23/3/22 Flashcards

1
Q

In what condition are Heinz bodies found?

What are they?

A

G6PD Deficency

Nucleated RBC - precursors of normal RBC - occur due to body needing to produce RBC quickly normally in response to haemolytic crisis

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2
Q

What is meant by the term hemosiderosis?

A

Iron overload in organs or tissues

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3
Q

How do you manage small and large bleeds in haemophilia A?

A

Small

  • desmopressin - increases vWF - transports VIII
  • tranexmic acid - increases clot size

A = VIII

Large
- IV infusion of VIII

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4
Q

Describe the fibrinogen, fibrin and D-dimer levels in DIC?

What situations do you commonly get DIC?

A

Fibrinogen decreases

Fibrin - increases (making lots of clots)

D-dimer levels increase (also breaking down lots of clots)

DIC
Delivery - obstertic emergencies
Infections/immunological
Cancer and other malignancies

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5
Q

What should be done with men with an unexplained iron deficent anaemia?

A

Refer to gastroenterology urgently

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6
Q

What is the first line drug used in essential thrombocytosis?

A

Hydroxyurea

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7
Q

A patient with the following blood abnormalities having had recent bleeding in unusual places has presented with no history of any infection and no infection on testing. What are they likely to have?

High granulocytes +/- high rbc +/- high platelet +/- eosinophilia/basinophilia

A

Chronic myeloproliferative neoplasms/disorders

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8
Q

In terms of chronic myeloproflierative neoplasms what is the name of the one that causes:

  • proliferation of RBC
  • proliferation of platelets
  • fibrosis of bone marrow
A

RBC - polycythaemia vera
Platelets - essential thrombocythaemia
Bone marrow - primary myelofibrosis

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9
Q

Blast cells = what condition?

A

Acute leukaemia

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10
Q

What is thrombophillia?

A mutation in what is the most common cause?

How does it present in clinic?

A

Thrombophillia is a deficency of the body’s own AC - so leads to an increase in fibrin rich clots

(remember fibrin rich clots = venous clots)

Unprovoked DVT and PE and will have a family history

Factor V - most commonly (Protein C + S can’t shut it off)

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11
Q

To be categorised as B stage in lymphoma you need to have the presence of B symptoms. What are they?

A
  • Fever
  • Night sweats
  • Weight loss
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12
Q

EMDR (eye movement desensitisation and reprocessing) is the most appropriate treatment for PTSD except for in which circumstance?

A

Combat based

Then CBT first line

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13
Q

PTSD symptoms that last less than a month are referred to as?

A

Acute stress disorder

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14
Q

What is the side effect that is most commonly attributable to paitents stopping clozapine?

How is it managed?

A

Hypersalvation

Hyoscine

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15
Q

What is the name of the disorder where patients suffer from repetitive, involvuntary and purposeless movements e.g. lip smacking, pursing of lips and excessive blinking?

What type of drug can it happen as a side effect of?

A

Tardive dyskinesia

Typical anti-psychotics e.g. haloperidol

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16
Q

How do you assess if someone with an ED needs to admitted?

A

ECG - assess HR

17
Q

Biochemical side effect of SSRIs?

A

Hyponatremia

18
Q

What are the 5 criteria for detention under the mental health act?

A
  • Has a mental disorder
  • Incapacity to make decision about healthcare treatment
  • Needs to be in hospital for docs to make decision
  • At risk to health of themselves and others
  • Granting short-term detention is necessary
19
Q

What is the first line pharma treatment of GAD?

A

Sertaline

20
Q

What is the first line pharma treatment of OCD?

A

Sertaline

21
Q

Name the 4 SSRIs avaliable at Tayside

Which one is suitable for <18

A
  • Fluoxetine - <18
  • Sertaline
  • Citalopram
  • Escitalopram
22
Q

What is the difference between emergency and short term detention certificates?

A

Both require you to meet mental health act 5 criteria

Emergency = any practitioner + up to 72hrs

Short term = senior psych and mental health officer + up to 28 days

23
Q

Is CBT and pyschotherapy doesn’t work to treat PTSD - what is the drug treatment?

A

SSRIs