560A Pathology - Test only Flashcards
1
Q
Which of the following is not a member of the cytokine family?
a. interleukin
b. tumor necrosis factor
c. T lymphocyte
d. interferon
A
c. T lymphocyte
2
Q
The most selective antimicrobial activity (toxic to bacteria but little or no effect on human cells) would be exhibited by a drug that:
A
Inhibits cell wall synthesis
3
Q
Most cases of lobar pneumonia are caused by:
A
Pneumococcus (streptococcus pneumoniae)
4
Q
Infections with viruses cause various clinical manifestations. Which of the following is NOT a manifestation of a virus infection?
A. The virus damages or destroys infected cells.
B. Formation of inclusion bodies in infected cells
C. Production of endotoxins
D. The virus causes proliferation of infected cells.
E. The virus infects cells but causes only an asymptomatic (latent) infection.
A
C. Production of endotoxins
a toxin that is present inside a bacterial cell and is released when the cell disintegrates. It is sometimes responsible for the characteristic symptoms of a disease, e.g., in botulism.
5
Q
Coccidioidomycosis is generally an acute, self-limited respiratory infection that subsides without treatment, but a more serious, chronic progressive form is often encountered in:
A
Immunocompromised persons
6
Q
An immunoglobulin found in the blood that is a clump of five molecules (a pentamer) is:
A
IgM (M has 5 points)
7
Q
Autoimmune diseases are caused by __________.
A
Autoantibodies
8
Q
Example of an IgE-mediated hypersensitivity reaction?
A
Penicillin reaction with blood pressure drop. Respiratory distress in a person who has become sensitized to penicillin after another pen injection.
9
Q
Penicillin is an antibiotic that works by way of which mechanism.
A
Inhibition of cell-wall synthesis
10
Q
Which of the following statements does NOT apply to autoimmune diseases?
A. Due to an autoantibody directed against an individual’s own cells or tissue components
B. Often treated by drugs that suppress the inflammatory reaction
C. Inflammation usually responds to penicillin or other bacterial antibiotics.
D. May result from autoantibodies formed against foreign antigens that cross-react with components in similar antigens possessed by the subject’s own tissues
A
C. Inflammation usually responds to penicillin or other bacterial antibiotics.
11
Q
Cytokines that send regulatory signals between cells of the immune system are __________.
A
Interleukins
12
Q
The desirable effect of the immune system, in which foreign antigens are eliminated, is called__________.
A
Immunity
13
Q
Which of the following statements regarding the organism causing anthrax (Bacillus anthracis) is INCORRECT?
A. The organism is a gram-positive spore-forming aerobic bacillus.
B. The organism can be used as a bioterrorism/germ warfare agent.
C. Inhalation of anthrax spores may cause a severe pulmonary infection.
D. Pulmonary anthrax caused by inhalation of anthrax spores can be prevented by a short (1 to 2 week) course of antibiotics because the organism is sensitive to antibiotics.
A
D. Pulmonary anthrax caused by inhalation of anthrax spores can be prevented by a short (1 to 2 week) course of antibiotics because the organism is sensitive to antibiotics.
14
Q
Which of the following describes an atopic person?
A
An individual who is prone to having allergies
15
Q
__________ are antibodies produced by plasma cells.
A
Immunoglobulins
16
Q
Which of the following is NOT a characteristic used to classify bacteria?
A. Biochemical and cultural characteristics B. Shape C. Antigenic structure D. Virulence E. Gram-stain reaction
A
D. Virulence
17
Q
__________ are chemical messengers that take part in any function of the immune system.
A
Cytokines
18
Q
________ immunity is characterized by the formation of a population of lymphocytes that can attack and destroy the foreign material.
A
Cell-mediated
19
Q
The fundamental structure of a virus consists essentially of a core containing a single nucleic acid enclosed within a protein coat. What is the outer protein coat called?
A
Capsid
20
Q
__________ immunity is associated with the production of antibodies that can combine and eliminate the foreign material.
A
Humoral
21
Q
Most of the lymphocytes in the circulation would be classified as what?
A
T lymphocytes
22
Q
Which of the following is an antiviral substance produced by virus-infected cells?
A
Interferon
23
Q
Which of the following statement regarding antigens and antibodies is INCORRECT?
A. An antigen is a substance that can induce formation of an antibody in a person whose own cells and tissues lack the antigen.
B. An antibody is a globulin made by plasma cells (which are derived from B lymphocytes).
C. Normally our own immune system will not produce antibodies that are directed against antigens present in our own cells and tissues.
D. Most antibodies are produced by either helper T lymphocytes (T4 cells) or suppressor T lymphocytes(T8 cells) when they are stimulated by a foreign antigen.
A
D. Most antibodies are produced by either helper T lymphocytes (T4 cells) or suppressor T lymphocytes(T8 cells) when they are stimulated by a foreign antigen.
24
Q
John Jones was exposed to a person who was ill with an infectious disease, and John received an injection of globulin to provide protection against the infectious agent to which he was exposed. What is the class of antibody in the gamma globulin that provides the protection?
A
IgG
25
One method the body uses to destroy bacteria is by forming a membrane attack complex that produces perforations in the walls of bacterial cells and enveloped viruses, thereby causing their destruction. What is the substance producing the membrane attack complex?
Complement
26
True or False? Plasma cells make antibodies.
TRUE
27
__________________ inhibit the multiplication of viruses that have infected a cell.
Interferons
28
True or False? Our normal bacterial flora (in oral cavity, vagina, etc.) help protect us from infections by inhibiting potentially pathogenic microorganisms that attempt to grow in regions of our body occupied by our normal flora.
TRUE
29
True or False? The growth of viruses is inhibited by the proper use of antibiotics.
FALSE
30
True or False? The immune defenses of the host are activated as viruses that invade cells produce new antigens and the body recognizes these cells as foreign.
TRUE
31
True or False? Cellular immunity is associated with the formation of antibodies that can combine with and eliminate an antigen; the major defense against bacteria and bacterial toxins.
FALSE
32
An angioma is a:
Benign blood vessel tumor
33
Which of the following statements regarding a dermoid cyst (benign cystic teratoma of the ovary is INCORRECT?
A. A benign tumor composed of several different types of tissue
B. May contain hair and oil derived from glands in the squamous epithelial lining of the cyst
C. Derived from an unfertilized ovum within the ovary that begins to grow and the proliferating cells differentiate into a tumor composed of many different types of mature tissues
D. Sometimes metastasizes to lungs and brain
D. Sometimes metastasizes to lungs and brain
34
How does our immune system protect us from cancer?
It recognizes and destroys abnormal cells, which differ from normal cells.
35
Which of these is a benign smooth muscle tumor of the uterus?
Myoma
36
True or False? A carcinoma arises from surface, glandular or parenchymal epithelial tissues; a sarcoma arises from other primary tissues.
TRUE
37
________________ is characterized by excessive absorption of iron, which accumulates within the body and disrupts organ functions.
Hemochromatosis
38
What is a neoplasm of blood cells?
Leukemia
39
A mother has given birth to an infant with cytomegalic inclusion disease; what does this indicate?
The mother has been previously infected with CMV and the infection became activated during pregnancy, or the mother acquired a CMV infection during her pregnancy.
40
A metastatic tumor is one that:
Has spread to a location away from its site of origin.
41
What is the genotype for Turner syndrome?
45, X
| A chromosomal disorder in which a female is born with only one X chromosome
42
True or False. BRCA1 and BRCA2 mutations often cause ovarian cancer.
TRUE
43
Absence of a chromosome is called a _______________.
monosomy
44
True or False: Conditions such as leukoplakia or lentigo maligns should be regarded as an indication that changes have occurred in tissue that could become cancerous if the site is left untreated
TRUE
45
Malignant tumor cells do not wear out and die as normal cells do, but instead they:
become immortal and proliferate indefinitely
46
The gene responsible for the fragile X syndrome is ___________.
FMR1
47
Chromosome deletion occurs when:
a chromosome breaks during meiosis and the broken piece is lost from the cell
48
True or false? A tumor by definition is always malignant.
FALSE
49
Which is NOT one of the common agents that causes opportunistic infections in AIDS patients?
```
A. Pneumocystis carinii
B. Cytomegalovirus
C. Mycobacterium avium-intracellulare (tuberculosis)
D. Corynebacterium diptheriae
E. Histoplasmosis
```
D. Corynebacterium diptheriae
50
True or false? HIV is found in equal amounts in blood, semen, urine, saliva, and perspiration.
FALSE
51
Which of the following statements about tumors is true?
Tumors are the product of a mutation in a normal cell that causes that cell to grow and reproduce itself abnormally.
52
A pregnant woman with __________ needs to adhere to a phenylalanine-restricted diet because the high concentration of phenylalanine in the woman's blood harms the fetus.
Phenylketonuria
53
True or False? Adjuvant chemotherapy attempts to destroy sub-clinical micro-metastases that have already spread from the primary tumor.
TRUE
54
Which of the following statements about fragile X syndrome is INCORRECT?
A. It causes mental deficiency.
B. It affects a gene on the X chromosome.
C. It is characterized by an excessive number of cytosine-guanine-guanine triplet-repeating sequences that disrupt gene function.
D. There is no relationship between the number of triplet repeats and the severity of the mental deficiency.
E. The diagnosis is made by DNA analysis of cells from the affected person.
D. There is no relationship between the number of triplet repeats and the severity of the mental deficiency.
55
Which of the following infections is NOT caused by the gonococcus?
A. infection of the urethral mucosa (urethristis)
B. Infection of the bladder mucosa (cystitis)
C. throat infections (pharyngitis)
D. infections of the rectal mucosa (proctitis)
E. infections of the mucosa of the uterine cervix (cervictis)
B. Infection of the bladder mucosa (cystitis)
56
______________ syndrome occurs in males when there is an extra X chromosome.
Klinefelter's
57
Precancerous/Precursor condition for Lentigo maligna
Melanoma
58
Precancerous/Precursor condition for Leukoplakia.
Oral cavity squamous cell cancer
59
Precancerous/Precursor condition for Papiloma virus infection
Cervical cancer
60
Red blood cells containing no normal hemoglobin is the defect in which genetic disease?
Sickle cell disease
61
What is the most common method of treating a benign tumor?
Surgical excision
62
Which of the following statements is correct?
A. A hormone-dependent tumor is one that produces sex hormones.
B. Adjuvant chemotherapy attempts to destroy subclinical micro metastases that have already spread from the primary tumor.
C. Mutations caused by viruses, chemicals, radiation or other agents do not disturb cell function and do not predispose to tumors.
D. Radiotherapy is always used with surgery for malignant tumors since surgical removal cannot be assured of total removal of tumor.
B. Adjuvant chemotherapy attempts to destroy subclinical micro metastases that have already spread from the primary tumor.
63
What cardiovascular abnormality may result in cyanosis and clubbing of the fingers?
Tetralogy of Fallot
| A rare condition caused by a combination of four heart defects that are present at birth.
64
Which of the following is NOT a common sign or symptom of pulmonary infarction?
```
A. pleuritic chest pain
B. pericarditis
C. dyspnea
D. bloody sputum
E. cough
```
B. pericarditis
A swelling and irritation of the thin saclike membrane surrounding the heart (pericardium).
65
The most likely place for a thrombosis to form postoperatively is:
in the leg veins
66
Which of the following does NOT cause embolisms?
```
A. Air
B. Fat
C. Amnionic fluid
D. Bacteria
E. Injected crushed narcotic tablets
```
D. Bacteria
67
The __________ test bypasses the first two phases of blood coagulation and primarily measures the level of fibrinogen in the blood.
thrombin time
68
Which substance is most specific for detecting a recent myocardial infarction?
Troponin
(Troponin, or the troponin complex, is a complex of three regulatory proteins that is integral to muscle contraction in skeletal muscle and cardiac muscle, but not smooth muscle)
69
Which statement about platelets is not true?
A. They plug the defect in the vessel wall.
B. They liberate chemical compounds that cause the vessel to contract.
C. They release phospholipids that initiate the process of blood coagulation
D. Are removed from circulation in the spleen.
E. All of the above are true
E. All of the above are true
70
True or False? Pitting edema most frequently occurs in left heart failure.
FALSE
71
Which of the following conditions does not predispose to edema?
```
A. Heart failure
B. Von Willebrand's factor deficiency
C. Increased capillary permeability
D. Low plasma osmotic pressure resulting from low blood proteins
E. Lymphatic obstruction
```
B. Von Willebrand's factor deficiency
72
True or False? Vitamin K levels in the blood are reduced by bleeding.
FALSE
73
A disturbance of blood coagulation caused by a deficiency of prothrombin or related factors does NOT include which of the following?
```
A. Administration of anticoagulant drugs
B. Inadequate synthesis of vitamin K
C. Inadequate absorption of vitamin K
D. Severe liver disease
E. Inadequate iron intake
```
E. Inadequate iron intake
74
This substance is released into the blood during an acute inflammatory event
CRP
75
Flowing of blood through a tear in the tunica media of the aorta is called:
aortic dissection
76
Which molecule is probably the most atherogenic?
trans fat
77
Which of the following substances increases the risk of thromboembolic disease?
```
A. Aspirin
B. Coumadin drugs
C. Oral contraceptives
D. Diet pills
E. Heparin
```
C. Oral contraceptives
78
In phase 2 of the blood coagulation process, _________ is converted into __________.
prothrombin; thrombin
79
Digitalis (digoxin) is often used to treat which condition?
Atrial fibrillation
80
True or False? Cocaine dilates the coronary arteries and increases myocardial blood flow.
FALSE
81
Another term for primary hypertension is:
essential hypertension
82
True or False? An elevated CRP test in an otherwise normal person without evidence of an infection predicts an increased long-term risk of cardiovascular disease by identifying the inflammatory changes associated with accumulation of macrophages and other inflammatory cells in an unstable atheromatous coronaryartery plaque.
TRUE
83
Which of the following is NOT a frequent complication of a myocardial infarction?
```
A. heart failure
B. arrhythmias
C. formation of mural thrombi
D. rupture of the heart
E. mitral valve prolapse
```
E. mitral valve prolapse
84
Several tests are helpful when attempting to establish a diagnosis of a pulmonary embolism or pulmonary infarct. Which of the following tests would NOT be helpful?
```
A. Urinalysis
B. Chest x-ray
C. Radioisotope lung scan
D. Examination of sputum to determine if the patient has bloody sputum
E. CT scan of thorax
```
A. Urinalysis
85
Reduced capillary osmotic pressure can be caused by:
low concentration of plasma proteins
86
True or False? Blood will not clot in the absence of calcium.
TRUE
87
Which of the following statements regarding coronary atherosclerosis is INCORRECT?
A. The initial stage in the formation of an atheromatous plaque is reversible.
B. Macrophages filled with cholesterol and other lipids accumulate within the intima of the artery.
C. An unstable atheromatous plaque may rupture and discharge atheromatous debris into the lumen of acoronary artery.
D. Administration of drugs to dissolve a thrombosis that plugs a coronary artery (thrombolytic therapy) is a more effective method of restoring blood flow to the heart muscle than is coronary angio
D. Administration of drugs to dissolve a thrombosis that plugs a coronary artery (thrombolytic therapy) is a more effective method of restoring blood flow to the heart muscle than is coronary angio.
88
Which of the following statements regarding use of aspirin to reduce the risk of heart attacks is INCORRECT?
A. Aspirin interferes with platelet function.
B. Large doses of aspirin are required in order to reduce heart attack risk.
C. Aspirin is absorbed rapidly from the gastrointestinal tract.
D. The effect of aspirin on platelet function persists for the entire 10-day life span of the platelets.
B. Large doses of aspirin are required in order to reduce heart attack risk.
89
Which of the following is NOT a symptom of venous thrombosis/pulmonary embolism?
```
A. Shortness of breath or unexplained coughing
B. Bluish discoloration of the skin
C. Severe cramping in the legs and arms
D. Pleuritic chest pain
E. Cyanosis
```
C. Severe cramping in the legs and arms
90
What is the definitive diagnostic method to identify a pulmonary embolism?
A. Pulmonary angiogram
91
Which is NOT one of the five factors that affect hemostasis?
A. Adequate amounts of potassium ions in the blood
B. Integrity of the small blood vessels
C. Adequate numbers of structurally and functionally normal platelets
D. Normal amounts of coagulation factors
E. Normal amounts of coagulation inhibitors 1 out of 1 points
A. Adequate amounts of potassium ions in the blood
92
True or False? Many blood coagulation factors are produced in the liver, and their concentrations in the blood are reduced in patients with liver disease.
TRUE
93
In phase 3 of the blood coagulation process, __________ is converted into __________.
C. fibrinogen; fibrin
94
True or False? Von Willebrand factor is required for platelets to adhere at the site of a vascular injury.
TRUE
95
Which of the following statements relating to congestive failure is INCORRECT?
A. It may follow any type of heart disease.
B. Venous pressure is elevated.
C. It leads to excretion of excessive amounts of salt and water by the kidneys.
D. Blood volume is increased.
E. Edema of tissues
C. It leads to excretion of excessive amounts of salt and water by the kidneys.
96
What is the cause of most aneurysms of the abdominal aorta?
Marked arteriosclerosis of the aorta
97
True or False? The usual cause of decreased levels of vitamin K is by a gallstone blocking the common bile duct.
TRUE
98
A septic embolus occurs when:
bacteria from an infection in organs adjacent to the site of the original clot formation are transported by an embolus to the lungs.
99
The most common cause of cardiac arrest and sudden death is:
ventricular fibrillation (A life-threatening heart rhythm that results in a rapid, inadequate heartbeat.)
100
Why does cyanosis occur?
Inadequate oxygenation of the blood causes skin and mucous membranes to become bluish in color.
101
Deficiencies of plasma coagulation factors often lead to large areas of hemorrhage called __________.
hematomas
102
__________ dissolves fibrin in blood clots.
Plasmin
103
The term acute coronary syndrome refers to which of the following?
```
A. Unstable angina without myocardial injury
B. Minor myocardial damage
C. Major myocardial infarction
D. A and B only
E. A, B, and C
```
E. A, B, and C
104
Why do cardiac enzymes rise after an acute myocardial infarction?
Cardiac enzymes leak from the damaged muscle fibers into the bloodstream.
105
Estrogen in oral contraceptives may lead to venous and arterial thromboses because:
estrogen stimulates the synthesis of coagulation factors.
106
When does gangrene occur?
When a major artery to a leg or arm becomes obstructed and undergoes necrosis due to reduced blood flow.
107
Which of the following statements about von Willebrand disease is NOT true?
A. The manifestations of this disease result from a deficiency of a large protein molecule.
B. It is characterized by episodes of hemorrhage in joints and internal organs after minor injury.
C. It is usually transmitted as a Mendelian dominant trait.
D. It is one of the few common hereditary bleeding diseases.
B. It is characterized by episodes of hemorrhage in joints and internal organs after minor injury.
108
The __________ measures the time it takes for blood plasma to clot after adding a lipid substance and calcium to start the clotting process.
A. partial thromboplastin time
109
Which of the following persons do NOT require prophylactic antibiotic treatment before a dental or surgical procedure?
A. A 32-year-old woman with a mitral valve prolapse associated with mitral regurgitation
B. A 70-year-old man with mild aortic stenosis caused by calcification of the aortic valve
C. A 37-year-old man who previously had a scarred mitral valve replaced with an artificial heart valve
D. A 55-year-old man with diabetes and angina pectoris
D. A 55-year-old man with diabetes and angina pectoris
110
Angina pectoris is usually a manifestation of:
atherosclerosis of coronary arteries
111
This type of shock may be caused by severe burns or diarrhea.
hypovolemic shock
112
Which of the following conditions does NOT lead to edema?
A. Obstruction of lymphatic channels
B. Inadequate protein intake (hypoproteinemia)C. Compression or blockage of a vein or veins
D. Severe dehydration
E. Heart failure
D. Severe dehydration
113
Which of the following events is unlikely to occur as a result of a thrombosis within a leg vein?
A. Swelling (edema) of the leg
B. Pulmonary embolism
C. Accumulation of fluid within the lungs (pulmonary edema)
D. Pulmonary infarct
C. Accumulation of fluid within the lungs (pulmonary edema)
114
A decrease in platelets is called __________.
thrombocytopenia
115
In phase 1 of the blood coagulation process, __________ is formed.
thromboplastin
116
Which of the following statements related to ineffective endocarditis (bacterial endocarditis) is INCORRECT?
A. It is a complication of valvular heart disease.
B. Fibrin-platelet thrombi form on rough valve surface; bacteria implant in the thrombus and incite inflammation.
C. Microorganisms never implant on a normal heart valve.
D. Part of valve vegetations may break loose and be carried into the circulation as emboli.
C. Microorganisms never implant on a normal heart valve.
117
Which of the following statements does NOT apply to a dissecting aneurysm of the aorta?
A. It is characterized by splitting of the muscular wall (media) of the aorta by blood.
B. It is due to a congenital weakness of the aortic wall.
C. It is due to acquired degenerative changes (cystic medial degeneration) in the aortic wall.
D. Aortic wall dissection may extend the entire length of the artery.
E. Often fatal if it occurs in the ascending aorta
B. It is due to a congenital weakness of the aortic wall.
118
A 6-year-old boy on a well-balanced diet has marked edema of the legs, accumulation of fluid in the abdomen, and a low blood serum albumin and total serum protein. His urine contains large amounts of protein. What is the most likely cause of edema?
A. Increased capillary permeability allows excess fluid to leak from the capillaries.
B. Reduced serum albumin resulting from excess loss in the urine lowers plasma osmotic pressure,which allows excess fluid to leak from capillaries.
C. Low plasma proteins and albumin probably results from inadequate food intake, so the liver is unableto make sufficient albumin to maintain a normal plasma osmotic pressure.
D. Obstruction of lymphatic channels draining the lower part of the body forces fluid out of the capillariesinto the tissues.
B. Reduced serum albumin resulting from excess loss in the urine lowers plasma osmotic pressure, which allows excess fluid to leak from capillaries.
119
What is the usual source of pulmonary emboli?
Thrombi in leg veins
120
__________ are small pinpoint areas of bleeding in the skin and deeper tissues resulting from leakage of blood through minute defects in the capillary endothelium.
Petechiae
121
True or False? Normally, small blood vessels expand after injury, helping to seal the defect by a blood clot.
FALSE
122
A 5-year-old male child has a bleeding disease that is characterized by areas of hemorrhage in the joints and muscles after minor injuries. Laboratory tests reveal a deficiency of a coagulation factor active in the early phase of blood coagulation (formation of intrinsic thromboplastin). What is the most likely diagnosis?
Hemophilia
123
What is the procedure called where a catheter is inserted into a large artery in the arm or leg that ultimately compresses the plaque in a heart artery to make the lumen larger?
coronary angioplasty or balloon angioplasty
124
Which of the following diseases are considered to be very closely related?
A. Endometrial hyperplasia and in situ carcinoma
B. Cervical dysplasia and endometriosis
C. Cervical dysplasia and in situ carcinoma
D. Salpingitis and condylomas of the genital tract
C. Cervical dysplasia and in situ carcinoma
Cervical dysplasia: The development of abnormal cells in the narrow neck of a woman's uterus (the cervix).
In situ carcinoma: An early-stage cancer in which the cancerous growth or tumor is still confined to the site from which it started, and has not spread to surrounding tissue or other organs in the body. When cancer in situ involves cells that line the internal organs or epithelial cells, it is called carcinoma in situ
125
Which of the following statements about endometriosis is NOT true?
A. It is a rare condition.
B. It is characterized by deposits of endometrial tissue in locations outside the lining of the endometrial cavity (endometrium).
C. It may be associated with pain related to menstrual periods.
D. Scarring associated with endometriosis may block tubes and cause sterility.
E. More common in infertile women
A. It is a rare condition.
126
Which of the following is NOT a treatment for endometriosis?
A. Administration of drugs that suppress prostaglandins
B. Administration of oral contraceptives
C. Administration of synthetic hormones with progesterone
D. Administration of drugs that suppress the output of gonadotropins
A. Administration of drugs that suppress prostaglandins
127
Which of the following statements regarding human papillomavirus (HPV) is correct?
A. Only a few types of HPV can infect the cervix.
B. Most HPV types are carcinogenic (cancer causing).
C. Most HPV infections cannot be eradicated by the body's immune defenses and become chronic.
D. Testing cervical material obtained by a Pap smear for HPV may be useful to supplement the Pap test when atypical cells are identified in the Pap smear.
D. Testing cervical material obtained by a Pap smear for HPV may be useful to supplement the Pap test when atypical cells are identified in the Pap smear.
128
What is the presence of normal endometrium in any location outside the endometrial cavity called?
A. Endometriosis
129
True or False? Hyperventilation can cause respiratory alkalosis.
TRUE
130
True or False? Excessive loss of hydrogen ions resulting from prolonged vomiting leads to metabolic alkalosis.
TRUE
131
The acid-base disturbance in which reduction of bicarbonate is the primary abnormality is called __________.
metabolic acidosis
132
Which of the following procedures or tests is NOT useful for evaluating fluid, electrolyte, or acid-base balance?
A. Determination of blood pH
B. Determination of plasma PO2
C. Determination of plasma PCO2
D. Determination of concentrations of sodium, potassium, chloride, and bicarbonate in plasma
B. Determination of plasma PO2
133
Respiratory acidosis occurs most commonly in which disease or condition?
A. Uncontrolled diabetes mellitus
B. Renal insufficiency
C. Emphysema
D. Potassium depletion
C. Emphysema
134
Which of the following statements regarding the bicarbonate-carbonic acid buffer system is correct?
A. The lungs regulate the carbonic acid concentration of the blood by regulating alveolar PCO2.
B. The kidneys regulate the carbonic acid concentration of the blood by forming carbonic acid within thetubular epithelial cells.
C. The kidneys regulate the bicarbonate concentration of the blood by secreting bicarbonate ions into thetubular filtrate.
D. A fall in the bicarbonate concentration of the blood resulting from buffering (neutralizing) acid ketonebodies in a person with diabetic ketoacidosis is associated with a corresponding rise in blood PCO2 andcarbonic acid.
A. The lungs regulate the carbonic acid concentration of the blood by regulating alveolar PCO2.
135
Hyperventilation is the compensatory mechanism for which of the following?
C. metabolic acidosis
| to decrease the arterial pCO2.
136
An __________ hemorrhage occurs when escaping blood accumulates between the outer layer of the dura and the cranial bones.
epidural
137
Which disease is characterized by rigidity of voluntary muscles and tremor of fingers and extremities?
Parkinson disease
138
```
An infection of the spinal cord is called a(n) __________.
A. meningitis
B. encephalitis
C. meningoencephalitis
D. myelitis
```
D. myelitis
encephalitis- Inflammation of the brain, often due to infection.
meningoencephalitis - Inflammation of the brain and surrounding tissues, usually caused by infection.
Inflammation of brain and spinal cord membranes, meningitis: typically caused by an infection.
139
Marked dilatation of the ventricular system is called:
Hydrocephalus
140
Which of the following does NOT occur in Addison?s disease?
A. Increased skin pigmentation
B. Exophthalmos
C. High levels of ACTH in blood
D. Low levels of cortisol in blood
B. Exophthalmos (abnormal protrusion of the eyeball or eyeballs.)
141
Which of the following is NOT a characteristic feature of Cushing's disease?
```
A. Osteoporosis
B. Elevated blood glucose
C. Elevated blood cortisol
D. Elevated blood pressure
E. Elevated blood thyroid hormone
```
E. Elevated blood thyroid hormone
142
Metabolic alkalosis occurs in association with many diseases and conditions. Which of the following is NOT usually associated with metabolic alkalosis?
A. Excess loss of gastric juice due to vomiting
B. Ingestion of large amounts of sodium bicarbonate or other antacids
C. Overproduction of ketone bodies
D. Excess secretion of corticosteroids by the adrenal glands
C. Overproduction of ketone bodies
143
Which of the following is the major effect produced by an increase in the rate and depth of respiration?
Plasma PCO2 falls.
144
What is the main buffer in the extracellular fluid?
Bicarbonate-carbonic acid
145
A(n) __________ hemorrhage occurs when escaping blood accumulates between the dura and the arachnoid.
subdural
146
The firm, fibrous outer membrane of the central nervous system is the __________.
dura
147
Which of the following statements regarding a transient ischemic attack (TIA) is INCORRECT?
A. A brief episode of neurologic dysfunction that subsides spontaneously in a short time
B. Often results from embolization of thrombus material or athermous material from an arterioscleroticplaque in the internal carotid artery
C. Not related to a congenital aneurysm of the circle of Willis
D. Can usually be detected by CT scan of brain
D. Can usually be detected by CT scan of brain
transient ischemic attack: A brief stroke-like attack that, despite resolving within minutes to hours, still requires immediate medical attention to distinguish from an actual stroke.
148
Respiratory alkalosis is often caused by:
severe anxiety with hyperventilation
149
Which body fluids most closely resemble each other in electrolyte composition?
Intravascular fluid and interstitial fluid
150
A patient has severe chronic lung disease and is unable to excrete CO2 efficiently or oxygenate his blood adequately. What acid-base disturbance is likely to result from this condition?
Respiratory acidosis
151
The major extracellular anions are:
bicarbonate and chloride
152
True or False? A transient ischemic attack (TIA) may result from embolization of atheromatous material from an internal carotid artery plaque that lodges in the brain.
TRUE
153
__________ is the impaired calcification of the bone in an adult due to vitamin D deficiency that contributes to bone loss in osteoporosis.
Osteomalacia
154
What is a pathologic fracture?
A fracture that occurs in a weakened area of bone secondary to a disease involving the bone
155
Definition: Cause of disease
etiology
156
Definition: Subjective manifestation (i.e. pain)
symptom
157
Definition: Objective manifestation (i.e. swelling or rash)
Sign
158
Definition: Process of development of disease
Pathogenesis
159
Definition: the probable outcome of a disease or a disorder
Prognosis
160
Precancerous/Precursor condition for Myelodysplastic syndromes.
Leukemia
161
Apoptosis is:
genetically programmed self-destruction of cells.
162
The condition in which mature, competent helper T cells from a donor orchestrate an immune response directed against recipient tissues is:
graft vs. host disease.
163
An infarct is caused by
a) trauma.
b) poisoning.
c) endogenous physical agents.
d) anoxia.
e) a deficiency of dietary factors
e) a deficiency of dietary factors
164
A characteristic problem in osteoporosis is:
pathologic fractures.
165
A lumbar puncture
a) may produce a mild headache.
b) may be performed between L3 and L4.
c) draws CSF from the extradural space.
d) often traumatizes spinal nerves.
e) is performed near the vertebra prominens.
b) may be performed between L3 and L4.
166
______: blood clot formed within the vascular system
thrombosis
167
______: necrosis of tissue caused by interruption of its blood supply
infarction
168
_____: a plug composed of a detached clot, a mass of bacteria or other foreign material occludes a blood vessel
embolism
169
The _______ measures the phase of the coagulation mechanism after the formation of thromboplastin.
Prothrombin time
170
A disturbance of blood coagulation caused by a deficiency of prothrombin or related factors does NOT include which of the following?
A. Administration of anticoagulant drugs
B. Inadequate synthesis of vitamin K
C. Inadequate absorption of vitamin K
D. Severe liver disease
E. Inadequate iron intake
E. Inadequate iron intake
