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Human Nutrition Comp Exam > 560A Comp exam Review > Flashcards

560A Comp exam Review Flashcards

1
Q

Characteristics of disease:

A

A disturbance of structure or function

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2
Q

Symptom?

A

Subjective manifestion, pain

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3
Q

Sign?

A

Objective manifestion, swelling

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4
Q

Pathogenesis?

A

Process of development of disease

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5
Q

Prognosis?

A

Outcome of disease

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6
Q

Describe the inheritance pattern of genes

A

Inheritance patterns differ for genes on sex chromosomes (chromosomes X and Y) compared to genes located on autosomes, non-sex chromosomes (chromosomes numbers 1-22). This is due to the fact that, in general, females carry two X chromosomes (XX), while males carry one X and one Y chromosome (XY). Therefore, females carry two copies of each X-linked gene, but males carry only one copy each of X-linked and Y-linked genes. Females carry no copies of Y-linked genes.

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7
Q

Co-dominant inheritance is

A

Both alleles of a pair fully expressed in heterozygous state. Transmission illustrated by genes responsible for synthesis of sickle (S) hemoglobin

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8
Q

Common chromosomal abnormalities

A

Failure of homologous chromosomes in germ cells to separate (nondisjunction)

Sex chromosome abnormalities

Fragile X syndrome (X-linked mental deficiency)

Autosomal Abnormalities

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9
Q

General causes of cell injury and its response to injury

A

Hypoxia, reduced blood flow (ischemia), inadequate oxygenation of the blood, decreased blood oxygen-carrying capacity.

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10
Q

Inflammatory response Cardinal signs of inflammation, causes of inflammation, the difference between acute and chronic inflammation

A

Nonspecific response to any agent that causes cell injury

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11
Q

Cardinal signs of inflammation

A
  1. Heat and redness: dilated blood vessel 2. Swelling: accumulation of fluid and exudate 3.Tenderness and pain: irritation of nerve endings
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12
Q

Acute vs chronic inflammation

A

An acute inflammation is one that starts rapidly and becomes severe in a short space of time. Signs and symptoms are normally only present for a few days but may persist for a few weeks in some cases.

Chronic: slow onset, can last for years, and is caused by issue death and the thickening and scarring of connective tissue

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13
Q

Role of lymphocytes

A

Act to recognize antigens, produce antibodies, and destroy cells that could cause damage.

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14
Q

The complement system?

A

part of the immune system that enhances (complements) the ability of antibodies and phagocytic cells to clear microbes and damaged cells from an organism, promotes inflammation, and attacks the pathogen’s cell membrane.

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15
Q

Cellular vs humoral immunity

A

Humoral: Production of antibodies and Main defense against bacteria and bacterial toxins.

Cellular: Formation of a population of lymphocytes that attack and destroy foreign materialb.Main defense against viruses, fungi, parasites, and some bacteria

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16
Q

Immunoglobulin M (IgM): combines with large complex substances; effective in combining with fungi. True or False

A

True

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17
Q

Immunoglobulin G (IgG): principal antibody formed against majority of infectious agents. True or false

A

true

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18
Q

Immunoglobulin A.?

A

Produced by cells in respiratory and gastrointestinal tracts

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19
Q

Immunoglobulin E (IgE)a.Increased in allergic personsb.Attaches to mast cells and basophils. T or F

A

True

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20
Q

4 stages of wound healing:

A
  1. Hemostasis phase
  2. Inflammatory
  3. Proliferative
  4. Maturation
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21
Q

Complications of healing

A

Infections, Osteomyelitis, necrosis, dermatisitis, and edema

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22
Q

Infections with viruses cause various clinical manifestations. Which of the following is NOT a manifestation of a virus infection?
A. The virus damages or destroys infected cells.B. Formation of inclusion bodies in infected cells
C. Production of endotoxins
D. The virus causes proliferation of infected cells.
E. The virus infects cells but causes only an asymptomatic (latent) infection.

A

c

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23
Q

An immunoglobulin found in blood that is a clump of five molecules (a pentamer) is:

A. IgM 
B. IgG 
C. IgA 
D. IgD 
E. IgE
A

A

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24
Q

Autoimmune diseases are caused by __________.

A. autoantibodies
B. non-self-antigens
C. self-antigens
D. cytokines

A

A

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25
Q

Cytokines that send regulatory signals between cells of the immune system are __________.

A. interferon
B. interleukins
C. monokines
D. tumor necrosis factors

A

B

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26
Q

Which of the following is NOT a characteristic used to classify bacteria?

A. Biochemical and cultural characteristics 
B. Shape 
C. Antigenic structure 
D. Virulence 
E. Gram-stain reaction
A

D

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27
Q

__________ are chemical messengers that take part in any function of the immune system.

A. Lymphokines 
B. Monokines 
C. Cytokines 
D. Interleukins 
E. natural killer cells
A

C

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28
Q

________ immunity is characterized by the formation of a population of lymphocytes that can attack and destroy the foreign material.

A. Acquired 
B. Humoral 
C. Cell-mediated 
D. Hypersensitive 
E. Innate
A

C

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29
Q

__________ immunity is associated with the production of antibodies that can combine and eliminate the foreign material.

A. Acquired 
B. Humoral 
C. Cell-mediated 
D. Hypersensitive 
E. Passive
A

B

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30
Q

Most of the lymphocytes in the circulation would be classified as what?

A. T lymphocytes 
B. B lymphocytes 
C. Neither T nor B lymphocytes (natural killer cells, also called NK cells) 
D. Macrophages 
E. Mast cells
A

A

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31
Q

John Jones was exposed to a person who was ill with an infectious disease, and John received an injection of globulin to provide protection against the infectious agent to which he was exposed. What is the class of antibody in the gamma globulin that provides the protection?

A. IgG 
B. IgA 
C. IgM 
D. IgD 
E. IgE
A

A

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32
Q

One method the body uses to destroy bacteria is by forming a membrane attack complex that produces perforations in the walls of bacterial cells and enveloped viruses, there by causing their destruction. What is the substance producing the membrane attack complex?

A. Interferon
B. Lymphokines produced by T lymphocytes
C. Gamma globulin produced by B lymphocytes
D. Complement
E. Antibodies

A

D

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33
Q

True or False? Our normal bacterial flora (in oral cavity, vagina, etc.) help protect us from infections by inhibiting potentially pathogenic microorganisms that attempt to grow in regions of our body occupied by our normal flora.

A

True

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34
Q

True or False? The immune defenses of the host are activated as viruses that invade cells produce new antigens and the body recognizes these cells as foreign.

A

TRUE

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35
Q

X-linked inheritance is?

A

Male affected if carrying X chromosome containing defective gene2.Female may be carrier but is unaffected

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36
Q

Autosomal recessive inheritance

A

Gene expressed only in homozygous individualb.Both parents must carry abnormal gene to transmit: 1:4 chance infant is homozygous for defective gene

example: Phenylketonuria

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37
Q

Autosomal dominant inheritance

A

Gene expressed in heterozygous stateb.If either parent carries abnormal dominant gene: 1:2 chance offspring will receive abnormal gene

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38
Q

Benign vs malignant tumor

A

Begin: Slow growth rate and remains localized

Malignant: rapid growth rate and Metastasis by bloodstream or lymphatics

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39
Q

What is true of Leukemia?

  1. neoplasm of blood-forming tissues
  2. Usually does not form solid tumors
  3. Proliferates diffusely within bone marrow
  4. Overgrows and crowd outs normal blood-forming cells
  5. Neoplastic cells spill over in the bloodstream
  6. Large number of abnormal cells circulate in peripheral blood
  7. ALL
A

7

40
Q

Valvular Heart Disease

A

A.Rheumatic fever and rheumatic heart diseasea.Complication of group A beta-streptococcal infection (streptococcal sore throat and scarlet fever)

b.Form anti-streptococcal antibodies against strep antigens that cross react with similar antigens in tissues; antigen-antibody reaction causes fever and injures connective tissuesc.Fever and inflammation of connective tissue throughout body, especially heart and jointsd.Acute arthritis involving multiple joints and inflammation of heart

41
Q

Congenital heart disease cause

A

Faulty pump construction

42
Q

How blood coagulates

A

Phase I: prothrombin activator generateda.Intrinsic system: components derived from bloodb.Extrinsic system: tissue injury yields tissue thromboplastin1)Both pathways activated at same time2)Both pathways interact to initiate the blood clotting process

Phase II: conversion of prothrombin into thrombina.After thromboplastin interacts with other substances to form prothrombin activator

Phase III: conversion of fibrinogen into fibrin by thrombina.Thrombin splits off a part of the fibrinogen, forms smaller molecules, fibrin monomers

43
Q

Coagulation disorders:

A

Hemophilia A: Classic Hemophilia = Factor VIII (anti-hemophilic factor) most common

Hemophilia B: Christmas disease (after affected patient) = Factor IX (Christmas factor)

von Willebrand’s disease: Large protein molecule produced by endothelial cells required for platelets to adhere to vessel wall at site of injury

44
Q

Thrombosis

A

Blood clots in leg veins

45
Q

Embolism

A

Blocks major artery or branch

46
Q

What is the difference between systemic and essential hypertension?

A

Systemic: high blood pressure in the systemic arteries - the vessels that carry blood from the heart to the body’s tissues

Essential: Primary hypertension with no known cause.

47
Q

Secondary hypertension is?

A

Results from a known disease or condition

48
Q

Vein diseases include which:

  • venous thrombosis
  • inflammation of veins
  • excessive dilation of veins
  • all
A

ALL

49
Q

Arteriosclerosis definition

A

Plague accumulates around heart

50
Q

Thrombophebitis is inflammation of the________ associated with thrombosis

A

vein

51
Q

Whats one cause of congestive heart failure?

A

Insufficent blood flow to the heart

52
Q

Cause of myocarditis?

A

Parasites, hypersensitivity, or other pathogens

53
Q

Rheumatic heart disease is described as

A

Complication of group A beta-streptococcal infection (streptococcal sore throat and scarlet fever)

b. Form anti-streptococcal antibodies against strep antigens that cross react with similar antigens in tissues; antigen-antibody reaction causes fever and injures connective tissuesc.
c. Fever and inflammation of connective tissue throughout body, especially heart and joints
d. Acute arthritis involving multiple joints and inflammation of heart

54
Q

Ischemic heart disease is described as

A

Reduced blood flow to the heart caused by narrowing of the arteries.

55
Q

Signs and symptoms of pneumonia:

A

Feeling il, .Elevated temperature, Increased white blood cell count, Cough, Purulent sputumc, Pain on respiration if involves pleura, .Shortness of breath

56
Q

Signs and symptoms of asthma

A

SOB and wheezing

57
Q

Types of COPD

A

Inflammation of the bronchioles

dilution of air spaces

loss of lung elasticity

58
Q

Peptic ulcer increased acid secretions and digestive enzymes erode gastric mucosa. What pathogen is involved?

A

H. pylori

59
Q

Diff between Chronic;s disease and ulcerative colitis?

A

Crohn’s disease- .Inflammation primarily of distal ileumb. Seen as: Ulceration of mucosa or Marked thickening and scarring of bowel wall

Ulcerative colitisa.Recurrent chronic inflammation of colon and rectum

60
Q

What are 4 causes of liver disease?

A

drugs
chemicals
alcohol
toxins

61
Q

What are the 5 types of hepatitis

A

A,B,C,D,E

62
Q

What causes pancreatitis?

A

Escape of pancreatic juices into the ducts which leads to destruction of acinar and islet tissues.

63
Q

Hepatitis A is what kind of virus and is transmitted thorough what?

A

RNA

Contaiminated food and water and feces

64
Q

Hepatitis B is what kind of virus and is transmitted through what?

A

DNA

Blood and body fluids

65
Q

What are 3 factors that contribute to kidney stones?

A
  1. Increased concentration of salts in urine
  2. Infections of urinary tract.
  3. Urinary tract obstruction
66
Q

What is the difference between glomerulonephritis and pyelonephritis?

A

Glomerulonephritis: Inflammation of glomeruli caused by antigen-antibody reaction within glomeruli. Occurs in diabetes

Pyelonephritis: Infection of the upper urinary tract (UTIs)

67
Q

Dehydration is caused by what 2 factors?

A

Excess water loss

Inadequate intake in comatose or debilitated patients

68
Q

Overhydration is produced through 3 factors

A
  1. Excessive fluids intravenously or orally
  2. Drinking excess water may also dilute body fluids and lead to hyponatremia even in subjects with normal renal function
  3. Infants fed water or infant formula diluted with excess water are also at risk of hyponatremia
69
Q

What is ADH’s role in dehydration?

A

lowers osmolarity (reducing sodium concentration) by increasing water reabsorption in the kidneys, thus helping to dilute bodily fluids.

70
Q

Difference between respiratory acidosis and alkalosis

A

Respiratory acidosis is failure or the lungs, increase in PCO2. pH shifts to acid side.

Respiratory alkolisis lowers PCO2, excess of bicarbonate which rises the pH

71
Q

Difference between metabolic acidosis and alkalosis?

A

Metabolic alkalosis has an increase in bicarbonate which shifts the pH to alkaline. Loss of gastric juices, chloride depletion, access ACH

Metabolic acidosis: acids exceeds buffering capacity. Renal failure, ketosis, lactic acidosis.

72
Q

What causes goiter?

A

Depleted iodine, defiency of thyroid hormone, and increased hormone requirement

73
Q

What is the difference between Cushings syndrome and Addisons

A

Cushing: Excess production of adrenal corticosteroids

Addisons: deficency of steroid hormones

74
Q

What is acromegaly?

A

excessive secretion of growth hormone

75
Q

What is endometriosis?

A

Presence of endometrial tissue in abnormal location

76
Q

What is cervical carcinoma?

A

Abnormal growth of cervical squamous epithelium

77
Q

What is benign prostatic hyperplasia

A

irregular uterine bleeding

78
Q

Cerebreal aneurysms results from

A

defect in the muscular tissue of the vessel wall

79
Q

What is the cause of CVA (stroke) ?

A

Disturbance of blood supply to the brain that results in thrombosis, embolism, or hemorrhage

80
Q

What is the cause of TIA?

A

Bits of thrombus that break loose from an ulcerated plague and obstructs an artery.

81
Q

Difference between wet and dry stroke?

A

Wet stroke results from embolism or thrombus.

Dry stroke results from hemorrhaging

82
Q

Alzhimer’s disease is characterized by progressive failure of

A

recent memory

83
Q

Multiple sclerosis is characterized by degeneration of the

A

myelin sheaths of nerve fibers in brain and spinal cord

84
Q

Difference between AD and MS

A

AD affects elderly and MS affects younger generation

85
Q

Parkingsons disease affects

A

voluntary muscle, tumor in fingers, and extremities

86
Q

Who does cerebral palsy affect

A

Newborns, infancy, or preschool

87
Q

Nociception is the sensory nervous system’s response to

A

certain harmful or potentially harmful stimuli.

88
Q

Referred pain is pain

A

other than actual source

89
Q

Phantom pain is pain

A

from a body part no longer there

90
Q

Difference between acute and chronic pain

A

Acute pain is sudden onset whereas chronic persist for weeks

91
Q

What are the 4 types of hemoatovmias of the skull and what are the differences

A

epidural hematoma: collection of blood outside blood vessel
subdural hematoma: collection of blood on surface of brain
subarachnoid hemorrhage: bleeding in-between the brain and tissues
intracerebral hemorrhage: bleeding inside brain

92
Q 
Hyperventilation can lead to respiratory alkalosis by :
	A: Decrease in PC02
	B: Increase in PC02
	C: Decrease in bicarbonate
	D: Increase in bicarbonate
	E: A and D
A

E

93
Q

In respiratory acidosis, the kidneys form additional bicarbonate to restore the pH to the physiologic range.
TRUE or FALSE

A

TRUE

94
Q 
Metabolic alkalosis caused by excess corticosteroids is frequently accompanied by:
A potassium depletion
B: sodium depletion
C: phosphate depletion
D: All of the above
A

A

95
Q

An existing potassium deficiency must be addressed to successfully manage a metabolic alkalosis.
A: TRUE
B: FALSE

A

TRUE

96
Q 
\:  In cervical dysplasia or carcinoma, localizing and determining the extent of abnormalities in the cervical epithelium requires which procedure?
A: Pap smear
B: biopsy
C: colposcopy
D: cryocautery
E: hysterectomy
A

C

Human Nutrition Comp Exam (31 decks)

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