Anatomy - Final Test Questions Flashcards

1
Q

What describes the periodontal ligament

A

It is a soft tissue structure that atatched the tooth to the bone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
1
Q

What type of tissue primary makes up the periodontal ligament

A

connective tissue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What cells is most directly involved in forming cementum

A

cementoblasts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Primary function of cementum is to

A

Protect the the dentin and anchor the tooth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is the primary mineral component of alveolar bone?

A

Hydroxyaptite

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Cementum is the most simlar in composition to?

A

Dentin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

The alveolar bone is

A

The portion of the jawbown that supports and anchors teeth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

In response to forces like chewing which structure helps maintain stabitlity and position of tooth?

A

Periodontal Ligamanet

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Which term describes the type of bone removing that occurs in the alvolar bone in response to tooth movement

A

Bone resoprtion and deposition

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

The area used most during the masticatory/chewing of food?

A

masticory mucosa

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

The mucous membrane found in the regions of the taste buds on the dorsum of the tongue?

A

specalized mucosa

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Covers the inner surfaces of the lips, cheeks, the
floor of the mouth, the underside of the tongue, the soft palate, and the alveolar mucosa.

A

lining mucosa

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

A thin layer of calcified connective tissue that
covers the tooth from the CEJ to and around the
apical foramen?

A

Cementum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q
  • Occupies the interproximal area between 2 adjacent teeth in health?
A

interdental pappillae

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q
  • The crevice or space between the free gingiva and the tooth?
A

gingival sulucs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

A shallow linear groove that demarcates the free
gingiva from the attached gingiva?

A

Free gingival groove

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

The enamel originates from the…

A

Ectoderm - the most outer layer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

The main mineral component of mature enamel is…

A

Calcium Hydroxyapatite

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Odontoblasts are cells that produce…

A

Dentin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Secondary dentin is formed…

A

After eruption due to normal occlusal forces

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Blood and lymphatic vessels can be found in the..

A

pulp

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What is not a part of the periodontium?

A

Dentin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

These periodontal fibers DO NOT insert into the alveolar bone

A

Gingival fibers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

These periodontal fibers resist forces placed on the long axis of the tooth

A

Oblique Fibers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

This major salivary gland produces the most of the saliva volume in our oral cavity

A

Submandibular

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

The alveolar bone is highly vascular - true or false?

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

An Articulation is…

A

An area of the skeleton where the bones are joined together

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

The external auditory meatus can be found on which bones?

A

Temporal bones

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

The incisive foramen can be found on the…

A

Hard palate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Which are the 2 types of momvents of the TMJ?

A

Hinge and Glide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

The 3 bony parts of the TMJ are

A

The glenoid fossa, articular eminence, and the condyloid process

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

The muscles of mastication include the

A

Masseter, temporal, medial pterygoid, lateral pterygoid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

This muscle elevates the tounge, arches the tongue against the soft palate and depresses the soft plalate torwarrds the tongue

A

Palataoglossus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

The single bone that forms the back and base of the cranium is the _____ bone.

A

Occipital bone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

The sagittal suture is located at the ______ of the cranium.

A

Midline

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

The bones that contain the external auditory meatus or external opening to the ear are the _____ bones

A

Temporal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

The large foramen that allows the spinal cord to pass through the cranium and connect with the brain stem is the:

A

Foramen Magnum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

The term that refers to a projection or extension of bone is:

A

Process

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

The bones that form the prominence of the cheeks are the _________ bones.

A

Zygomatic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

The hard palate is composed of the palatine bones and the __________ of the maxilla.

A

Horizontal Palatine Process

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

The nasal septum is formed by tissue extending between the vomer bone and the _________ bone.

A

Ethmoid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

The area of the mandible commonly known as the chin, is the:

A

Mental Protuberance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

The ridge of bone that supports the teeth on both the maxilla and mandible is called the:

A

Alveolar Process

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

The _________ foramen are located midway up the internal surface of the ramus of the mandible.

A

Mandibular

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

The __________ bone does not contain a paranasal sinus.

A

Temporal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

The ______________ are the largest of the paranasal sinuses.

A

Maxillary

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

The only bone that does not articulate with another bone is the:

A

Hyoid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

The area of the maxilla, distal to the dentition, is the:

A

Maxillary Tuberosity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

The sagittal suture joins the..

A

Parietal bone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

The meniscus of the temporomandibular joint is also known as the:

A

Articular disc

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

The portion of the mandible involved in the TMJ is the ____________ process.

A

Condyloid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

The __________ is the area of the temporal bone that accommodates the process of the mandible.

A

Glenoid fossa

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Which of the following ligaments associated with the TMJ is used to reinforce the capsule?

A

Temporomandibular ligament

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

What is the first phase of movement for the TMJ?

A

Rotational movement (hinge)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Forms the midline on the internal surface of mandible and provides points of muscle attachment

A

genial tubercles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Concave areas between the condyle and the coronoid process

A

mandibular notch

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Articulates with the temporal bone, forming the moveable part of the TMJ

A

Condyle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Largest, stongest, and only moveable facial bone

A

Mandible

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Projects vertically and backward from the body of the mandible

A

ramus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Forms a crest (on the external surface of the mandible) where the ramus joins the body of the mandible

A

external oblique ridge

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Horizontal portion running from the anterior to lateral aspects of the mandible

A

Body of the mandible

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Chin?

A

Mental protuberance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

Forms the anterior border of the ramus and provides points of muscle attachment

A

coronoid process

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Foramen below and between the first and second premolars

A

mental foramen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

The ____________ of a muscle is the more fixed end, attached to the least movable

A

Origin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

The muscle of mastication responsible for forceful elevation and retraction of the mandible, with an insertion on the coronoid process is the:

A

Temporal Muscle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

The _________ pterygoid muscle has two separate origins and functions to move the mandible side to side.

A

External

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

The ____________ muscle extends laterally between left and right sides of the body of the mandible and forms the floor of the mouth.

A

Mylohyoid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

The __________ group of muscles are responsible for elevation of the hyoid bone and depression of the mandible.

A

Suprahyoid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

The muscle of facial expression originating on the alveolar process of both the maxilla and located on the inner surface of the cheek is the ________ muscle.

A

Buccinator muscle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

The mentalis muscle:

A

Pushes up the lower tip

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

The _________ muscle draws the angles of the mouth up and back when smiling.

A

Zygomatic Major

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

The large, triangular muscle located at the back of the neck and shoulders is the ____________ muscle.

A

Trapezius Muscle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

Skeletal muscles, responsible for body movements, are also known as _________ muscles.

A

Striated muscles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

Muscle that flattens the cheek when contracted and positions food for chewing

A

Buccinator

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

Fan-shaped muscle that extends from the temporal bone to the mandible, supports the overall action of closing the lower jaw and ultimately closing the mouth

A

Temporalis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

Extends from the corners of the mouth to the cheekbone; called the smiling muscle

A

Zygomaticus Major

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

Sphyincter muscle encircling the mouth; called the kissing muscle

A

Orbicularis oris

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

Paired muscles, one found on each side of the neck

A

Sternocleiudomastoid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

A chewing muscle that closes the jaw by elevating the mandible

A

Masseter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

A large flat triangular shaped muscle covering the back of the neck, shoulder, and clavicle; moves head backward and sideways turns the skull

A

Trapzieus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

Raises the upper lip

A

Zygomaticus minor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

Sheet like muscle that covers the anterolateral neck

A

Platsyma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

Provides stability to the lower lip and allows it to pout, cause protrusion of the lower lip

A

Mentalis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

Active during mastication and brings jaw forward (protrusion)

A

Lateral pterygoid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

Long, narrow, muscles located in the front of the neck, located below the hyoid bone; depress the hyoid bone

A

Infrahyoid muscle group

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

The facial nerves are cranial nerves VI - True or False?

A

False - They are Cranial Nerves VII

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

The fifth (V) cranial nerves are the trigeminal nerves. True or False?

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

The nasopalatine nerve enters the oral cavity through the incisive papilla. True or False?

A

False - passes through the base of the skull through the foramen in the sphenoid bone and lies in a depression in the bone behind and below the eye

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

Access to the inferior alveolar nerve can be obtained through the mandibular and mental foramina. True or False?

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

The gingival tissues, lingual to the mandibular teeth, is innervated by the __________ nerve.

A

Lingual Nerve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

The maxillary second bicuspids are innervated by the __________ nerve.

A

Middle Superior Alveolar Nerve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

The tissue palatal to the maxillary molars is innervated by the ________ nerve.

A

Greater Palatine Nerve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

The mucosa palatal to the maxillary incisors is innervated by the _________ nerve.

A

Nasopalatine Nerve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

The mandibular molars are innervated by the __________ nerve.

A

Inferior Alveolar Nerve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

The muscles of facial expression are innervated by the __________ nerves.

A

Facial Nerves

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

The injections for anesthesia of the inferior alveolar nerve are known as __________ injections.

A

Block

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

_____________ anesthesia requires the operator to anesthetize the teeth and all surrounding tissue.

A

Profound

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

The common carotid artery arises from the
_________ and subdivides into the
________ and ___________ carotid arteries

A

The common carotid artery arises from the
aorta and subdivides into the internal and external carotid arteries

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

To what does the internal carotid artery supply blood?

A

brain and eyes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

To what does the external carotid provide blood?

A

face and mouth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

Which branch of the mandibular division supplies the tongue?

A

Lingual branch

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

Which branch of the mandibular division
supplies the teeth?

A

IAN small Dental nerves

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

Which branch of the mandibular division
does not supply the tongue or teeth?

A

The mylohyoid nerve (also buccal for buccal mucosal by molars)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q

Cranial Nerve

A

Oh
Oh
Oh
To
Touch
And
Feel
Very
Green
Vegtables
A
H

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
105
Q

Which artery supplies blood to the face and mouth?

A

External Carotid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
106
Q

Which artery supplies blood to the maxillary anterior teeth?

A

Anterior Superior Alveolar

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
107
Q
  • The oral cavity is primarily innervated by which of the following nerves?
A

Trigeminal (V)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
108
Q
  • Which nerve innervates the maxillary first and
    second premolars?
A

MSA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
109
Q

Which of the following arteries supplies the
maxillary posterior teeth?

A

Posterior superior alveolar artery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
110
Q

If a patient has permanent paralysis of the tongue
and lip after the extraction of a mandibular third
molar, which cranial nerve was damaged?

A

c) V – trigeminal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
111
Q

The trigeminal nerve subdivides into 3 main
divisions which are the:

A

Ophthalmic division, maxillary division,
mandibular division

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
112
Q

A nerve block occurs..

A

when local anesthethic is deposited close to a main nerve trunk

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
113
Q

The absense of all teeth is called…

A

Anodontia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
114
Q

Hyperdontia may also be known as …

A

supernumary teeth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
115
Q

The absense of one or more teeth is known as ..

A

Hypodontia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
116
Q

What is the name of the condition that has these
characteristics:
* Hereditary etiology
* Can affect all teeth of both the primary and permanent dentitions
* Teeth have very thin enamel that chips off or have no enamel at all – crowns are thus yellow

A

Ameologensis imperfecta

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
117
Q

What is the difference between abrasion and recession?

A

Abrasion is the mechanical wearing away of tooth,
where as recession is the when the gingival tissue
wears away, exposing more of the tooth structure.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
118
Q

Characteristics of __________ include: * Changes that can vary from barely noticeable white spots in mild forms to staining and pitting in the more severe
forms. * Only occurs when younger children consume too much
______ from any source over long periods when teeth are developing under the gums

A

Dental Fluorisis
-Fluoride

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
119
Q

Commonly missing tooth

A

Lateral incisors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
120
Q

Anodontia

A

Complete congenital absence of teeth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
121
Q

Mesiodens

A

A small supernumerary tooth that forms between the central incisors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
122
Q

Hypercementosis

A

Excessive cementum around the root of an erupted tooth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
123
Q

Gemination

A

Large single rooted tooth with one pulp canal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
124
Q

Dentinogenesis Imperfecta

A

Hereditary disorder that affects the dentin formation of both dentitions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
125
Q

Enamel Pearls

A

Enamel sphere on root

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
126
Q

Dental fluorosis

A

A form of enamel hypocalcifucation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
127
Q

tubercles

A

a small enamel projection forming extra cusps

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
128
Q

Dens in Dente

A

Enamel organ invaginated into the dental papilla

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
129
Q

Macrodontia

A

Abnormally large teeth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
130
Q

Abrasion

A

Mechanical wearing away of the tooth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
131
Q

Which structure of the periodontium is primarily responsible for anchoring the tooth to the alveolar bone?

A

Periodontal ligament

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
132
Q

What is the main function of the gingival fibers in the periodontium?

A

to attach the gingiva to the tooth and bone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
133
Q

In periodontal disease, loss of attachment primarily refers to:

A

breakdown of the gingival fibers and periodontal ligament

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
134
Q

Sharpey’s fibers are embedded into which two structures of the periodontium?

A

cementum and alveolar bone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
135
Q

The zygomatic bone is commonly known as the

A

cheek bone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
136
Q

The suture that connects the parietal bones to the frontal bone is the

A

coronal suture

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
137
Q

Which bone contains the external acoustic meatus?

A

temporal bone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
138
Q

Which of these muscle is known as the “smile” muscle

A

zygomaticus major

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
139
Q

The platysma muscle is located in the:

A

Neck

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
140
Q

The sternocleidomastoid muscle is involved in:

A

Neck fexion and rotation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
141
Q

Which muscle compresses the cheeks, as in blowing air?

A

Buccinator

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
142
Q

The facial nerve is also known as cranial nerve:

A

VII (7)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
143
Q

The hypoglossal nerve (XII) controls:

A

Tongue Movement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
144
Q

Which cranial nerve provides sensory innervation to the face?

A

Trigeminal nerve (V)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
145
Q

Which condition is characterized by the presence of an extra tooth in the dental arch?

A

Hyperdontia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
146
Q

Which anomaly involves the union of two tooth germs resulting in a single large tooth and fewer teeth in the dentition?

A

Fusion

(Gemination typically has a notch in between the two teeth - and the right number of teeth)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
147
Q

Which tooth anomaly involves abnormal angulation or sharp bend in the root or crown?

A

Dilaceration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
148
Q

Which condition results in abnormal development of enamel due to a genetic mutation?

A

Amelogenesis imperfecta

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
149
Q

Hutchinson’s incisors and Mulberry molars are dental anomalies associated with:

A

Congenital syphilis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
150
Q

Enamel loss due to mechanical wear, such as brushing with excessive force, is called:

A

Abrasion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
151
Q

Which of the following structures allows communication between the pulp and dentin?

A

Dentinal tubules

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
152
Q

The pulp’s primary function is to:

A

provide sensory, nutritive, and reparative functions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
153
Q

Which division of the trigeminal nerve is responsible for providing sensory innervation to the maxillary teeth?

A

V2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
154
Q

Which branch of the mandibular nerve is typically anesthetized during an inferior alveolar nerve block?

A

inferior alveolar nerve (IAN)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
155
Q

Which branch of the maxillary nerve provides sensory innervation to the palatal tissues of the anterior teeth?

A

Nasopalatine Nerve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
156
Q

Which structure is located on the temporal bone anterior to the glenoid fossa of the jaw joint?

A

Articular eminence

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
157
Q
  • ___________ Lubricates the TMJ to make the movement smooth:
A

Synovial Fluid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
158
Q

Saliva from the submandibular gland enters the mouth through

A

Wharton’s Duct

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
159
Q

The facial nerve VII (7) innervates:

A

Muscle of Facial Expressions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
160
Q

The third division of the trigeminal nerve is the ________ division

A

Mandibular

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
161
Q

The mucosa of the hard palate adjacent to the maxillary anterior
teeth is innervated by the________ nerve

A

Nasopalatine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
162
Q

The posterior superior alveolar nerve innervates the

A

Maxillary Molars

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
163
Q

The infraorbital foramen is located:

A

Below the orbit of the eyes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
164
Q

Which muscle of mastication is responsible for closing the jaw and
pulling the mandible to one side?

A

Medial pterygoid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
165
Q

The orbicularis oris muscle:

A

Closes and puckers the lips

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
166
Q

Reparative dentin forms:

A

In response to trauma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
167
Q

The purpose of the gingival fibers is to:

A

Holds gingiva close to tooth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
168
Q

The 1.6 is innervated by the

A

Both PSA and MSA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
169
Q

The greater palatine nerve provides innervation to

A

The mucosa of the hard palate except lingual to the maxillary molars

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
170
Q

Which nerve innervates the mandibular incisors?

A

Incisive Nerve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
171
Q

The temporal muscle is responsible for _________ of the mandible?

A

Elevation and retrusion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
172
Q

Which muscle forms the floor of the mouth?

A

Mylohyoid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
173
Q

The infrahyoid muscles are responsible for:

A

depressing the hyoid bone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
174
Q

The rod sheath…

A

covers the enamel rod & is acid resistant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
175
Q
  • Which of the following terms refers to enamel:
A

Lines of Retzius, Lamellae and Tufts

ENAMEL SPINDLE IS NOT REFERING TO ENAMEL - IT IS REFERING TO DENTIN

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
176
Q

The loss of enamel structure that occurs through chemical means
(via acid), and does not involve bacteria, is known as:

A

Erosion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
177
Q

Fibers of the PDL that become trapped in the developing cementum
and are responsible for attaching the PDL firmly to the tooth and
alveolar bone is:

A

Sharpey’s Fibers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
178
Q

Dentin that creates the wall of the dentinal tubule is:

A

Peritubular Dentin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
179
Q

The pulp is responsible for

A

Production of Secondary Dentin & Nourishment of the odontoblastic cell

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
180
Q

The zone of pulp closest to the dentin is the:

A

Odontoblastic Layer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
181
Q

Which bone of the jaw consists of cancellous (or spongy) bone?

A

Trabecular bone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
182
Q

The excessive production of cellular cementum, which mainly occurs
at the apex or apices of the tooth, is called what?

A

Hypercementosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
183
Q

This type of cementum can widen over time, and layers can be
added.

A

Cellular

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
184
Q

Anodontia is:

A

Partial or complete absence of teeth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
185
Q

“The union of two adjacent tooth germs resulting in a large tooth with two pulp cavities” defines which tooth anomaly?

A

Fusion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
186
Q

An odontoma is:

A

A benign bone tumor ( can be compound or complex)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
187
Q

The wearing down of the incisal or occlusal surfaces from frictional contact is:

A

Attrition

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
188
Q

The mechanical wearing away of tooth surface from toothbrushes or
abrasive agents is:

A

Abrasion (Recession will affect gingiva)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
189
Q

A v-shaped notch on the cervical third of a tooth usually as a result
of parafunctional habits is:

A

Abfraction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
190
Q

The chemical wearing away or dissolution of enamel is:

A

Erosion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
191
Q

A sialolith:

A

Is a salivary stone of the major salivary gland

192
Q

A white patch that varies in appearance and texture that is commonly linked to chronic irritation or trauma is:

A

Leukoplakia

193
Q

Varicella zoster and Herpes Zoster are the result of, or caused by:

194
Q

Candida albicans is a type of:

195
Q

Atrophic candidiasis can be characterized by:

A

Smooth red patches (erythamatous)

196
Q

An expression of the herpes simplex virus appearing on the eye is
known as:

A

Herpes conjunctivitis

Whitlow - is hands
Gingivostomatitis - gingiva palate

197
Q
  • What consists of both the supporting soft and hard dental tissue between the tooth and the alveolar process, as well as parts of the tooth and alveolar process?
A

Periodontium

198
Q

What does enamel orignate from?

A

The Ectoderm

199
Q

What is enamel formed by?

A

Ameloblasts

200
Q

Is Enamel a living tissue?

A

Not a living tissue
-mature enamel does not contain cells that are capable of repair & regeneration
-no blood supply or nerves

201
Q

Is Enamel Permeable?

A

Yes
- allows for the exchange of ions
-demineralization and remineralization

202
Q

What is the hardest tissue in the body?

203
Q

What is enamel composed of?

A

composed of inorganic (mineral) and organic substances

appox. 96% inorganic materials and 1% organic materials and 3% water

204
Q

Main mineral component of enamel?

A

-calcium hydoxyapatite

other minerals also present in smaller amounts:
-carbonate, magnesium, potassium, sodium & fluoride

205
Q

Thickness of enamel?

A

0.2 to 2.6mm

-as thick as 2.6mm at cusps of molar teeth

  • thinner at incisal edges
206
Q

Enamel colour of primary teeth?

A

Whiter than permanent
-more opaque crystalline form

207
Q

Enamel colour of permanent teeth?

A

yellowish-white to gray

reflects underlying dentin

208
Q

What are Lines of Retzius?

A

Incremental lines - represent the deposition of enamel during the formation of a tooth

209
Q

What are Hunter-Schreger bands?

A

Alternating light and dark bands - caused by enamel prisms changing direction

210
Q

Enamel Rods are..

A

Enamel Rods (also known as enamel prisms) - crystalline structural unit of enamel, perpendicular to the surface of the tooth

211
Q

What is Rod Sheath?

A

-covering of the enamel rod
-acid resistant (hardest enamel structure)

212
Q

What is Inter-rod substance?

A

-the material between the keyhole shaped enamel rods
-like a cement or glue

213
Q

What is Enamel Lamellae?

A

-Enamel lamellae are partially mineralized vertical sheets of enamel matrix that extend from the DEJ near the tooth’s cervix to the outer occlusal surface

214
Q

What are Enamel tufts?

A

enamel tufts are noted as small, dark brushes with their bases near the DEJ

215
Q

What are Enamel Spindles?

A
  • they represent short dentinal tubules near the DEJ junction
  • odontoblasts that crossed the basement membrane before it mineralized into the DEJ

-dentinal tubules become trapped during the appositional growth of enamel matrix, which becomes mineralized around them

216
Q

What is Bruxism?

A

Grinding/clenching of teeth

217
Q

Origin of Dentin?

A

Dental papilla > Mesenchyme cells

218
Q

Is Dentin Living Tissue?

A

Yes - odontoblasts (dentin producing cells) are present throughout life of a tooth to continuously produce dentin

219
Q

Dentin vs. Enamel?

A

Dentin is softer than enamel (less calcified)

Dentin is more flexible

Dentin is less mineralized - more radiolucent on a radiograph

220
Q

What is the composition of dentin?

A

Inorganic subtance - 70%
Organic Substance (proteins) - 20%
Water - 10%

221
Q

Is Dentin harder than bone?

A
  • dentin is harder than bone & cementum
  • resembles bone in physcal and chemical properties
222
Q

Colour of Dentin?

A

clinical colour of a tooth - can be see through translucency of enamel

223
Q

What is a dentinal tubule?

A
  • long tube running from DEJ/DCJ to pulp
    -least mineralized
    -contains odontoblastic process (provides nutrients to dentin)
  • may play a role in pain sensation of a tooth
224
Q

Arrangment of a Dentinal Tubule

A
  • apex and cusp areas: Straight & perpendicular to DEJ/DCJ
  • sides of tooth and top 1/2 of root: s-shaped
225
Q

What is dentinal fluid?

A
  • the extravascular fluid which appears on the surface of freshly cut dentin
226
Q

What is dentinal fluid composed of?

A

composed mainly of cytoplasm from ondotoblastic process

227
Q

What is the Odontoblastic Process?

A

long cellular extension of the cell inside the dentinal tubule
- still attached to the cell body of the ondotoblast in the pulp

228
Q

What are the 5 types of dentin?

A

Peritubular Dentin - walls of the dentinal tubules

Intertubular dentin - between the tubules, bulk of dentin

Primary Dentin - dentin formed before eruption, forms the bulk of the tooth

Secondary Dentin - formed after eruption due to normal occlusal forces, protects the pulp

Tertiary (reparative) dentin - formed in response to trauma

229
Q

Explain the development of pulp

A
  • comes from dental papilla
230
Q

Is pulp mineralized?

A
  • it is the only non-mineralized tissue of a tooth and consists of blood vessels, lymp tissue and nerves
231
Q

What are fibroblast cells?

A
  • predominant type of cell in pulp
  • mesenchymal cells which become fibroblasts
  • are responsible for the formation of intercellular substance in the pulp
232
Q

What are odontoblast cells?

A

Produces DENTIN

-only the cell body is in the pulp
-odontoblastic proces is in dentin
-originated from mesenchyme

233
Q

What do hystocyte cells do?

A

-part of pulp’s defense mechanism - respond to injury

234
Q

What are Korff’s Fibers?

A
  • in intercellular substance
    -fibrous substance - appears as coiled rope
    -mostly functional role: forms dentin matrix
235
Q

What do blood vessels and lymphatic vessels do in pulp?

A
  • supply oxygen and nutrients and take away CO2 waste
  • superior and inferior alveolar artery enter via apical foramen
236
Q

Are there nerves in pulp?

A

Yes - V2 & V3 of Trigeminal nerve

237
Q

What are denticles?

A

Pulp stones - mineralized bodies of irregular rounded shape

  • have various shapes, size increases with age, free in soft tissue of pulp
238
Q

What are diffuse mineralizations?

A
  • known as “false pulp stones”
  • diffuse calcifications
    -small thin scatterings of calcified material
239
Q

What are the Pulp Zones?

A
  1. Odontoblastic Zone - line outer pulpal wall, forms dentin
  2. Cell Free Zone - fewer cells but not 0, buffer area, movement area for other zones
  3. Cell Rich Zone - reservoir of undifferntiated cellls, new ondoblasts, defense cells
240
Q

Functions of the Pulp

A
  1. Formative - in development of tissues
  2. Sensory Function - nerve fibers in pulp, sensation of pain
  3. Nutritive Function - nutrients delivered from blood stream
  4. Defense Function - inflammatory reaction - if damage or irritants to the pulp
  5. Vitality - keeps the tooth alive, or from enamel becoming brittle
241
Q

What is Pulpitis?

A

When the pulp is injured by cavity prep through mechanical or chemical injury, and even by extensive caries or traumatic injury, it may undergo inflammation (which is pulpitis)

242
Q

What can pulpitis cause?

A

Pulpitis can later cause a pulpal infection in the form of a periapical abscess or cyst in the surrounding periodontium, spreading by way of the apical foramen.

243
Q

Types of Diseased Gingiva Papilla?

A

-Blunted
-Bulbous
- Cratering
-Festooned (exaggerated rolling)
-Clefts
-Rounded-rolled

244
Q

What structures does the periodontium consist of?

A
  • Cementum
    -Periodontal Ligaments
    -Alveolar Bone
    -Gingiva (more of a minor role)
245
Q

Function of the Cementum?

A

attaches the teeth to the alveolar process by anchoring the periodontal ligaments

246
Q

What is the composition of cementum?

A

65% inorganic substance
23% organic substance (proteins)
12% water

247
Q

What are the physical characteristics of Cementum?

A

-yellowish in colour, clinically looks like dentin
- 1 hair thick (16-60microns) in coronal half, thicker in the apical half (150-200 microns)
- may be removed by brushing, decays easily

248
Q

What forms cementum?

A

Cementoblasts

249
Q

What are Sharpey’s Fibers?

A

Ends of the fibers of the PDL that become trapped in the developing cementum

  • attach the PDL fimrly to the tooth and suspend the tooth in the socket
250
Q

The Formation of Cementum

A
  1. Forms in layers - cementoblasts in the PDL start at CEJ and move downward secreting a ground substance for the full length of the tooth
  2. 3 relationships with enamel and dentin
    -Overlaps at enamel at CEJ (15%)
    -Meets Enamel at CEJ (52%)
    -Does not meet Enamel at CEJ (33%)
  3. Acelllular cementum
    -first layer of cementum deposited at the DCJ
    -also considered primary cementum
  4. Cellular Cementum
    -secondary dentin
    -apicial portion of tooth
    -contains cementocytes
251
Q

Main function of cementum?

A

-Anchors tooth to bony socket

-compensates for loss of enamel

  • repairs damaged tooth root
252
Q

What is the function of the Periodontal Ligaments?

A

the PDL is part of the periodontium that provides for the attachment of the teeth to the surrounding alveolar bone by way of the cementum

253
Q

What does PDL form from?

A

Froms from the Dental Sac - process begins after cementum formation begins

254
Q

What are cementicles?

A

Small calcified bodies in the PDL

255
Q

Purpose of Gingival Fibers?

A

Holds gingiva close to tooth

256
Q

Purpose of Transseptal Fibers?

A

ensures teeth remain in proper relationship to one another and support the interproximal gingiva

257
Q

Purpose of Alveolar Crest Fibers?

A

Resists horizontal movements and maintain tooth in socket

258
Q

Purpose of Horizontal Fibers?

A

resists horizontal (lateral) pressures applied to crown of tooth

259
Q

Purpose of Oblique Fibers?

A

Resist forces placed on the long axis of the tooth

260
Q

Purpose of Apical Fibers?

A
  • prevent the tooth from tipping
    -protect the blood, lymph and nerves supply to the tooth
261
Q

Purpose of Interradicular Fibers?

A

stabalize tooth (resist tipping and tilting)

262
Q

5 Functions of the PDL?

A
  1. Supportive - shock absorption
  2. Formative - throughout life, tension (pull) on PDL > cementum+bone formation
  3. Resorptive - Pressure on PDL > becomes narrower (think braces)
  4. Sensory - determines pressure and touch
  5. Nutritive - presence of blood vessels provide essential nutrients to area
263
Q

Composition of Alveolar Bone?

A

Inorganic Substance - 60%
Organic Substance - 25%
Water - 15%

264
Q

What does Alveolar Bone Process make up?

A

Makes up the lining of the tooth socket

265
Q

What is the Lamina Dura?

A

part of the alveolar bone that is uniformially radiopaque

266
Q

What is the Alveolar Crest?

A

the most cervical part of the alveolar bone

267
Q

What is Cortical bone?

A

A plate of compact bone on both the facial and lingual surfaces of the alveolar process

268
Q

What is the Trabecular/Spongy/Cancellous bone?

A

Consits of cancellous or spongy bone that is located between the alveolar bone and the plates of cortical bone

269
Q

Three types of bone cells?

A

Osteoctyes - bone cells

Lacunae - “little spaces” where osteocytes are located

Canaliculi - “little canals” connect lacunae-to-lacunae

270
Q

Two Bone connective tissue coverings?

A

Periosteum - tough connective tissue outside of bone

Endosteum - delicate connective tissue, inner surface of compact bone

271
Q

What does new bone form from?

A

New bone forms from periosteum or endosteum

272
Q

Which of the following best describes the periodontal
ligament (PDL)?

A

It is a soft tissue structure that attaches the tooth to the alveolar bone.

273
Q

What type of tissue primarily makes up the
periodontal ligament?

A

Connective tissue

274
Q

Which of the following cells is most directly
involved in forming the cementum?

A

Cementoblasts

275
Q

The primary function of cementum is to:

A

Protect the root dentin and anchor the periodontal ligament

276
Q

What is the primary mineral component of
alveolar bone?

A

Hydroxyapatite

277
Q

Cementum is most similar in composition to
which other dental tissue?

277
Q

The alveolar bone is:

A

The portion of the jawbone that supports and
anchors teeth.

278
Q

Which of the following is the main function of
alveolar bone?

A

To support teeth and anchor them in the jaw

278
Q

Which structure provides nutrients to the
periodontal ligament?

A

Blood vessels in the alveolar bone

279
Q

In response to forces like chewing, which structure helps maintain the stability and position
of the tooth?

A

Periodontal ligament

280
Q

Which term describes the type of bone
remodeling that occurs in the alveolar bone in
response to tooth movement?

A

Bone resorption and deposition

281
Q

How does cementum differ from enamel?

A

Cementum is softer and less mineralized than enamel.

282
Q

The primary function of cementum is to
anchor:

A

Periodontal ligament fibers to the tooth.

283
Q

Alveolar bone can be lost due to which of the following conditions?

A

Periodontitis

284
Q

What is the mucous membrane?

A

It is the epithelial tissue that lines a body cavity that opens to the outside of the body

  • rests on connective tissue layer
  • seperated by a basement membrane
285
Q

The area used most during the mastication of food:
covers the gingiva and hard palate?

A

Masticatory mucosa

286
Q

The mucous membrane found in the regions of the
taste buds on the dorsum of the tongue?

A

Specialized mucosa

287
Q

Covers the inner surfaces of the lips, cheeks, the
floor of the mouth, the underside of the tongue, the soft palate, and the alveolar mucosa.

A

Lining Mucosa

288
Q

A thin layer of calcified connective tissue that
covers the tooth from the CEJ to and around the
apical foramen?

289
Q
  • Occupies the interproximal area between 2 adjacent teeth in health?
A

Interdental papillae

290
Q

The crevice of space between the free gingiva and the tooth?

A

Gingival Sulcus

291
Q

A shallow linear groove that demarcates (outlines) the free gingiva from the attached gingiva?

A

Free gingival groove

292
Q

What is a gland?

A

A gland is a structure that produces secretion necessary for normal body function

293
Q

What is an exocrine gland?

A

A gland having a duct associated with it

294
Q

What is a duct?

A

A duct is a passageway that allows the glandular secretion to be emptied directly into the location where the secretion is to be used

295
Q

What is a endocrine gland?

A

a ductless gland with its secretions conveyed directly into the blood and then carried to some distant location to be used

296
Q

Two types of saliva?

A

Serous - watery, mainly protein

Mucous - very thick, mainy carbohydrate

297
Q

Three major salivary glands?

A

Parotid salivary gland (parotid duct/stensen’s duct)

Submandibular sailvary gland (Wharton’s duct)

Sublingual salivary gland (sublingual duct/bartholin’s duct)

298
Q

How much saliva does Parotid Salivary Gland provide?

299
Q

How much saliva does Submandibular Salivary gland provide?

300
Q

How much saliva does sublingual salivary gland provide?

301
Q

What type of gland is the Thyroid gland??

A

It is the LARGEST endocrine gland (secretes hormones directly into the blood)

302
Q

There are five groups of superficial lymph nodes in
the head

A

Occipital
Retroauricular
Anterior auricular
Superficial parotid
Facial nodes

303
Q

What is articulation?

A

Is an area of the skeleton where the bones are joined to each other. They can be either movable or immovable.

304
Q

What are sutures?

A

appear on the skull as “cracks”. Firm joining of two or more bones

305
Q

What are joints?

A

is the moveable junction of two or more bones

306
Q

What is a “process”?

A

Is an extension of a bone

307
Q

What is a Meatus?

A

canal-like opening into a bone from outside of the body (external) as in the opening to the ear

308
Q

Number of bones?

A

Cranium has a total of 8 bones

There are 14 facial bones

A total of 22 bones in the skull excluding ossicles in the inner ear

309
Q

Frontal bone - paired or single?

310
Q

Parietal bone - paired or single?

311
Q

Occipital bone - paired or single?

312
Q

Temporal bone - paired or single?

313
Q

Sphenoid bone - - paired or single?

314
Q

Ethmoid bone - paired or single?

315
Q

What suture joints the parietal and occipital bones?

A

the lamboidal suture

316
Q

What suture joins the frontal bone and the parietal bone?

A

the coronal suture

317
Q

Spinal cord passes through…

A

the spinal cord passes through the foramen magnum of the occiptal bone

318
Q

What does the sphenoid bone articulate with?

A

sphenoid articulates with the temporal bones and the frontal bone to form the back of the eye orbit

319
Q

Maxilla bone - - paired or single?

320
Q

zygomatic bone - paired or single?

321
Q

palatine bone - paired or single?

322
Q

nasal bone - paired or single?

323
Q

lacrimal bone - - paired or single?

324
Q

inferior nasal conchae - paired or single?

325
Q

vomer bone - - paired or single?

326
Q

mandible bone - - paired or single?

327
Q

What forms the Zygomatic arch?

A

There is a temporal process of the Zygomatic bone (that projects backwards) articulates with the Zygomatic process of the temporal bone

328
Q

What are nasal conchae formed from?

A

The ethmoid bone

329
Q

What bone does not articulate with any other bone?

A

The hyoid bone

330
Q

What is the hyoid bone an attachment point for?

A

The neck and tongue muscles

331
Q

The three types of auditory ossicles?

A
  1. Stapes - stirrup
  2. Incus - anvil
  3. Malleus - hammer
332
Q

The Mandible Bone is composed of three parts:

A
  1. Body
  2. Alveolar Process
  3. Ramus
333
Q

What is the moveable bone of the skull?

334
Q

What are the largest of the paranasal sinuses?

A

The maxillary sinuses

335
Q

Where are the frontal sinuses located?

A

within the forehead just above the eyes

336
Q

Where are the ethmoid sinuses located?

A

separated from the orbital cavity by a very thin layer of bone

they are irregulary shaped air cells

337
Q

Where are the sphenoid sinuses located?

A

on side of skull - close to the optic nerves

338
Q

What are the functions of the sinuses?

A
  1. Lighten the skull bones
  2. Act as sound resonators
  3. Provide mucus for the nasal cavity
339
Q

What is the TMJ?

A

The Temporomandibular Joint is a joint on each side of the head that allows for movement of the mandible for speech and mastication

340
Q

3 bony parts of the TMJ?

A

-Glenoid fossa of the temporal bone
-Articular eminence of the temporal bone
-Condyloid process of the mandible

341
Q

What is the Capsular Ligament?

A

a fibrous joint capsule completely encloses the TMJ

-wraps around the margin of the temporal bones articular eminence and articular fossa

  • wraps around the circumference of the mandibular condyle
342
Q

What is the Articular Space?

A

The area between capsular ligament and the surfaces of the glenoid fossa and condyle

343
Q

What is the articular disc (meniscus)?

A

is a cushion of dense specialized connective tissue that divides the articular space into upper and lower compartments (compartments filled with synovial fluid - lubricates)

344
Q

What are the movement types of the TMJ?

A

Hinge action - first phase of mouth opening, only lower compartment of the joint is used

Gliding movement - allows the lower jaw to move forward or backwards, involves both lower and upper compartments of joint, condyle and articular disc “glide” forward and downward along the articular eminence

345
Q

What is protrusion?

A

Forward movement of the mandible

346
Q

What is retrusion?

A

the backward movement of the mandible

347
Q

How does lateral movement of the mandible occur?

A

when the internal and external pterygoid muscles on the same side of the face contract together

348
Q

What is Subluxation?

A

When the jaw locks open

349
Q

What are the 4 muscles of mastication?

A

Masseter
Temporal
Lateral (external) pterygoid
Medial (internal) pterygoid

350
Q

What is the function of the Masseter muscle?

A

Raises the mandible and closes the jaw

351
Q

What is the function of the Temporal Muscle?

A

Raises the mandible and closes the jaw

352
Q

What is the function of the medial (internal) pterygoid?

A

Closes the jaw, elevates the mandible

353
Q

What is the function of the lateral (external) pterygoid?

A

mandible side to side, bring jaw forward

354
Q

Origin & Insertion of the Temporal Muscle?

A

Origin - Temporal fossa of temporal bone

Insertion - coronoid process and anterior border of mandibular ramus

355
Q

Origin & Insertion of Masseter muscle?

A

Origin - Superficial part: lower border of zygomatic arch. Deep part: posterior and medial side of zygomatic arch

Insertion - Superficial part: angle and lower lateral side of mandibular ramus. Deep part: upper lateral ramus and mandibular coronoid process

356
Q

Origin & Insertion of Internal (medial) pterygoid?

A

Origin: medial surface of lateral pterygoid plate of sphenoid bone, palatine bone, and tuberosity of maxillary bone

Insertion: into inner (medial) surface of ramus and angle of mandible

357
Q

Origin & Insertion of External (lateral) pterygoid?

A

Origin: from two heads; upper head originates from greater wing of sphenoid bone

Insertion: Into neck of condyle of mandible and into articular disc of capsular ligament of TMJ

358
Q

What muscles accomplish the opening of the mouth?

A

Hyoid Muscles - floor of the mouth

359
Q

Two groups of hyoid muscles?

A

Suprahyoid (above)
Infrahyoid (below)

360
Q

4 Mucles of the Floor of the Mouth (Suprahyoid)

A
  1. Digastric
  2. Mylohyoid
  3. Stylohyoid
  4. Geniohyoid
361
Q

Purpose of the Digastric Muscle?

A

Elevation of the hyoid bone, as well as depression of the mandible

362
Q

Purpose of the Stylohyoid Muscle?

A

Assists in swallowing by raising the hyoid bone

363
Q

Purpose of the Mylohyoid muscle?

A

Forms the floor of the mouth (raises the tongue and depresses the lower jaw)

364
Q

Purpose of the Geniohyoid muscle?

A

pulls the tongue and hyoid bone forward

365
Q

Digastric Origin & Insertion?

A

Origin - anterior belly: lower border of the mandible. posterior belly: mastoid process of temporal bone

Insertion - Body and great horn of hyoid bone

366
Q

Stylohyoid Origin & Insertion?

A

Origin: Styloid process of temporal bone

Insertion: Body of hyoid bone

367
Q

Mylohyoid bone Origin & Insertion?

A

Origin: Left and right portions are joined at the midline; each portion originates on mylohyoid line of mandible

Insertion: body of hypid bone

368
Q

Geniohyoid Origin & Insertion?

A

Origin: Medial (inner) surface of mandible, near symphysis

Insertion: Body of hyoid

369
Q

4 Muscles of the Infrahyoid?

A

Depresses the hyoid bone:
Omohyoid Muscle
Stenohyoid Muscle
Thyrohyoid Muscle

Depresses the thyroid cartilage:
Sternothyroid muscle

370
Q

4 Muscles of Facial Expression?

A

Orbicularis Oris
Buccinator
Mentalis
Zygomatic major

371
Q

Purpose of the Orbicularis oris?

A

closes and puckers the lips

372
Q

Purpose of the Buccinator?

A

Compressses the cheeks against the teeth and retracts the angle of the mouth

373
Q

Purpose of the Mentalis?

A

Raises and wrinkles the skin of the chin and pushes the lower lip up

374
Q

Purpose of the Zygomatic major?

A

Draws the angles of hte mouth upward and backward, as in laughing

375
Q

Origin & Insertion of Obicularis Oris?

A

Origin: From muscle fibers around the mouth, no skeletal attachment

Insertion: into itself and surrounding skin

376
Q

Origin and Insertion of Buccinator?

A

Origin: Posterior portion of alveolar process of maxillary bone and mandible

Insertion: Fibers of orbicularis oris, at angle of mouth

377
Q

Origin & Insertion of Mentalis?

A

origin: incisive fossa of mandible

Insertion: Skin of chin

378
Q

Origin & Insertion of Zygomatic Major?

A

Origin: Zygomatic bone

Insertion: Into fibers of orbicularis

379
Q

3 Muscles of the Neck?

A

Platysma
Trapzeius
Sternocleidomastoid

380
Q

What is the function of the Platysma muscle?

A

Grimacing
Raising the skin of the neck and pulling the corners of the mouth down

381
Q

What is the function of the Trapezius muscle?

A

Lifts the clavicle and shoulder blade - as when the shoulders are shrugged

382
Q

What is the function of the Sternocleidomastoid muscle?

A

If one side of the muscle is contracted, the head turns to that side

if both are contracted, the head will flex at the neck and move forward and down

383
Q

Origin & Insertion of the Sternocleidomastoid?

A

Origin: Clavicle (collarbone) and lateral surfaces of sternum

insertion: Posterior and inferior to external acoustic meatus

384
Q

Origin & Insertion of Trepezius?

A

Origin: External surface of occipital bone

Insertion: Lateral third of clavicle and parts of scapula

385
Q

3 Extrinsic msucles of the tongue

A

Genioglossus - depresses and protrudes the tounge

Hyoglossus - retracts and pulls down the side of the tonge

Styloglossus - retracts the tongue

386
Q

Origin & Insertion of Genioglossus?

A

Origin: Medial (inner) surface of mandible, near symphysis

Insertion: Hyoid bone and inferior (lower) surface of the tongue

387
Q

Origin & Insertion of the Hyoglossus?

A

Origin: Body of hyoid bone

Insertion: Side of tongue

388
Q

Origin & Insertion of Styloglossus?

A

Origin: Styloid process of temporal bone

Insertion: Side and undersurface of the tongue

389
Q

2 Major Muscles of the Soft Palate?

A

Palatoglossus - elevates base of tongue, arching tongue against soft palate; depresses soft palate toward tongue

Palatopharyngeus - forms posterior pillar of fauces; serves to narrow fauces and helps shut off nasopharynx

390
Q

Origin & Insertion of the Palatoglossus?

A

Origin: Anterior arch on each side of throat; arises from soft palate

Insertion: along posterior side of the tongue

391
Q

Origin & Insertion of the Palatopharyngeal?

A

Origin: Posterior border of thyroid cartilage and connective tissue of pharynx

Insertion: Thyroid cartilage and wall of pharynx

392
Q

The Major Arteries of the Face & Oral Cavity

A

Common carotid artery - arises from the aorta and subdivides into the internal and external carotid arteries

Internal carotid artery - supplies blood to the brain and eyes

External carotid artery -provides the major blood supply to the face and mouth

393
Q

The External Carotid Artery branches into..

A

Facial artery

Lingual artery

Maxillary artery - Divides into the inferior alveolar, ptergyoid and pterygopalatine

Mandibular artery

394
Q

What supplies blood to muscles of facial expression?

A

Branches and small arteries from maxillary, facial, and opthalmic arteries

394
Q

What supplies blood to the maxilllary bones?

A

Anterior, middle, and posterior alveolar arteries

395
Q

What supplies blood to the maxillary teeth?

A

Anterior, middle, and posterior alveolar arteries

396
Q

What supplies blood to the mandible?

A

Inferior alveolar artieries

397
Q

What supplies blood to the mandibular teeth?

A

Inferior alveolar arteries

398
Q

What supplies blood to the tongue?

A

Lingual artery

399
Q

What supplies blood to the muscles of mastication?

A

facial artieres

400
Q

What are the major veins of the face and the oral cavity?

A

-Maxillary vein
-Retromandibular Vein
-External jugular vein
-Subclavian vein
-facial vein
-Common facial vein
-deep facial vein
-lingual veins
-internal jugular vein

401
Q

How many pairs of cranial nerves?

A

12 pairs of cranial nerves - all connected to the brain

-both sensory & motor functions

402
Q

What is Cranial Nerve V?

A

The Trigeminal Nerve

403
Q

The 3 divisions of the Trigeminal Nerve?

A
  1. Opthalmic Division (V1)
  2. Maxillary Division (V2)
  3. Mandibular Division (V3)
404
Q

The Maxillary Division supplies nerves to…

A

the maxillary teeth, periosteum, mucous membrane, maxillary sinuses & soft palate

405
Q

The Maxillary Division subdivides into…

A

-nasopalatine nerve
-greater palatine nerve
-anterior superior alveolar nerve
-middle superior alveolar nerve
-posterior superior alveolar nerve

406
Q

What nerve supplies the mesiobuccal root of the maxillary first molar?

A

The MSA Nerve

407
Q

The Mandibular Nerve subdivides into….

A

-the buccal nerve
-the lingual nerve
-the inferior alveolar nerve

408
Q

What nerve supplies the tounge?

A

The lingual nerve

409
Q

Divisions of the Inferior Alveolar Nerve (IAN)?

A

Mylohyoid nerve - supplies the mylohyoid muscles

Small dental nerves - supply the molar, premolar alveolar process, periosteum

Mental Nerve - supplies chin and lower lip

Incisive nerve - supplies incisor teeth

410
Q

What is the Facial Nerve?

A

Cranial Nerve VII

Is a mixed nerve - sensory portion concerned with taste; motor portion controls facial expression and secretion of tears & saliva

411
Q

Difference between Maxillary Anesthesia vs. Mandibular?

A

Local anesthetic injection techniques differ from mandibular approaches because of the porous nature of the alveolar cancellous bone in the maxilla

Mandibluar bone is dense, compact

412
Q

If a patient has permanent paralysis of the tongue and lip after the extraction of a mandibular third molar, which cranial nerve was damaged?

A

VII - Facial

413
Q

The trigeminal nerve subdivides into 3 main
divisions which are the:

A

Ophthalmic division, maxillary division,
mandibular division

414
Q

A nerve block occurs:

A

When local anesthetic is deposited close to a
main nerve trunk

415
Q

What is an exostoses?

A

A benign bony growth projecting outward from the surface of a bone

416
Q

What is Macrognathia?

A

An abnormally large jaw

417
Q

What is micrognathia?

A

An abnormally small jaw

418
Q

What is ankyloglossia?

A

Often called tongue-tied; results in a short lingual frenum that extends to the apex of the tongue

419
Q

What stage of tooth development does abnormal number of teeth occur?

A

Initiation stage

Lack of initiation within the dental lamina

420
Q

What is Anodontia?

A

Partial or complete absence of teeth

commonly include:
-permanent third molars
-maxillary lateral incisors
-mandibular second premolars

421
Q

What is Hyperdontia?

A

supernumerary tooth/teeth

commonly found:
between permanent max incisors
distal to third molars

  • is hereditary
422
Q

What is Mesiodens?

A
  • small extra central incisor that erupts between the two centrals
423
Q

What stage of tooth development does abnormal size of teeth occur?

A

Bud stage of development

  • Generally genetic with partial
  • Endocrine dysfunction associated with complete
424
Q

What is Macrodontia?

A

Abnormal increase in tooth size

425
Q

What is Microdontia?

A

abnormally small teeth

  • complete microdontia is rare (associated with downs syndrome)

-partial microdontia - hereditary factors involved - commonly affects the permanent max lateral insiors and perm third molars

426
Q

What stage of development does abnormal shape of teeth occur?

A

Later stages of tooth development
- Cap & Maturation stages
-Proliferation & morphodiffentiation processes

427
Q

What is Dens in Dente?

A

-enamel organ invaginates into the dental papillae
-happens during cap stage
-hereiditary

428
Q

What is Gemination?

A

-The tooth germ tries to divide and develops a
large single-rooted tooth with one pulp cavity and
“twinning “ in the crown of anterior teeth

-The correct number of teeth will be present

  • notch in incisal edge
  • happens during cap stage
  • hereditary
429
Q

What is Fusion?

A
  • union of two adjacent tooth germs, results in a large tooth with two pulp cavitites
  • one fewer tooth in the dention
  • common in anteriors in primary dention

-resulting during cap stage due to pressure

430
Q

What is a Tubercle?

A

-small rounded enamel extension

  • happens during cap stage
431
Q

What is an Enamel Pearl?

A
  • sphere of enamel on root
  • happens during apposition & maturation stage
  • due to displacement of ameloblasts to root surface
432
Q

What is hypercementosis?

A
  • excess deposition of cementum on root surfaces
  • may cause concrescence
433
Q

What is Concrescence?

A
  • union of the root structure of two or more teeth by cementum
  • common in max perm molars
  • happens during apposition/maturation stage
  • due to trauma / crowding
434
Q

What is dilaceration?

A

results in a distorted root or severe crown angulation (caused by injury or pressure during development)

435
Q

What is Flexion?

A

a deviation or bend restricted just to the root

436
Q

What is accessory roots?

A

due to trauma, pressure, or metabolic disease that effects HERS (hertwig) during root development

437
Q

What is Enamel Dysplasia?

A

-results from a reduction in the quantity of the enamel matrix

  • teeth appear with pitting and intrinsic colour changes in the enamel
438
Q

What is Amelogeneis Imperfecta?

A

-teeth have very thin enamel that chips off or have no enamel at all - crowns are thus yellow

439
Q

What is Enamel Hypoplasia?

A

-pits and grooves
-lack of enamel

440
Q

What is Turner’s Teeth?

A

Hypoplasia of the enamel involving a single permanent tooth

441
Q

What tooth abnormalities are caused by congenital syphilis?

A

Hutchinson’s incisors - abnormally shaped permanent front teeth

Mulberry molars - a first molar tooth whose occlusal surface is pitted with nodules replacing the cusps

442
Q

What is Dentin Dysplasia?

A

Faulty development of dentin

443
Q

What is Dentinogenesis Imperfecta?

A
  • results in blue-gray or brown teeth with an opalescent sheen
  • enamel appears as usual but chips off due to lack of support from the abnormal underlying dentin
444
Q

What is complex odontomas?

A

-when the calcified dental tissues are simply arranged in an irregular mass bearing no morphologic similarity to rudimentary teeth

445
Q

What is compound odontomas?

A

composed of all odontogenic tissues in an orderly pattern that results in many teeth-like structures without morphologic resemblance to normal teeth

446
Q

What is Ameloblastoma?

A

◦ A tumor composed of remnants of the dental lamina

447
Q

What is premature eruption?

A

teeth are present at birth (natal teeth)

Neonatal teeth are those that erupt within the first 30 days of life

448
Q

What is ankylosis?

A

bone has fused to cementum and dentin, preventing exfolation of primary teeth

449
Q

What is an ulcer?

A

a defect or break in continuity of the mucosa that results in a punched-out area similar to a crater

450
Q

What are Nodules?

A

may appear below the surface or may be slightly elevated, are small, round, solid lesions

  • feels like a pea beneath surface
451
Q

What is Cellulitis?

A

inflammation spreads through the soft tissue or organ

dangerous when in oral cavity because it can travel quickly to eyes or brain

452
Q

What is Leukoplakia?

A

-means white patch

-uknown etiology by commonly linked to chronic irritation or trauma

453
Q

What is a Ranula?

A

*usually caused by a sialolith or local trauma to the duct *saliva escapes into the connective tissue of the floor of the mouth

454
Q

What is Glossitis?

A
  • General term used to describe inflammation and
    changes in the topography of the tongue
455
Q

What is Black Hairy Tongue?

A

The filiform papillae are so greatly elongated that
they resemble hairs

456
Q

What is Fissured Tongue?

A

The dorsal surface (top) of the tongue is marked
by having deep fissures or grooves, which become
irritated if food debris collects in them

457
Q

What is Bifid Tongue?

A

tongue only partial fusion during tongue development resulting in split tongue

458
Q

What is HIV Gingivitis?

A

There is often a bright red line along the border of
the free gingival margin
* Also known as atypical gingivitis(ATYP)

459
Q

What is Cervical Lymphadenopathy?

A

Enlargement of the cervical (neck) nodes

Associated with AIDS

460
Q

What is Lymphoma?

A

Lymphoma is the general term used to describe
malignant disorders of the lymphoid tissue

461
Q

What is Kaposi Sarcoma

A
  • One of the opportunistic infections that occurs in
    patients with HIV infection
  • Lesions may appear as multiple bluish, blackish, or
    reddish blotches that are usually flat in the early
    stages
462
Q

What is Cancer?

A

Cells in the mouth sometimes change and no longer grow or behave normally

  • can also lead to non-cancerous tumours/warts
463
Q

The most common precancerous conditions of the mouth?

A

Leukoplakia & erythroplakia

464
Q

What is Erythroplakia?

A

is a flat or slightly raised, red area
that often bleeds easily if it is scraped.

465
Q

What is Erythroleukoplakia?

A

is a patch with both red and white areas

466
Q

Where does oral cancer often start?

A

in the flat, thin squamous cells

This type of cancer is called squamous cell
carcinoma of the mouth

467
Q

What is Carcinoma?

A

Malignant neoplasm (growth) of the
epithelium (tissue lining the mouth)

468
Q

What is Adenocarcinoma?

A

Malignant tumor that arises from the submucous glands underlying the oral mucosa

469
Q

What is Sarcoma?

A

Malignant neoplasm arising from
supportive and connective tissue

470
Q

What is Osteosarcoma?

A

Malignant tumor involving the bone

In the mouth, the affected bones are the bones of the jaws

471
Q

What is Metastasize?

A

Cancer spreads to other regions of the body
* Oral cancer – usually spreads to the neck and
cervical lymph nodes

472
Q

Etiology of Cancer?

A
  • Exact etiology unknown
  • Changes (mutations) to the DNA within cells - can
    cause the cell to stop its normal function and may
    allow a cell to become cancerous.
473
Q

What are the dental implications of radiation therapy?

A

Xerostomia
Radiation caries
Osteoradionecrosis - bone may be subject to death

474
Q

Symptoms of HPV-Related Head and
Neck Cancers?

A
  • A sore, or soreness or irritation that doesn’t go away
  • Red or white patches, or pain, tenderness, or numbness in mouth or lips
  • Lumps, thickening tissues, rough spots, crusty oreroded areas
  • Difficulty chewing, swallowing, speaking or moving your jaw or tongue
  • A change in the way your teeth fit together when you close your mouth