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Human Nutrition Comp Exam > 560A Pathology - Test only > Flashcards

560A Pathology - Test only Flashcards

1
Q

Which of the following is not a member of the cytokine family?

a. interleukin
b. tumor necrosis factor
c. T lymphocyte
d. interferon

A

c. T lymphocyte

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2
Q

The most selective antimicrobial activity (toxic to bacteria but little or no effect on human cells) would be exhibited by a drug that:

A

Inhibits cell wall synthesis

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3
Q

Most cases of lobar pneumonia are caused by:

A

Pneumococcus (streptococcus pneumoniae)

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4
Q

Infections with viruses cause various clinical manifestations. Which of the following is NOT a manifestation of a virus infection?
A. The virus damages or destroys infected cells.
B. Formation of inclusion bodies in infected cells
C. Production of endotoxins
D. The virus causes proliferation of infected cells.
E. The virus infects cells but causes only an asymptomatic (latent) infection.

A

C. Production of endotoxins

a toxin that is present inside a bacterial cell and is released when the cell disintegrates. It is sometimes responsible for the characteristic symptoms of a disease, e.g., in botulism.

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5
Q

Coccidioidomycosis is generally an acute, self-limited respiratory infection that subsides without treatment, but a more serious, chronic progressive form is often encountered in:

A

Immunocompromised persons

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6
Q

An immunoglobulin found in the blood that is a clump of five molecules (a pentamer) is:

A

IgM (M has 5 points)

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7
Q

Autoimmune diseases are caused by __________.

A

Autoantibodies

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8
Q

Example of an IgE-mediated hypersensitivity reaction?

A

Penicillin reaction with blood pressure drop. Respiratory distress in a person who has become sensitized to penicillin after another pen injection.

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9
Q

Penicillin is an antibiotic that works by way of which mechanism.

A

Inhibition of cell-wall synthesis

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10
Q

Which of the following statements does NOT apply to autoimmune diseases?

A. Due to an autoantibody directed against an individual’s own cells or tissue components
B. Often treated by drugs that suppress the inflammatory reaction
C. Inflammation usually responds to penicillin or other bacterial antibiotics.
D. May result from autoantibodies formed against foreign antigens that cross-react with components in similar antigens possessed by the subject’s own tissues

A

C. Inflammation usually responds to penicillin or other bacterial antibiotics.

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11
Q

Cytokines that send regulatory signals between cells of the immune system are __________.

A

Interleukins

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12
Q

The desirable effect of the immune system, in which foreign antigens are eliminated, is called__________.

A

Immunity

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13
Q

Which of the following statements regarding the organism causing anthrax (Bacillus anthracis) is INCORRECT?

A. The organism is a gram-positive spore-forming aerobic bacillus.
B. The organism can be used as a bioterrorism/germ warfare agent.
C. Inhalation of anthrax spores may cause a severe pulmonary infection.
D. Pulmonary anthrax caused by inhalation of anthrax spores can be prevented by a short (1 to 2 week) course of antibiotics because the organism is sensitive to antibiotics.

A

D. Pulmonary anthrax caused by inhalation of anthrax spores can be prevented by a short (1 to 2 week) course of antibiotics because the organism is sensitive to antibiotics.

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14
Q

Which of the following describes an atopic person?

A

An individual who is prone to having allergies

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15
Q

__________ are antibodies produced by plasma cells.

A

Immunoglobulins

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16
Q

Which of the following is NOT a characteristic used to classify bacteria?

A. Biochemical and cultural characteristics 
B. Shape 
C. Antigenic structure 
D. Virulence 
E. Gram-stain reaction
A

D. Virulence

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17
Q

__________ are chemical messengers that take part in any function of the immune system.

A

Cytokines

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18
Q

________ immunity is characterized by the formation of a population of lymphocytes that can attack and destroy the foreign material.

A

Cell-mediated

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19
Q

The fundamental structure of a virus consists essentially of a core containing a single nucleic acid enclosed within a protein coat. What is the outer protein coat called?

A

Capsid

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20
Q

__________ immunity is associated with the production of antibodies that can combine and eliminate the foreign material.

A

Humoral

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21
Q

Most of the lymphocytes in the circulation would be classified as what?

A

T lymphocytes

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22
Q

Which of the following is an antiviral substance produced by virus-infected cells?

A

Interferon

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23
Q

Which of the following statement regarding antigens and antibodies is INCORRECT?

A. An antigen is a substance that can induce formation of an antibody in a person whose own cells and tissues lack the antigen.
B. An antibody is a globulin made by plasma cells (which are derived from B lymphocytes).
C. Normally our own immune system will not produce antibodies that are directed against antigens present in our own cells and tissues.
D. Most antibodies are produced by either helper T lymphocytes (T4 cells) or suppressor T lymphocytes(T8 cells) when they are stimulated by a foreign antigen.

A

D. Most antibodies are produced by either helper T lymphocytes (T4 cells) or suppressor T lymphocytes(T8 cells) when they are stimulated by a foreign antigen.

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24
Q

John Jones was exposed to a person who was ill with an infectious disease, and John received an injection of globulin to provide protection against the infectious agent to which he was exposed. What is the class of antibody in the gamma globulin that provides the protection?

A

IgG

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25
Q

One method the body uses to destroy bacteria is by forming a membrane attack complex that produces perforations in the walls of bacterial cells and enveloped viruses, thereby causing their destruction. What is the substance producing the membrane attack complex?

A

Complement

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26
Q

True or False? Plasma cells make antibodies.

A

TRUE

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27
Q

__________________ inhibit the multiplication of viruses that have infected a cell.

A

Interferons

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28
Q

True or False? Our normal bacterial flora (in oral cavity, vagina, etc.) help protect us from infections by inhibiting potentially pathogenic microorganisms that attempt to grow in regions of our body occupied by our normal flora.

A

TRUE

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29
Q

True or False? The growth of viruses is inhibited by the proper use of antibiotics.

A

FALSE

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30
Q

True or False? The immune defenses of the host are activated as viruses that invade cells produce new antigens and the body recognizes these cells as foreign.

A

TRUE

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31
Q

True or False? Cellular immunity is associated with the formation of antibodies that can combine with and eliminate an antigen; the major defense against bacteria and bacterial toxins.

A

FALSE

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32
Q

An angioma is a:

A

Benign blood vessel tumor

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33
Q

Which of the following statements regarding a dermoid cyst (benign cystic teratoma of the ovary is INCORRECT?

A. A benign tumor composed of several different types of tissue
B. May contain hair and oil derived from glands in the squamous epithelial lining of the cyst
C. Derived from an unfertilized ovum within the ovary that begins to grow and the proliferating cells differentiate into a tumor composed of many different types of mature tissues
D. Sometimes metastasizes to lungs and brain

A

D. Sometimes metastasizes to lungs and brain

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34
Q

How does our immune system protect us from cancer?

A

It recognizes and destroys abnormal cells, which differ from normal cells.

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35
Q

Which of these is a benign smooth muscle tumor of the uterus?

A

Myoma

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36
Q

True or False? A carcinoma arises from surface, glandular or parenchymal epithelial tissues; a sarcoma arises from other primary tissues.

A

TRUE

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37
Q

________________ is characterized by excessive absorption of iron, which accumulates within the body and disrupts organ functions.

A

Hemochromatosis

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38
Q

What is a neoplasm of blood cells?

A

Leukemia

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39
Q

A mother has given birth to an infant with cytomegalic inclusion disease; what does this indicate?

A

The mother has been previously infected with CMV and the infection became activated during pregnancy, or the mother acquired a CMV infection during her pregnancy.

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40
Q

A metastatic tumor is one that:

A

Has spread to a location away from its site of origin.

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41
Q

What is the genotype for Turner syndrome?

A

45, X

A chromosomal disorder in which a female is born with only one X chromosome

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42
Q

True or False. BRCA1 and BRCA2 mutations often cause ovarian cancer.

A

TRUE

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43
Q

Absence of a chromosome is called a _______________.

A

monosomy

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44
Q

True or False: Conditions such as leukoplakia or lentigo maligns should be regarded as an indication that changes have occurred in tissue that could become cancerous if the site is left untreated

A

TRUE

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45
Q

Malignant tumor cells do not wear out and die as normal cells do, but instead they:

A

become immortal and proliferate indefinitely

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46
Q

The gene responsible for the fragile X syndrome is ___________.

A

FMR1

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47
Q

Chromosome deletion occurs when:

A

a chromosome breaks during meiosis and the broken piece is lost from the cell

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48
Q

True or false? A tumor by definition is always malignant.

A

FALSE

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49
Q

Which is NOT one of the common agents that causes opportunistic infections in AIDS patients?

A. Pneumocystis carinii
B. Cytomegalovirus
C. Mycobacterium avium-intracellulare (tuberculosis)
D. Corynebacterium diptheriae
E. Histoplasmosis
A

D. Corynebacterium diptheriae

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50
Q

True or false? HIV is found in equal amounts in blood, semen, urine, saliva, and perspiration.

A

FALSE

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51
Q

Which of the following statements about tumors is true?

A

Tumors are the product of a mutation in a normal cell that causes that cell to grow and reproduce itself abnormally.

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52
Q

A pregnant woman with __________ needs to adhere to a phenylalanine-restricted diet because the high concentration of phenylalanine in the woman’s blood harms the fetus.

A

Phenylketonuria

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53
Q

True or False? Adjuvant chemotherapy attempts to destroy sub-clinical micro-metastases that have already spread from the primary tumor.

A

TRUE

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54
Q

Which of the following statements about fragile X syndrome is INCORRECT?

A. It causes mental deficiency.
B. It affects a gene on the X chromosome.
C. It is characterized by an excessive number of cytosine-guanine-guanine triplet-repeating sequences that disrupt gene function.
D. There is no relationship between the number of triplet repeats and the severity of the mental deficiency.
E. The diagnosis is made by DNA analysis of cells from the affected person.

A

D. There is no relationship between the number of triplet repeats and the severity of the mental deficiency.

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55
Q

Which of the following infections is NOT caused by the gonococcus?

A. infection of the urethral mucosa (urethristis)
B. Infection of the bladder mucosa (cystitis)
C. throat infections (pharyngitis)
D. infections of the rectal mucosa (proctitis)
E. infections of the mucosa of the uterine cervix (cervictis)

A

B. Infection of the bladder mucosa (cystitis)

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56
Q

______________ syndrome occurs in males when there is an extra X chromosome.

A

Klinefelter’s

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57
Q

Precancerous/Precursor condition for Lentigo maligna

A

Melanoma

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58
Q

Precancerous/Precursor condition for Leukoplakia.

A

Oral cavity squamous cell cancer

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59
Q

Precancerous/Precursor condition for Papiloma virus infection

A

Cervical cancer

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60
Q

Red blood cells containing no normal hemoglobin is the defect in which genetic disease?

A

Sickle cell disease

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61
Q

What is the most common method of treating a benign tumor?

A

Surgical excision

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62
Q

Which of the following statements is correct?

A. A hormone-dependent tumor is one that produces sex hormones.
B. Adjuvant chemotherapy attempts to destroy subclinical micro metastases that have already spread from the primary tumor.
C. Mutations caused by viruses, chemicals, radiation or other agents do not disturb cell function and do not predispose to tumors.
D. Radiotherapy is always used with surgery for malignant tumors since surgical removal cannot be assured of total removal of tumor.

A

B. Adjuvant chemotherapy attempts to destroy subclinical micro metastases that have already spread from the primary tumor.

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63
Q

What cardiovascular abnormality may result in cyanosis and clubbing of the fingers?

A

Tetralogy of Fallot

A rare condition caused by a combination of four heart defects that are present at birth.

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64
Q

Which of the following is NOT a common sign or symptom of pulmonary infarction?

A. pleuritic chest pain 
B. pericarditis 
C. dyspnea 
D. bloody sputum 
E. cough
A

B. pericarditis

A swelling and irritation of the thin saclike membrane surrounding the heart (pericardium).

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65
Q

The most likely place for a thrombosis to form postoperatively is:

A

in the leg veins

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66
Q

Which of the following does NOT cause embolisms?

A. Air 
B. Fat 
C. Amnionic fluid 
D. Bacteria 
E. Injected crushed narcotic tablets
A

D. Bacteria

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67
Q

The __________ test bypasses the first two phases of blood coagulation and primarily measures the level of fibrinogen in the blood.

A

thrombin time

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68
Q

Which substance is most specific for detecting a recent myocardial infarction?

A

Troponin
(Troponin, or the troponin complex, is a complex of three regulatory proteins that is integral to muscle contraction in skeletal muscle and cardiac muscle, but not smooth muscle)

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69
Q

Which statement about platelets is not true?

A. They plug the defect in the vessel wall.
B. They liberate chemical compounds that cause the vessel to contract.
C. They release phospholipids that initiate the process of blood coagulation
D. Are removed from circulation in the spleen.
E. All of the above are true

A

E. All of the above are true

70
Q

True or False? Pitting edema most frequently occurs in left heart failure.

A

FALSE

71
Q

Which of the following conditions does not predispose to edema?

A. Heart failure 
B. Von Willebrand's factor deficiency 
C. Increased capillary permeability 
D. Low plasma osmotic pressure resulting from low blood proteins 
E. Lymphatic obstruction
A

B. Von Willebrand’s factor deficiency

72
Q

True or False? Vitamin K levels in the blood are reduced by bleeding.

A

FALSE

73
Q

A disturbance of blood coagulation caused by a deficiency of prothrombin or related factors does NOT include which of the following?

A. Administration of anticoagulant drugs 
B. Inadequate synthesis of vitamin K 
C. Inadequate absorption of vitamin K 
D. Severe liver disease 
E. Inadequate iron intake
A

E. Inadequate iron intake

74
Q

This substance is released into the blood during an acute inflammatory event

A

CRP

75
Q

Flowing of blood through a tear in the tunica media of the aorta is called:

A

aortic dissection

76
Q

Which molecule is probably the most atherogenic?

A

trans fat

77
Q

Which of the following substances increases the risk of thromboembolic disease?

A. Aspirin 
B. Coumadin drugs 
C. Oral contraceptives 
D. Diet pills 
E. Heparin
A

C. Oral contraceptives

78
Q

In phase 2 of the blood coagulation process, _________ is converted into __________.

A

prothrombin; thrombin

79
Q

Digitalis (digoxin) is often used to treat which condition?

A

Atrial fibrillation

80
Q

True or False? Cocaine dilates the coronary arteries and increases myocardial blood flow.

A

FALSE

81
Q

Another term for primary hypertension is:

A

essential hypertension

82
Q

True or False? An elevated CRP test in an otherwise normal person without evidence of an infection predicts an increased long-term risk of cardiovascular disease by identifying the inflammatory changes associated with accumulation of macrophages and other inflammatory cells in an unstable atheromatous coronaryartery plaque.

A

TRUE

83
Q

Which of the following is NOT a frequent complication of a myocardial infarction?

A. heart failure 
B. arrhythmias 
C. formation of mural thrombi 
D. rupture of the heart 
E. mitral valve prolapse
A

E. mitral valve prolapse

84
Q

Several tests are helpful when attempting to establish a diagnosis of a pulmonary embolism or pulmonary infarct. Which of the following tests would NOT be helpful?

A. Urinalysis 
B. Chest x-ray 
C. Radioisotope lung scan 
D. Examination of sputum to determine if the patient has bloody sputum 
E. CT scan of thorax
A

A. Urinalysis

85
Q

Reduced capillary osmotic pressure can be caused by:

A

low concentration of plasma proteins

86
Q

True or False? Blood will not clot in the absence of calcium.

A

TRUE

87
Q

Which of the following statements regarding coronary atherosclerosis is INCORRECT?

A. The initial stage in the formation of an atheromatous plaque is reversible.
B. Macrophages filled with cholesterol and other lipids accumulate within the intima of the artery.
C. An unstable atheromatous plaque may rupture and discharge atheromatous debris into the lumen of acoronary artery.
D. Administration of drugs to dissolve a thrombosis that plugs a coronary artery (thrombolytic therapy) is a more effective method of restoring blood flow to the heart muscle than is coronary angio

A

D. Administration of drugs to dissolve a thrombosis that plugs a coronary artery (thrombolytic therapy) is a more effective method of restoring blood flow to the heart muscle than is coronary angio.

88
Q

Which of the following statements regarding use of aspirin to reduce the risk of heart attacks is INCORRECT?

A. Aspirin interferes with platelet function.
B. Large doses of aspirin are required in order to reduce heart attack risk.
C. Aspirin is absorbed rapidly from the gastrointestinal tract.
D. The effect of aspirin on platelet function persists for the entire 10-day life span of the platelets.

A

B. Large doses of aspirin are required in order to reduce heart attack risk.

89
Q

Which of the following is NOT a symptom of venous thrombosis/pulmonary embolism?

A. Shortness of breath or unexplained coughing
B. Bluish discoloration of the skin 
C. Severe cramping in the legs and arms 
D. Pleuritic chest pain 
E. Cyanosis
A

C. Severe cramping in the legs and arms

90
Q

What is the definitive diagnostic method to identify a pulmonary embolism?

A

A. Pulmonary angiogram

91
Q

Which is NOT one of the five factors that affect hemostasis?

A. Adequate amounts of potassium ions in the blood
B. Integrity of the small blood vessels
C. Adequate numbers of structurally and functionally normal platelets
D. Normal amounts of coagulation factors
E. Normal amounts of coagulation inhibitors 1 out of 1 points

A

A. Adequate amounts of potassium ions in the blood

92
Q

True or False? Many blood coagulation factors are produced in the liver, and their concentrations in the blood are reduced in patients with liver disease.

A

TRUE

93
Q

In phase 3 of the blood coagulation process, __________ is converted into __________.

A

C. fibrinogen; fibrin

94
Q

True or False? Von Willebrand factor is required for platelets to adhere at the site of a vascular injury.

A

TRUE

95
Q

Which of the following statements relating to congestive failure is INCORRECT?

A. It may follow any type of heart disease.
B. Venous pressure is elevated.
C. It leads to excretion of excessive amounts of salt and water by the kidneys.
D. Blood volume is increased.
E. Edema of tissues

A

C. It leads to excretion of excessive amounts of salt and water by the kidneys.

96
Q

What is the cause of most aneurysms of the abdominal aorta?

A

Marked arteriosclerosis of the aorta

97
Q

True or False? The usual cause of decreased levels of vitamin K is by a gallstone blocking the common bile duct.

A

TRUE

98
Q

A septic embolus occurs when:

A

bacteria from an infection in organs adjacent to the site of the original clot formation are transported by an embolus to the lungs.

99
Q

The most common cause of cardiac arrest and sudden death is:

A

ventricular fibrillation (A life-threatening heart rhythm that results in a rapid, inadequate heartbeat.)

100
Q

Why does cyanosis occur?

A

Inadequate oxygenation of the blood causes skin and mucous membranes to become bluish in color.

101
Q

Deficiencies of plasma coagulation factors often lead to large areas of hemorrhage called __________.

A

hematomas

102
Q

__________ dissolves fibrin in blood clots.

A

Plasmin

103
Q

The term acute coronary syndrome refers to which of the following?

A. Unstable angina without myocardial injury 
B. Minor myocardial damage 
C. Major myocardial infarction 
D. A and B only 
E. A, B, and C
A

E. A, B, and C

104
Q

Why do cardiac enzymes rise after an acute myocardial infarction?

A

Cardiac enzymes leak from the damaged muscle fibers into the bloodstream.

105
Q

Estrogen in oral contraceptives may lead to venous and arterial thromboses because:

A

estrogen stimulates the synthesis of coagulation factors.

106
Q

When does gangrene occur?

A

When a major artery to a leg or arm becomes obstructed and undergoes necrosis due to reduced blood flow.

107
Q

Which of the following statements about von Willebrand disease is NOT true?

A. The manifestations of this disease result from a deficiency of a large protein molecule.
B. It is characterized by episodes of hemorrhage in joints and internal organs after minor injury.
C. It is usually transmitted as a Mendelian dominant trait.
D. It is one of the few common hereditary bleeding diseases.

A

B. It is characterized by episodes of hemorrhage in joints and internal organs after minor injury.

108
Q

The __________ measures the time it takes for blood plasma to clot after adding a lipid substance and calcium to start the clotting process.

A

A. partial thromboplastin time

109
Q

Which of the following persons do NOT require prophylactic antibiotic treatment before a dental or surgical procedure?

A. A 32-year-old woman with a mitral valve prolapse associated with mitral regurgitation
B. A 70-year-old man with mild aortic stenosis caused by calcification of the aortic valve
C. A 37-year-old man who previously had a scarred mitral valve replaced with an artificial heart valve
D. A 55-year-old man with diabetes and angina pectoris

A

D. A 55-year-old man with diabetes and angina pectoris

110
Q

Angina pectoris is usually a manifestation of:

A

atherosclerosis of coronary arteries

111
Q

This type of shock may be caused by severe burns or diarrhea.

A

hypovolemic shock

112
Q

Which of the following conditions does NOT lead to edema?

A. Obstruction of lymphatic channels
B. Inadequate protein intake (hypoproteinemia)C. Compression or blockage of a vein or veins
D. Severe dehydration
E. Heart failure

A

D. Severe dehydration

113
Q

Which of the following events is unlikely to occur as a result of a thrombosis within a leg vein?

A. Swelling (edema) of the leg
B. Pulmonary embolism
C. Accumulation of fluid within the lungs (pulmonary edema)
D. Pulmonary infarct

A

C. Accumulation of fluid within the lungs (pulmonary edema)

114
Q

A decrease in platelets is called __________.

A

thrombocytopenia

115
Q

In phase 1 of the blood coagulation process, __________ is formed.

A

thromboplastin

116
Q

Which of the following statements related to ineffective endocarditis (bacterial endocarditis) is INCORRECT?

A. It is a complication of valvular heart disease.
B. Fibrin-platelet thrombi form on rough valve surface; bacteria implant in the thrombus and incite inflammation.
C. Microorganisms never implant on a normal heart valve.
D. Part of valve vegetations may break loose and be carried into the circulation as emboli.

A

C. Microorganisms never implant on a normal heart valve.

117
Q

Which of the following statements does NOT apply to a dissecting aneurysm of the aorta?

A. It is characterized by splitting of the muscular wall (media) of the aorta by blood.
B. It is due to a congenital weakness of the aortic wall.
C. It is due to acquired degenerative changes (cystic medial degeneration) in the aortic wall.
D. Aortic wall dissection may extend the entire length of the artery.
E. Often fatal if it occurs in the ascending aorta

A

B. It is due to a congenital weakness of the aortic wall.

118
Q

A 6-year-old boy on a well-balanced diet has marked edema of the legs, accumulation of fluid in the abdomen, and a low blood serum albumin and total serum protein. His urine contains large amounts of protein. What is the most likely cause of edema?

A. Increased capillary permeability allows excess fluid to leak from the capillaries.
B. Reduced serum albumin resulting from excess loss in the urine lowers plasma osmotic pressure,which allows excess fluid to leak from capillaries.
C. Low plasma proteins and albumin probably results from inadequate food intake, so the liver is unableto make sufficient albumin to maintain a normal plasma osmotic pressure.
D. Obstruction of lymphatic channels draining the lower part of the body forces fluid out of the capillariesinto the tissues.

A

B. Reduced serum albumin resulting from excess loss in the urine lowers plasma osmotic pressure, which allows excess fluid to leak from capillaries.

119
Q

What is the usual source of pulmonary emboli?

A

Thrombi in leg veins

120
Q

__________ are small pinpoint areas of bleeding in the skin and deeper tissues resulting from leakage of blood through minute defects in the capillary endothelium.

A

Petechiae

121
Q

True or False? Normally, small blood vessels expand after injury, helping to seal the defect by a blood clot.

A

FALSE

122
Q

A 5-year-old male child has a bleeding disease that is characterized by areas of hemorrhage in the joints and muscles after minor injuries. Laboratory tests reveal a deficiency of a coagulation factor active in the early phase of blood coagulation (formation of intrinsic thromboplastin). What is the most likely diagnosis?

A

Hemophilia

123
Q

What is the procedure called where a catheter is inserted into a large artery in the arm or leg that ultimately compresses the plaque in a heart artery to make the lumen larger?

A

coronary angioplasty or balloon angioplasty

124
Q

Which of the following diseases are considered to be very closely related?

A. Endometrial hyperplasia and in situ carcinoma
B. Cervical dysplasia and endometriosis
C. Cervical dysplasia and in situ carcinoma
D. Salpingitis and condylomas of the genital tract

A

C. Cervical dysplasia and in situ carcinoma

Cervical dysplasia: The development of abnormal cells in the narrow neck of a woman’s uterus (the cervix).

In situ carcinoma: An early-stage cancer in which the cancerous growth or tumor is still confined to the site from which it started, and has not spread to surrounding tissue or other organs in the body. When cancer in situ involves cells that line the internal organs or epithelial cells, it is called carcinoma in situ

125
Q

Which of the following statements about endometriosis is NOT true?

A. It is a rare condition.
B. It is characterized by deposits of endometrial tissue in locations outside the lining of the endometrial cavity (endometrium).
C. It may be associated with pain related to menstrual periods.
D. Scarring associated with endometriosis may block tubes and cause sterility.
E. More common in infertile women

A

A. It is a rare condition.

126
Q

Which of the following is NOT a treatment for endometriosis?

A. Administration of drugs that suppress prostaglandins
B. Administration of oral contraceptives
C. Administration of synthetic hormones with progesterone
D. Administration of drugs that suppress the output of gonadotropins

A

A. Administration of drugs that suppress prostaglandins

127
Q

Which of the following statements regarding human papillomavirus (HPV) is correct?

A. Only a few types of HPV can infect the cervix.
B. Most HPV types are carcinogenic (cancer causing).
C. Most HPV infections cannot be eradicated by the body’s immune defenses and become chronic.
D. Testing cervical material obtained by a Pap smear for HPV may be useful to supplement the Pap test when atypical cells are identified in the Pap smear.

A

D. Testing cervical material obtained by a Pap smear for HPV may be useful to supplement the Pap test when atypical cells are identified in the Pap smear.

128
Q

What is the presence of normal endometrium in any location outside the endometrial cavity called?

A

A. Endometriosis

129
Q

True or False? Hyperventilation can cause respiratory alkalosis.

A

TRUE

130
Q

True or False? Excessive loss of hydrogen ions resulting from prolonged vomiting leads to metabolic alkalosis.

A

TRUE

131
Q

The acid-base disturbance in which reduction of bicarbonate is the primary abnormality is called __________.

A

metabolic acidosis

132
Q

Which of the following procedures or tests is NOT useful for evaluating fluid, electrolyte, or acid-base balance?

A. Determination of blood pH
B. Determination of plasma PO2
C. Determination of plasma PCO2
D. Determination of concentrations of sodium, potassium, chloride, and bicarbonate in plasma

A

B. Determination of plasma PO2

133
Q

Respiratory acidosis occurs most commonly in which disease or condition?

A. Uncontrolled diabetes mellitus
B. Renal insufficiency
C. Emphysema
D. Potassium depletion

A

C. Emphysema

134
Q

Which of the following statements regarding the bicarbonate-carbonic acid buffer system is correct?

A. The lungs regulate the carbonic acid concentration of the blood by regulating alveolar PCO2.
B. The kidneys regulate the carbonic acid concentration of the blood by forming carbonic acid within thetubular epithelial cells.
C. The kidneys regulate the bicarbonate concentration of the blood by secreting bicarbonate ions into thetubular filtrate.
D. A fall in the bicarbonate concentration of the blood resulting from buffering (neutralizing) acid ketonebodies in a person with diabetic ketoacidosis is associated with a corresponding rise in blood PCO2 andcarbonic acid.

A

A. The lungs regulate the carbonic acid concentration of the blood by regulating alveolar PCO2.

135
Q

Hyperventilation is the compensatory mechanism for which of the following?

A

C. metabolic acidosis

to decrease the arterial pCO2.

136
Q

An __________ hemorrhage occurs when escaping blood accumulates between the outer layer of the dura and the cranial bones.

A

epidural

137
Q

Which disease is characterized by rigidity of voluntary muscles and tremor of fingers and extremities?

A

Parkinson disease

138
Q 
An infection of the spinal cord is called a(n) \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_. 
A. meningitis 
B. encephalitis
C. meningoencephalitis 
D. myelitis
A

D. myelitis

encephalitis- Inflammation of the brain, often due to infection.
meningoencephalitis - Inflammation of the brain and surrounding tissues, usually caused by infection.
Inflammation of brain and spinal cord membranes, meningitis: typically caused by an infection.

139
Q

Marked dilatation of the ventricular system is called:

A

Hydrocephalus

140
Q

Which of the following does NOT occur in Addison?s disease?

A. Increased skin pigmentation
B. Exophthalmos
C. High levels of ACTH in blood
D. Low levels of cortisol in blood

A

B. Exophthalmos (abnormal protrusion of the eyeball or eyeballs.)

141
Q

Which of the following is NOT a characteristic feature of Cushing’s disease?

A. Osteoporosis 
B. Elevated blood glucose 
C. Elevated blood cortisol 
D. Elevated blood pressure 
E. Elevated blood thyroid hormone
A

E. Elevated blood thyroid hormone

142
Q

Metabolic alkalosis occurs in association with many diseases and conditions. Which of the following is NOT usually associated with metabolic alkalosis?

A. Excess loss of gastric juice due to vomiting
B. Ingestion of large amounts of sodium bicarbonate or other antacids
C. Overproduction of ketone bodies
D. Excess secretion of corticosteroids by the adrenal glands

A

C. Overproduction of ketone bodies

143
Q

Which of the following is the major effect produced by an increase in the rate and depth of respiration?

A

Plasma PCO2 falls.

144
Q

What is the main buffer in the extracellular fluid?

A

Bicarbonate-carbonic acid

145
Q

A(n) __________ hemorrhage occurs when escaping blood accumulates between the dura and the arachnoid.

A

subdural

146
Q

The firm, fibrous outer membrane of the central nervous system is the __________.

A

dura

147
Q

Which of the following statements regarding a transient ischemic attack (TIA) is INCORRECT?

A. A brief episode of neurologic dysfunction that subsides spontaneously in a short time
B. Often results from embolization of thrombus material or athermous material from an arterioscleroticplaque in the internal carotid artery
C. Not related to a congenital aneurysm of the circle of Willis
D. Can usually be detected by CT scan of brain

A

D. Can usually be detected by CT scan of brain

transient ischemic attack: A brief stroke-like attack that, despite resolving within minutes to hours, still requires immediate medical attention to distinguish from an actual stroke.

148
Q

Respiratory alkalosis is often caused by:

A

severe anxiety with hyperventilation

149
Q

Which body fluids most closely resemble each other in electrolyte composition?

A

Intravascular fluid and interstitial fluid

150
Q

A patient has severe chronic lung disease and is unable to excrete CO2 efficiently or oxygenate his blood adequately. What acid-base disturbance is likely to result from this condition?

A

Respiratory acidosis

151
Q

The major extracellular anions are:

A

bicarbonate and chloride

152
Q

True or False? A transient ischemic attack (TIA) may result from embolization of atheromatous material from an internal carotid artery plaque that lodges in the brain.

A

TRUE

153
Q

__________ is the impaired calcification of the bone in an adult due to vitamin D deficiency that contributes to bone loss in osteoporosis.

A

Osteomalacia

154
Q

What is a pathologic fracture?

A

A fracture that occurs in a weakened area of bone secondary to a disease involving the bone

155
Q

Definition: Cause of disease

A

etiology

156
Q

Definition: Subjective manifestation (i.e. pain)

A

symptom

157
Q

Definition: Objective manifestation (i.e. swelling or rash)

A

Sign

158
Q

Definition: Process of development of disease

A

Pathogenesis

159
Q

Definition: the probable outcome of a disease or a disorder

A

Prognosis

160
Q

Precancerous/Precursor condition for Myelodysplastic syndromes.

A

Leukemia

161
Q

Apoptosis is:

A

genetically programmed self-destruction of cells.

162
Q

The condition in which mature, competent helper T cells from a donor orchestrate an immune response directed against recipient tissues is:

A

graft vs. host disease.

163
Q

An infarct is caused by

a) trauma.
b) poisoning.
c) endogenous physical agents.
d) anoxia.
e) a deficiency of dietary factors

A

e) a deficiency of dietary factors

164
Q

A characteristic problem in osteoporosis is:

A

pathologic fractures.

165
Q

A lumbar puncture

a) may produce a mild headache.
b) may be performed between L3 and L4.
c) draws CSF from the extradural space.
d) often traumatizes spinal nerves.
e) is performed near the vertebra prominens.

A

b) may be performed between L3 and L4.

166
Q

______: blood clot formed within the vascular system

A

thrombosis

167
Q

______: necrosis of tissue caused by interruption of its blood supply

A

infarction

168
Q

_____: a plug composed of a detached clot, a mass of bacteria or other foreign material occludes a blood vessel

A

embolism

169
Q

The _______ measures the phase of the coagulation mechanism after the formation of thromboplastin.

A

Prothrombin time

170
Q

A disturbance of blood coagulation caused by a deficiency of prothrombin or related factors does NOT include which of the following?
A. Administration of anticoagulant drugs
B. Inadequate synthesis of vitamin K
C. Inadequate absorption of vitamin K
D. Severe liver disease
E. Inadequate iron intake

A

E. Inadequate iron intake

Human Nutrition Comp Exam (31 decks)

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