, and spam traps.

A

bounces

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11
Q

You need to reduce the likelihood of complaints, unsubscribes, bounces, and ____.

A

spam traps.

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12
Q

Your reputation as an _____ impacts your potential reach as a marketer.

A

email sender

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13
Q

To understand your email service provider’s capabilities, you should (1) _________; (2) get proper counsel; (3) attain third-party certification as a trusted sender.

A

know privacy laws where you do business

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14
Q

To understand your email service provider’s capabilities, you should (1) know privacy laws where you do business; (2) _____; (3) attain third-party certification as a trusted sender.

A

get proper counsel

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15
Q

To understand your email service provider’s capabilities, you should (1) know privacy laws where you do business; (2) get proper counsel; (3) ______.

A

attain third-party certification as a trusted sender.

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16
Q

Best practices for successful email deliverability: (1) ______, (2) Manage your email list, (3) Optimize your content.

A

Manage your reputation

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17
Q

Best practices for successful email deliverability: (1) Manage your reputation, (2) _____, (3) Optimize your content.

A

Manage your email list

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18
Q

Best practices for successful email deliverability: (1) Manage your reputation, (2) Manage your email list, (3) ______.

A

Optimize your content

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19
Q

____ is based on your behavior as an email sender.

A

Sender reputation

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20
Q

To manage your sender reputation, you need to know your __

A

Sender score

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21
Q

Spam filtering has made a shift from _______ to a reputation based system.

A

content scoring

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22
Q

To manage your email reputation, you need to control ______.

A

spam complaints.

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23
Q

To keep spam complaints down and comply with regulations, you should ______

A

obtain recipient permissions.

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24
Q

To see the data underlying your email sender score, you can _____

A

register at senderscore.org.

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25
Q

Sender scores use the following data: (1) _____, (2) complaint rates (3) unknown user rates (4) infrastructure (5) spam trap hits (6) content

A

send volume

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26
Q

Sender scores use the following data: (1) send volume, (2) _____ (3) unknown user rates (4) infrastructure (5) spam trap hits (6) content

A

complaint rates

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27
Q

Sender scores use the following data: (1) send volume, (2) complaint rates (3) ____ (4) infrastructure (5) spam trap hits (6) content

A

unknown user rates

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28
Q

Sender scores use the following data: (1) send volume, (2) complaint rates (3) unknown user rates (4) ___ (5) spam trap hits (6) content

A

infrastructure

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29
Q

Sender scores use the following data: (1) send volume, (2) complaint rates (3) unknown user rates (4) infrastructure (5) ___ (6) content

A

spam trap hits

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30
Q

Sender scores use the following data: (1) send volume, (2) complaint rates (3) unknown user rates (4) infrastructure (5) spam trap hits (6) _____

A

content

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31
Q

Sender scores are based on a scale of

A

0 to 100

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32
Q

If you would like to see your Sender Score, you must first know if…

A

you are using a Dedicated IP or a Shared IP

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33
Q

If you are on the Shared IP range, can one company’s bad behavior affect another company’s sender score?

A

Yes.

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34
Q

Besides senderscore.org, where can you find more statistical information on sender scores?

A

Eloqua Trust page.

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35
Q

What did a Return Path study learn about messages sent by senders with a sender score lower than 50?

A

Over 85% of them were classified as spam.

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36
Q

For webmail providers, a sender score of 90+ equals what average inbox rate?

A

84%

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37
Q

What is the #1 global deliverability organization?

A

ReturnPath

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38
Q

If your sender score is in the highest benchmark range of 90-100, what will your average deliverability rate be?

A

95%

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39
Q

Where do most legitimate businesses fall in terms of sender score, and what does this mean for their average deliverability rate?

A

Most fall in the range between 60 and 89, and end up with an average deliverabiity rate of 68%.

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40
Q

Sender Scores are based on what three key components?

A

Complaints, unknown users, and spam traps.

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41
Q

What is the “unknown users” component of sender score?

A

The percentage of emails sent from an IP address to nonexistent addresses - aka hard bouncebacks.

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42
Q

______ are dummy email addresses developed by ISP’s or anti-spam organizations to catch illegitimate emails.

A

Spam traps

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43
Q

If your email is caught in a Spam Trap, ISPs send out a _____ message.

A

5XX Unknown User SMTP error message

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44
Q

One Spam Trap can decrease your Sender Score and inbox placement rates by how much?

A

Your Sender Score can decrease by more than 20 points and your inbox placement rates can go to 81% and lower.

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45
Q

Spam Traps can cause your ____ to become blacklisted.

A

Mailing IP’s and/or domains

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46
Q

Membership in the ____ may be suspended for exceeding acceptable Span Trap thresholds.

A

Return Path Certification Program.

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47
Q

Because identifying Spam Traps can be time consuming, you should narrow in on …

A

suspicious segments.

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48
Q

For the most part, _____ are the primary source of Spam Trap addresses.

A

rented or purchased lists.

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49
Q

You can manage Spam Traps by using an _____ filter to…

A

using an inactivity-based filter to filter out inactive contacts from your list.

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50
Q

A ______ can check your lists against known spam trap addresses.

A

third-party service

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51
Q

If you need more help with spam traps, consider using a…

A

Delivery Program Assistance incident.

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52
Q

A Delivery Program Assistance incident is available as part of Eloqua’s…

A

Branding and Delivery Boost package.

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53
Q

To control complaints, (1) monitor complaint trends and (2)

A

Avoid getting on blacklists.

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54
Q

To control complaints, (1) ___ and (2) Avoid getting on blacklists.

A

monitor complaint trends

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55
Q

As a best practice, keep a close eye on your complaints. When should you benchmark?

A

Every few months and/or when you email in large batches.

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56
Q

A _____ is a list of IP addresses, URLs, or domain names that are to be avoided.

A

blacklist

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57
Q

Blacklists are chiefly used to publish…

A

lists of addresses linked to spamming.

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58
Q

tip 1 to remove yourself from a blacklist: (1) visit the link to the ______ that is included in the notification

A

blocking service

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59
Q

tip 2 to remove yourself from a blacklist: (2) If the link to the blocking service is not provided, search your ___

A

Bounceback History report

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60
Q

tip 3 to remove yourself from a blacklist: contact the _____ to discuss and identify the issue

A

ESP/ISP Postmaster

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61
Q

How can you find out if you’re on a blacklist?

A

Use an online tool

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62
Q

If you’ve been blocked via blacklist, you will typically…

A

receive a notification.

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63
Q

___ is an email validation system, allowing admins to specify which hosts are allowed to send email from a given domain.

A

Sender Policy Framework (SPF)

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64
Q

What does SPF stand for?

A

Sender Policy Framework

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65
Q

SPF creates a specific ______ in your DNS settings.

A

SPF or TXT record

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66
Q

When Eloqua is first installed, part of the implementation process involves setting your ____ to validate email spoofing.

A

SPF record details within the DNS settings on all sending domains.

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67
Q

A _____ is a list of approved IP addresses and senders.

A

whitelist

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68
Q

To get your IP address on a whitelist, you need to establish a track record as a ___

A

permission-based email marketer.

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69
Q

_____ provides the certification to whitelist your IP address.

A

Return Path

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70
Q

Does manually moving messages into the junk folder impact the complaint rate?

A

Not on a desktop client like Outlook, but it will on web clients like Gmail.

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71
Q

The rate of email complaints _____ as the sender score rises.

A

falls dramatically

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72
Q

To gain recipient permission, send emails only when ____

A

explicitly requested.

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73
Q

To gain recipient permission, _____ neutral contacts.

A

target neutral contacts in an attempt to get them to opt-in.

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74
Q

To gain recipient permission, ____ inactive contacts.

A

re-engage

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75
Q

To gain recipient permission, _______ active opt-in contacts

A

strengthen your relationship with active opt-in contacts.

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76
Q

To gain recipient permission, respect…

A

subscriber preferences about content and timing.

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77
Q

When someone submits an email address in a web form, then submits that address again on a second page, it is referred to as…

A

double opt-in.

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78
Q

When someone fills out a web form, then affirms their request again to be on your mailing list, it is referred to as…

A

confirmed opt-in.

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79
Q

Spammers use the term _______ to refer to a situation where the subscriber was opted in without their consent, then “opted in” a second time by failing to unsubscribe.

A

double opt-in

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80
Q

As a best practice, use the __ to increase the number of valid emails in your database.

A

Confirmed Opt-In

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81
Q

Is Confirmed Opt-In widely used? Why or why not?

A

It is used by very few clients because of its impact on the subscription rates.

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82
Q

To manage your email list, (1) ____, (2) perform IP warming, (3) process bouncebacks, (4) filter to find active contacts.

A

validate list sources.

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83
Q

To manage your email list, (1) validate list sources, (2) perform IP warming, (3) _____, (4) filter to find active contacts.

A

process bouncebacks

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84
Q

To manage your email list, (1) validate list sources, (2) perform IP warming, (3) process bouncebacks, (4) ___

A

filter to find active contacts.

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85
Q

To manage your email list, (1) validate list sources, (2) _____, (3) process bouncebacks, (4) filter to find active contacts.

A

perform IP warming

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86
Q

True or false: Best practice says do not buy or rent lists.

A

True.

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87
Q

If you buy lists, understand (1) _____ (2) age and last usage date (3) how they monitor and remove complainers (4) how they verify and maintain opt-in statuses

A

source of data

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88
Q

If you buy lists, understand (1) source of data (2) ________ (3) how they monitor and remove complainers (4) how they verify and maintain opt-in statuses

A

age and last usage date

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89
Q

If you buy lists, understand (1) source of data (2) age and last usage date (3) ______ (4) how they verify and maintain opt-in statuses

A

how they monitor and remove complainers

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90
Q

If you buy lists, understand (1) source of data (2) age and last usage date (3) how they monitor and remove complainers (4) ____

A

how they verify and maintain opt-in statuses

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91
Q

Use Case - Eloqua’s marketing IP had been blocked on ____

A

SpamHaus

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92
Q

Eloqua had to remove a purchased list from its database in its entirety, which meant…

A

they lost addresses they had paid for.

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93
Q

Out of the SpamHaus incident, Eloqua’s ___ document was born.

A

Outside List Acquisition Best Practices document

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94
Q

To perform IP warming, (1) send emails to all addresses in a phased manner and then remove hard bounces; (2) ______; (3) use recent contact info only; (4) use HTML with simple design; (4) review reports after each send.

A

confirm the list does not contain previously unsubscribed addresses

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95
Q

To perform IP warming, (1) ______ (2) confirm the list does not contain previously unsubscribed addresses; (3) use recent contact info only; (4) use HTML with simple design; (4) review reports after each send.

A

send emails to all addresses in a phased manner and then remove hard bounces;

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96
Q

To perform IP warming, (1) send emails to all addresses in a phased manner and then remove hard bounces; (2) confirm the list does not contain previously unsubscribed addresses; (3) use recent contact info only; (4) ______; (5) review reports after each send.

A

use HTML with simple design

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97
Q

To perform IP warming, (1) send emails to all addresses in a phased manner and then remove hard bounces; (2) confirm the list does not contain previously unsubscribed addresses; (3) use recent contact info only; (4) use HTML with simple design; (5) _____.

A

review reports after each send

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98
Q

To perform IP warming, (1) send emails to all addresses in a phased manner and then remove hard bounces; (2) confirm the list does not contain previously unsubscribed addresses; (3) _____; (4) use HTML with simple design; (4) review reports after each send.

A

use recent contact info only

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99
Q

__ is the process of slowly introducing your new sender IP address by gradually increasing the volume of emails sent from that IP over a period of time.

A

IP warning

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100
Q

Many companies skip the IP warming process. Why?

A

Because it may slow their sending for the first month.

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101
Q

In IP warming, the first step uses content that is…

A

not time sensitive.

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102
Q

3 good campaign types to use for IP warming are:

A

(1) a data harvest campaign, (2) a campaign to update subscription options, or (3) a simple newsletter campaign

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103
Q

Step 2 in IP warming is to build a list of contacts that…

A

have explicitly opted-in.

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104
Q

In the first week of IP warming, send the email to…

A

1% of your total list each day.

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105
Q

In the second week of IP warming, send the email to..

A

3% of the list each day

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106
Q

In the third week of IP warming, increase the email send to…

A

10% of the list each day.

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107
Q

During IP warming, monitor and remove contacts who…

A

bounceback, unsubscribe, or complain.

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108
Q

To manage lists successfully, (1) ____ (2) keep hard bouncebacks under 3% (3) monitor spam complaints and bounceback reports

A

remove hard bouncebacks from segment

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109
Q

To manage lists successfully, (1) remove hard bouncebacks from segment (2) _____ (3) monitor spam complaints and bounceback reports

A

keep hard bouncebacks under 3%

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110
Q

To manage lists successfully, (1) remove hard bouncebacks from segment (2) keep hard bouncebacks under 3% (3) ____

A

monitor spam complaints and bounceback reports

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111
Q

Eloqua by default auto-suppresses any sends to a Contact flagged as a…

A

hard bounceback

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112
Q

Not sending to hard bouncebacks supports…

A

reporting

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113
Q

What timeframe do most Eloqua clients use to weed out inactive contacts?

A

3 - 6 months

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114
Q

After __ unsuccessful attempts to engage contacts, it’s time to…

A

suppress them from future sends.

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115
Q

To manage your content, (1) ______, (2) optimize relevancy and frequency, (3) review and refine content.

A

reinforce email expectations

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116
Q

To manage your content, (1) reinforce email expectations, (2) ______, (3) review and refine content.

A

optimize relevancy and frequency

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117
Q

To manage your content, (1) reinforce email expectations, (2) optimize relevancy and frequency, (3) ______.

A

review and refine content

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118
Q

To reinforce email expectations, (1) ______, (2) send welcome messages, (3) check in with contacts periodically, (4) move subscription management options to upper half of your emails

A

communicate your privacy policy

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119
Q

To reinforce email expectations, (1) communicate your privacy policy, (2) send welcome messages, (3) _____, (4) move subscription management options to upper half of your emails

A

check in with contacts periodically

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120
Q

To reinforce email expectations, (1) communicate your privacy policy, (2) send welcome messages, (3) check in with contacts periodically, (4) ____

A

move subscription management options to upper half of your emails

121
Q

To reinforce email expectations, (1) communicate your privacy policy, (2) ____, (3) check in with contacts periodically, (4) move subscription management options to upper half of your emails

A

send welcome messages

122
Q

To optimize relevancy and frequency, use ___ to test frequency and determine the optimal mix for your target audience.

A

automated programs

123
Q

To optimize relevancy and frequency, ask subscribers for…

A

input and feedback.

124
Q

What should you strive for in bounce and complaint rates?

A

Bounce rate less than 3%, complaint rate less than 0.01%

125
Q

You should generate reports that provide insight into:

A

bounces, complaints, and unsubscribes

126
Q

Forrester’s Email Marketing Trends 2012 report shows what two are the leading reasons for unsubscribes?

A

Relevance at 31.4%, frequency at 30.7%

127
Q

In the ASCE case study, how did Eloqua help ASCE send to over 1.5 million contacts in 30 days with a 98% inbox acceptance rate?

A

(1) Analyzed lists, (2) optimized content, (3) sent emails in multiple small batches each day.

128
Q

The ______ report allows you to see the contacts that have bounced per email

A

Email Bounceback Overview

129
Q

The ___ report allows you to see specific bounceback error messages

A

Bounceback History with Messaging

130
Q

The __ report allows you to see bounceback messages generated by email sends by Sales reps

A

Sales Email Overview

131
Q

The ____ report allows you to see who has reported you as spam to their email provider

A

Spam Unsubscribe Report

132
Q

What are the three standard testing tools of Eloqua per email?

A

General Deliverability Test, Inbox Preview Test, and Spam Content Check

133
Q

To access the General Deliverability test from an email…

A

Action > Test Content and Deliverability

134
Q

Test Content and Deliverability allows external tests via ___

A

Return Path

135
Q

The _______ test sends your email to a variety of seed accounts and returns Inbox, Junk, and Missing percentages or each domain.

A

General Deliverability Test

136
Q

The output of the General Deliverability test is an __ that displays your deliverability percentages around the world.

A

an Excel file

137
Q

The Excel file that you get after running a General Deliverability Test shows what three statistics?

A

Inbox Percentage, Bulk Percentage, and Missing Percentage.

138
Q

“Missing” emails are what?

A

Emails that never made it to the Inbox or the Junk folders, which typically means they were blocked at the ISP level.

139
Q

The General Deliverability column that reads ISP also includes what else?

A

ESP’s and Spam filters

140
Q

The _____ report shows how emails will appear in a number of different email client inboxes.

A

Inbox Preview Test

141
Q

The ___ and the ____ run together

A

Inbox Preview Test and Spam Content Test

142
Q

The __ examines email performance against a range of commonly used email spam filters.

A

Spam Content Test

143
Q

The Spam Content Test evaluates your email for _____ words

A

spam-like words

144
Q

A link reputation check checks your email for…

A

links to questionable websites

145
Q

Which report shows information more on the bouncebacks themselves, and not the Contacts?

A

Bounceback History with Messaging

146
Q

Name three steps with regards to Email Deliverability Best Practices.

A
  1. Manage your reputation, 2. Manage your email list, 3. Optimize your content
147
Q

What factors is your sender reputation based on?

A

Complaints, unknown users, and spam traps.

148
Q

Canada’s Anti-Spam Legislation is a __ available to everyone

A

Private Right of Action (PRA)

149
Q

True or false: CASL is not limited to email communications.

A

True. It includes all commercial electronic communication.

150
Q

True or false? CASL requires express affirmative consent, or opt-in.

A

True.

151
Q

True or false? CASL requires truthful headers like sender and subject line.

A

True.

152
Q

True or false? CASL permits you to alter transmission data.

A

False.

153
Q

True or false? CASL requires a conspicuous unsubscribe mechanism.

A

True.

154
Q

True or false? CASL requires you to include the postal address of the sender.

A

True.

155
Q

Under CASL, can you perform address harvesting or send to harvested addresses?

A

True.

156
Q

Who has liability under CASL?

A

Entities who knowingly allow spam to be sent on their behalf

157
Q

The CASL law accepts implied opt-in in what 3 situations?

A

(1) existing business relationship; (2) conspicuously published email addresses; (4) recipients have provided email address directly to sender

158
Q

Is it an existing business relationship if someone donates to, volunteers for, or becomes an official member of your organization?

A

No.

159
Q

What are CASL fines?

A

Up to $1 million per violation for individuals, up to $10 million per violation for businesses.

160
Q

To grow your database, adopt rigorous list management and acquisition practices, including:

A

a double opt-in or confirmed opt-in process.

161
Q

Keep opt-outs ______________

A

simple and easy to access

162
Q

A C-28 best practice is to include what kind of contact information in each email?

A

Company name, contact information and sender’s information if company is sending emails on your behalf?

163
Q

A C-28 best practice is to build your own list of …

A

permission-based contacts.

164
Q

In case your unsubscribe link is not working properly, you should include a….

A

phone number.

165
Q

CASL’s anti-spam provisions went into effect when?

A

July 1, 2014

166
Q

When do CASL’s installation of computer programs provisions go into effect?

A

January 15, 2015

167
Q

When do CASL’s Private Right of Action provisions take effect?

A

July 1, 2017

168
Q

For more info on CASL where can you go?

A

The Canadian Communications Law website.

169
Q

What are 3 things you should do today about CASL?

A

(1) Check if you have opt-in confirmation for Canadian contacts (2) if not, obtain explicit consent within 2 years (3) segment contacts by country

170
Q

What are penalties for CAN-SPAM violations

A

Up to $1 million or 5 years in prison

171
Q

For more info on CAN-SPAM where can you go?

A

Bureau of Consumer Protection Business Center

172
Q

CAN-SPAM prohibits the use of false or misleading _________

A

header information and subject lines

173
Q

True or false: CAN-SPAM requires you identify a message as an ad.

A

True.

174
Q

What are CAN-SPAM’s opt-out requirements?

A

Tell recipients how to opt out, and honor opt-out requests promptly

175
Q

Does CAN-SPAM require you to monitor what others are doing on your behalf?

A

Yes.

176
Q

What kind of contact information does CAN-SPAM require you to provide?

A

A valid physical postal address.

177
Q

Under CAN-SPAM, can your contact address be a P.O. box?

A

Yes.

178
Q

The key to determining if your message is commercial or transactional lies in…

A

The bulk of the message’s content.

179
Q

Under CAN-SPAM and CASL can you include a short commercial message in a transactional email?

A

Yes.

180
Q

4 CAN-SPAM best practices: (1) ____; (2) Keep a company-wide Do Not Email list; (3) Include address specific code to help identify Do-Not Email requests; (4) honor opt-out requests promptly

A

Use a footer allowing opt-outs

181
Q

4 CAN-SPAM best practices: (1) Use a footer allowing opt-outs; (2) _____; (3) Include address specific code to help identify Do-Not Email requests; (4) honor opt-out requests promptly

A

Keep a company-wide Do Not Email list

182
Q

4 CAN-SPAM best practices: (1) Use a footer allowing opt-outs; (2) Keep a company-wide Do Not Email list; (3) _____; (4) honor opt-out requests promptly

A

Include address specific code to help identify Do-Not Email requests

183
Q

4 CAN-SPAM best practices: (1) Use a footer allowing opt-outs; (2) Keep a company-wide Do Not Email list; (3) Include address specific code to help identify Do-Not Email requests and prevent forwarded emails from being confused with spam; (4) _____

A

honor opt-out requests promptly

184
Q

Do CAN-SPAM and CASL prohibit no-reply email addresses for commercial email?

A

Yes.

185
Q

Does Eloqua automatically include recipient-specific coding in emails to prevent forwarded emails from being confused with spam?

A

Yes.

186
Q

Under CAN-SPAM and CASL, what are the time requirements for unsubscribe requests to be processed?

A

Must be processed within 10 days.

187
Q

Under CAN-SPAM and CASL, how long after an email is sent must the Unsubscribe link be valid

A

60 days.

188
Q

What is Canada’s privacy law called?

A

PIPEDA

189
Q

What is the EU privacy law called?

A

EU Data Protection Law

190
Q

Does the US have different laws for different types of data?

A

Yes

191
Q

In the US, who governs commercial data privacy?

A

The Federal Trade Commission (FTC)

192
Q

In the US< who governs health data?

A

Department of Health and Human Services

193
Q

When did PIPEDA become law in Canada?

A

April 13, 2000

194
Q

What does PIPEDA stand for?

A

Personal Information Protection and Electronic Documents Act

195
Q

The 5 principles of PIPEDA are: (1) ____, (2) Identifying Purposes (3) Consent (4) Limiting Collection (5) Limiting Use, Disclosure, and Retention

A

Accountability

196
Q

The 5 principles of PIPEDA are: (1) Accountability, (2) _____ (3) Consent (4) Limiting Collection (5) Limiting Use, Disclosure, and Retention

A

Identifying Purposes

197
Q

The 5 principles of PIPEDA are: (1) Accountability, (2) Identifying Purposes (3) ___ (4) Limiting Collection (5) Limiting Use, Disclosure, and Retention

A

Consent

198
Q

The 5 principles of PIPEDA are: (1) Accountability, (2) Identifying Purposes (3) Consent (4) _____ (5) Limiting Use, Disclosure, and Retention

A

Limiting Collection

199
Q

The first 5 principles of PIPEDA are: (1) Accountability, (2) Identifying Purposes (3) Consent (4) Limiting Collection (5) ______

A

Limiting Use, Disclosure, and Retention

200
Q

According to the _____ principle of PIPEDA, you have to have an individual at your organization who owns PIPEDA compliance.

A

Accountability

201
Q

The _____ principle of PIPEDA says a company has to tell you why they want certain information.

A

Identifying purposes

202
Q

What is one example of a way you can provide data without giving consent?

A

When your online behavior is tracked via cookies.

203
Q

The _____ principle of PIPEDA means you can only collect as much data as you need for the purpose.

A

Limiting Collection.

204
Q

The ____ principle of PIPEDA means you can’t keep information longer than you need it to fulfill the purpose you stated when you collected the data.

A

Limiting Use, Disclosure, and Retention

205
Q

The second 5 principles of PIPEDA are (6) Accuracy, (7) ____, (8) Openness, (9) Individual access, (10) Challenging compliance

A

Safeguards

206
Q

The second 5 principles of PIPEDA are (6) Accuracy, (7) Safeguards, (8) _____, (9) Individual access, (10) Challenging compliance

A

Openness

207
Q

The second 5 principles of PIPEDA are (6) ___, (7) Safeguards, (8) Openness, (9) Individual access, (10) Challenging compliance

A

Accuracy

208
Q

The second 5 principles of PIPEDA are (6) Accuracy, (7) Safeguards, (8) Openness, (9) ____, (10) Challenging compliance

A

Individual access

209
Q

The second 5 principles of PIPEDA are (6) Accuracy, (7) Safeguards, (8) Openness, (9) Individual access, (10) _____

A

Challenging compliance

210
Q

The ____ principle of PIPEDA means you have to provide easy access to the PIPEDA compliance officer at your organization to address any challenges.

A

Challenging Compliance

211
Q

Six PIPEDA best practices are (1) _____ (2) opt-outs (3) education (4) never share data (5) use of voice (6) be sure you know who you’re talking to.

A

privacy policy

212
Q

Six PIPEDA best practices are (1) privacy policy (2) ____ (3) education (4) never share data (5) use of voice (6) be sure you know who you’re talking to.

A

opt-outs

213
Q

Six PIPEDA best practices are (1) privacy policy (2) opt-outs (3) _____ (4) never share data (5) use of voice (6) be sure you know who you’re talking to.

A

education

214
Q

Six PIPEDA best practices are (1) privacy policy (2) opt-outs (3) education (4) _____ (5) use of voice (6) be sure you know who you’re talking to.

A

never share data

215
Q

Six PIPEDA best practices are (1) privacy policy (2) opt-outs (3) education (4) never share data (5) _____ (6) be sure you know who you’re talking to.

A

use of voice

216
Q

Six PIPEDA best practices are (1) privacy policy (2) opt-outs (3) education (4) never share data (5) use of voice (6) ____

A

be sure you know who you’re talking to.

217
Q

The ______ PIPEDA best practice means to use the data you’ve gathered intelligently and discreetly.

A

Use of Voice

218
Q

“Not Joe, click here” is an example of what PIPEDA best practice?

A

Be sure you know who you’re talking to.

219
Q

In the EU, what kind of consent must you obtain before installing cookies on a person’s computer

A

explicit opt-in consent.

220
Q

EU’s protection applies when data is collected or processed in or through…

A

an establishment located in any EU member state.

221
Q

If the data is processed through ______ located in the EU, the EU protection requirement applies

A

equipment, in particular a server

222
Q

Some EU member states have national data protection laws that are…

A

stricter than the EU data protection law.

223
Q

EU: Which law always overrides? The stricter or the weaker?

A

The stricter

224
Q

EU: Who is responsible for compliance - Eloqua or the customer?

A

The customer.

225
Q

EU: To draft and obtain consent, you should use _____ language.

A

Plain language.

226
Q

EU: To obtain consent, the ____ has to be identified

A

data controller

227
Q

EU: To obtain consent, you must disclose the ___ of data collected, ____, and why ____

A

type of data collected, how it is done, and why it is being collected and processed.

228
Q

EU: What needs to be in place to prevent giving of consent by mistake?

A

Safeguards.

229
Q

What’s an example of a safeguard?

A

Not providing pre-checked boxes.

230
Q

EU: You must provide information on the consequences of:

A

not consenting.

231
Q

EU: you must give a brief explanation of the users’

A

rights.

232
Q

EU: When does the user need to give consent?

A

Prior to the collection of personal data.

233
Q

An essential certification for transferring data from the EU to the US for processing is….

A

Safe Harbor

234
Q

Is Eloqua Safe Harbor certified?

A

Yes

235
Q

Is it a good idea to obtain your own Safe Harbor certification?

A

Yes

236
Q

A third party privacy monitoring and auditing service is…

A

TRUSTe

237
Q

TRUSTe ensures compliance with…

A

Safe Harbor certification and related marketing practices.

238
Q

Eloqua works directly with TRUSTe. This enables customers to (1) and (2)

A

(1) enjoy one-click access to TRUSTe data management solutions and auditing (2) attach the TRUSTe symbol to emails, forms, and landing pages.

239
Q

Eloqua supports EU privacy compliance with: (1) ______ (2) Visitor tracking opt-outs (3) Confirmed opt-in process (4) Subscription management (5) Master Exclude list (6) Form layouts with tracking opt-in options (7) Notification and Data Protection Official

A

Tracking and cookies enablement

240
Q

Eloqua supports EU privacy compliance with: (1) Tracking and cookies enablement (2) _______ (3) Confirmed opt-in process (4) Subscription management (5) Master Exclude list (6) Form layouts with tracking opt-in options (7) Notification and Data Protection Official

A

Visitor tracking opt-outs

241
Q

Eloqua supports EU privacy compliance with: (1) Tracking and cookies enablement (2) Visitor tracking opt-outs (3) ______ (4) Subscription management (5) Master Exclude list (6) Form layouts with tracking opt-in options (7) Notification and Data Protection Official

A

Confirmed opt-in process

242
Q

Eloqua supports EU privacy compliance with: (1) Tracking and cookies enablement (2) Visitor tracking opt-outs (3) Confirmed opt-in process (4) _______ (5) Master Exclude list (6) Form layouts with tracking opt-in options (7) Notification and Data Protection Official

A

Subscription management

243
Q

Eloqua supports EU privacy compliance with: (1) Tracking and cookies enablement (2) Visitor tracking opt-outs (3) Confirmed opt-in process (4) Subscription management (5) _______ (6) Form layouts with tracking opt-in options (7) Notification and Data Protection Official

A

Master Exclude list

244
Q

Eloqua supports EU privacy compliance with: (1) Tracking and cookies enablement (2) Visitor tracking opt-outs (3) Confirmed opt-in process (4) Subscription management (5) Master Exclude list (6) ________ (7) Notification and Data Protection Official

A

Form layouts with tracking opt-in options

245
Q

Eloqua supports EU privacy compliance with: (1) Tracking and cookies enablement (2) Visitor tracking opt-outs (3) Confirmed opt-in process (4) Subscription management (5) Master Exclude list (6) Form layouts with tracking opt-in options (7) ________

A

Notification and Data Protection Official

246
Q

Name the three Strict Mode tracking options.

A

(1) Track all visitors (2) Track visitors that are not on the Country by IP restriction list and track visitors from restricted countries that have opted-in to tracking (3) Do not track any visitor unless he has opted-in to tracking

247
Q

Which Strict Mode tracking option is the most commonly used?

A

Dynamically tracking visitors based on the country they’re in.

248
Q

Does Eloqua maintain a list of countries that require opt-ins?

A

Yes.

249
Q

Whose responsibility is it to make sure the list of IP restrictions is complete and that you comply with the privacy laws?

A

Yours. Eloqua provides guidelines to create a list of IP restrictions.

250
Q

How do you enable Strict Mode settings?

A

Contact Eloqua Support using My Oracle Support.

251
Q

Once you enable Strict Mode, can it be enabled only for some websites you track?

A

No, it’s enabled for your entire Eloqua install.

252
Q

Things to check today: (1) ________ (2) are you tracking EU prospects? (3) Do you offer tracking opt-out? (4) Do you have a mixed install? (5) Does your privacy policy state you are dropping a cookie?

A

do you have an EU presence?

253
Q

Things to check today: (1) do you have an EU presence? (2) _______ (3) Do you offer tracking opt-out? (4) Do you have a mixed install? (5) Does your privacy policy state you are dropping a cookie?

A

are you tracking EU prospects?

254
Q

Things to check today: (1) do you have an EU presence? (2) are you tracking EU prospects? (3) ______ (4) Do you have a mixed install? (5) Does your privacy policy state you are dropping a cookie?

A

Do you offer tracking opt-out?

255
Q

Things to check today: (1) do you have an EU presence? (2) are you tracking EU prospects? (3) Do you offer tracking opt-out? (4) _______ (5) Does your privacy policy state you are dropping a cookie?

A

Do you have a mixed install?

256
Q

Things to check today: (1) do you have an EU presence? (2) are you tracking EU prospects? (3) Do you offer tracking opt-out? (4) Do you have a mixed install? (5) _____

A

Does your privacy policy state you are dropping a cookie?

257
Q

What is meant by a mixed install?

A

You have a global marketing team sharing the same Eloqua database

258
Q

True/False: C-28 is a private right of action available only to businesses.

A

False

259
Q

True/False: There is no implied consent for referrals.

A

True.

260
Q

True/False: C-28 accepts implied opt-in consent when the recipients have provided their email address directly to the sender.

A

True.

261
Q

What does ESPC stand for?

A

Canada’s Email Sender and Provider Coalition.

262
Q

In Canada, how long is implied consent valid for in most cases?

A

Two years.

263
Q

Under the EU Data Reform, the __________ requires organizations to completely delete someone’s personal data if they request it.

A

Right to be Forgotten

264
Q

The ________ proposes to create one universal set of guidelines and laws on data protection that will apply to all of the EU

A

EU Data Reform

265
Q

Under the EU Data Reform, the ______ notification requirement would be removed

A

regional

266
Q

Under the EU data reform, when must data breaches be reported?

A

Within 24 hours.

267
Q

The EU Data Reform has increased stringency around ___ advertising.

A

behavioral advertising

268
Q

Under the EU Data Reform, companies must share data on an individual on request in a _______ format.

A

portable

269
Q

In 2012, the ________ put together a Data Breach Investigations report that was released in 2013

A

Verizon Enterprise RISK team

270
Q

True or false: Data storage companies are more susceptible to data breach from within, and therefore they are the only ones who need to take preventative steps against data breach.

A

False.

271
Q

According to Verizon’s 2013 Data Breach Investigations report, who was responsible for data breaches?

A

92% of breaches stemmed from external agents.

272
Q

What types of external agents committed data breaches?

A

55% organized crime, 21% state-affiliated, 21% unknown, 2% Hactivists, 1% former employees

273
Q

What was the motivation for state-affiliated data breaches?

A

Usually espionage.

274
Q

We are getting better at protecting against _____ and ____.

A

Hackers and malware.

275
Q

In 2012 there were large upticks in ____, _____, and ____ types of data breaches.

A

physical, social, and misuse

276
Q

Physical data breach attacks encompass ____ and increased by ____ in 2012.

A

actual physical theft, increased by 25%

277
Q

____ is the main source of social data breaches and includes tactics such as ____ and _____

A

Email; phishing and pretexting

278
Q

When an individual lies to obtain privileged data, this is called _____

A

pretexting.

279
Q

To prevent data breaches, smaller organizations should (1) _____, (2) change default credentials of POS systems and other Internet-facing devices (3) Use two-step verification (4) Check third-party IT vendors’ security measures

A

use a firewall

280
Q

To prevent data breaches, smaller organizations should (1) use a firewall, (2) ______ (3) Use two-step verification (4) Check third-party IT vendors’ security measures

A

change default credentials of POS systems and other Internet-facing devices

281
Q

To prevent data breaches, smaller organizations should (1) use a firewall, (2) change default credentials of POS systems and other Internet-facing devices (3) ______ (4) Check third-party IT vendors’ security measures

A

Use two-step verification

282
Q

To prevent data breaches, smaller organizations should (1) use a firewall, (2) change default credentials of POS systems and other Internet-facing devices (3) Use two-step verification (4) _______

A

Check third-party IT vendors’ security measures

283
Q

To prevent data breaches, larger organizations should (1) _____ (2) ensure all essential controls are met and regulated (3) monitor event logs (4) evaluate current threats in your industry space

A

eliminate unnecessary data

284
Q

To prevent data breaches, larger organizations should (1) eliminate unnecessary data (2) _____ (3) monitor event logs (4) evaluate current threats in your industry space

A

ensure all essential controls are met and regulated

285
Q

To prevent data breaches, larger organizations should (1) eliminate unnecessary data (2) ensure all essential controls are met and regulated (3) _____ (4) evaluate current threats in your industry space

A

monitor event logs

286
Q

To prevent data breaches, larger organizations should (1) eliminate unnecessary data (2) ensure all essential controls are met and regulated (3) monitor event logs (4) ___

A

evaluate current threats in your industry space

287
Q

By February 2014, the cost of the December 2013 retail store data breach was:

A

$61 million

288
Q

The April 2014 ___________ took advantage of a weakness in the OpenSSL and allowed hackers to gather data from supposedly secure sites.

A

HeartBleed Bug

289
Q

How many secure web servers were vulnerable to the HeartBleed Bug attack?

A

17%, or a half million

290
Q

What was the worst intelligence data breach of all time?

A

The Snowden affair

291
Q

Why did Edward Snowden have access to so much information?

A

Through lack of compartmentalization and security access levels

292
Q

Eloqua’s ______ allow you to manage the IP addresses that are allowed to access your database.

A

IP address restrictions

293
Q

Data Breach Law - best practices: (1) ______ (2) protect cardholder data (3) maintain Vulnerability Management program (4) access control measures (5) monitor and test networks (6) maintain information security policy

A

safe internal network

294
Q

Data Breach Law - best practices: (1) safe internal network (2) ______ (3) maintain Vulnerability Management program (4) access control measures (5) monitor and test networks (6) maintain information security policy

A

protect cardholder data

295
Q

Data Breach Law - best practices: (1) safe internal network (2) protect cardholder data (3) maintain a ______ (4) access control measures (5) monitor and test networks (6) maintain information security policy

A

Vulnerability Management program

296
Q

Data Breach Law - best practices: (1) safe internal network (2) protect cardholder data (3) maintain Vulnerability Management program (4) _____ (5) monitor and test networks (6) maintain information security policy

A

access control measures

297
Q

Data Breach Law - best practices: (1) safe internal network (2) protect cardholder data (3) maintain Vulnerability Management program (4) access control measures (5) ____ (6) maintain information security policy

A

monitor and test networks

298
Q

Data Breach Law - best practices: (1) safe internal network (2) protect cardholder data (3) maintain Vulnerability Management program (4) access control measures (5) monitor and test networks (6) maintain _____

A

an information security policy