2014 module exam Flashcards
The following picture represents EMG recordings from an antagonist muscle in a normal person, and a person
with cerebellar damage (blue) upon the movement of the arm. What is the cause of the delayed action of the antagonist muscle?
a. Lack of impulses coming from climbing fibers
b. Lack of inhibition of the antagonist muscle by the long loop
c. Lack of excitation of the antagonist muscle by the short loop
c. Lack of excitation of the antagonist muscle by the short loop
What is the response seen in EEG recording for a patient that has tendency to epilepsy and develops the shown in the following picture?
a. Polyspike
b. Spike-slow wave complex
c. Spike
c. Spike
Which of the following diagrams of the visual field represent damage to the left occipital lobe? (note the dark shaded area indicate loss of vision area in that part while the blue ones indicate normal areas of vision)
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
d. 4
The table compares results of the gold standard test with another test X. If the patient presents with a positive result of test X, what will be the probability of him having the disease?
a. 13.5 %
b. 84.3%
a. 13.5 %
What is the purpose of rapidly adapting receptors?
a. Detect stimuli which are progressively increasing
b. Fire at the beginning and the end of the stimulus
b. Fire at the beginning and the end of the stimulus
What is the principle of reciprocal excitation in Golgi tendon organ?
a. Afferent fiber Ib goes to the spinal cord and inhibits the motor neuron of the antagonist muscle
b. Afferent fiber Ia goes to the spinal cord and stimulates the motor neuron of the antagonist muscle
c. Afferent fiber Ib goes to the spinal cord and stimulates the motor neuron of the antagonist muscle
c. Afferent fiber Ib goes to the spinal cord and stimulates the motor neuron of the antagonist muscle
What is the purpose of 5 noradrenergic receptors in the postsynaptic sympathetic neurons?
a. To compensate if one type of receptors not working
b. To produce an organ specific response in the sympathetic system
b. To produce an organ specific response in the sympathetic system
Which of the following is responsible for increasing the blood flow to the brain in normal conditions?
Glutamate release
Which of the following when decreased will not cause much increase in the cerebral blood flow?
PO2
Which of the following will sharply increase upon a decrease in the cerebral perfusion pressure?
a. O2 extraction fraction
b. Cerebral blood flow
c. Cerebral metabolic rate of O2
a. O2 extraction fraction
Which of the following arteries plays a major role in Auto-regulation of cerebral blood flow?
a. Pial arteries
b. Penetrating arteries
c. Intraparenchymal arterioles
a. Pial arteries
What is the function of the reticular nucleus of the thalamus?
Modulates the flow of information between the thalamus and the cortex
Fires only when a motor response is required?
a. Posterior association cortex b. Prefrontal cortex
c. Premotor cortex
d. Primary motor cortex
e. Limbic association cortex
b. Prefrontal cortex
Involved in retaining memories that were consolidated previously and regulating emotion?
a. Posterior association cortex b. Prefrontal cortex
c. Premotor cortex
d. Primary motor cortex
e. Limbic association cortex
e. Limbic association cortex
Apperceptive agnosia?
a. A patient can name objects but can’t draw them
b. A patient can’t name objects but can draw them
c. A patient can’t recognize the world on his left
d. A patient can’t recognize his left half of the body
e. A patient can’t recognize the left side of a well-remembered image of a well-known landmark
f. A patient can’t recognize the movement of an object, its speed, or location
g. A patient can’t visually scan objects or reach for an object of interest.
a. A patient can name objects but can’t draw them
Representational agnosia?
a. A patient can name objects but can’t draw them
b. A patient can’t name objects but can draw them
c. A patient can’t recognize the world on his left
d. A patient can’t recognize his left half of the body
e. A patient can’t recognize the left side of a well-remembered image of a well-known landmark
f. A patient can’t recognize the movement of an object, its speed, or location
g. A patient can’t visually scan objects or reach for an object of interest.
e. A patient can’t recognize the left side of a well-remembered image of a well-known landmark
Damage to the dorsal stream of the posterior association cortex?
a. A patient can name objects but can’t draw them
b. A patient can’t name objects but can draw them
c. A patient can’t recognize the world on his left
d. A patient can’t recognize his left half of the body
e. A patient can’t recognize the left side of a well-remembered image of a well-known landmark
f. A patient can’t recognize the movement of an object, its speed, or location
g. A patient can’t visually scan objects or reach for an object of interest.
?
f. A patient can’t recognize the movement of an object, its speed, or location
OR
g. A patient can’t visually scan objects or reach for an object of interest.
What is the consequence of damaged occipitotemporal association cortex?
a. The patient can draw an object but can’t name it
b. The patient can’t draw an object but can name it
a. The patient can draw an object but can’t name it
A patient suffered from an ischemic stroke due to occlusion of the MCA. He wasn’t able to choose words about what he intended to say. His ability of repeating words was also compromised. Additionally, he had a problem in word comprehension. Which of the following conditions might this patient have?
a. Wernicke’s aphasia
b. Conductive aphasia c. Broca’s aphasia
a. Wernicke’s aphasia
Which of the following is primarily responsible for long term depression seen in cerebellar cortex?
a. Binding of glutamate released from parallel fibers to purkinji cells membrane
b. Raise in the intracelluar calcium concentration
b. Raise in the intracelluar calcium concentration
What is the result of increased cortex impulses to the indirect pathway of the striatum?
a. Phasic activation of the thalamus
b. Phasic activation of the subthalamic nucleus
c. Tonic inhibition of GPe
b. Phasic activation of the subthalamic nucleus
What is the result of loss of dopamine effect on the indirect pathway of the striatum?
a. Increased inhibition from the striatum to GPi and SNr/ increased inhibition of the GPi and SNr
b. Increased inhibition from the striatum to GPe
b. Increased inhibition from the striatum to GPe
What is the result of excessive damage to striatal neurons?
a. Akinesia
b. Bradykinesia
c. Rigidity
d. Huntington’s chorea
e. Hemiballismus
a. Akinesia
What is the result of damage to the subthalamic nucleus?
a. Akinesia
b. Bradykinesia
c. Rigidity
d. Huntington’s chorea
e. Hemiballismus
e. Hemiballismus
Which of the following is correct regarding the lateral premotor area?
a. It is responsible for selecting movements based on external cues
b. It has no direct connection with the spinal cord
c. Its stimulation causes the movement of a discrete muscle
a. It is responsible for selecting movements based on external cues
Which of the following areas is activated when a person imagines a movement?
a. Lateral premotor area
b. Primary motor area
c. Supplementary motor area
c. Supplementary motor area
Why are the waves that are recorded from EEG or MEG not typical sine waves?
a. Because the activity of the brain has low frequency
b. Because the neurons that produce sine wave lie deep in the brain
c. Because the electrical activity is obscured by non-synchronous activity of the brain
c. Because the electrical activity is obscured by non-synchronous activity of the brain
Which of the following is the first to develop in an epileptic focus when a seizure begins?
a. Sustained depolarization of neurons
b. A burst of action potentials
c. Paroxysmal depolarization shift
c. Paroxysmal depolarization shift
Seen in EEG in an anxious or highly intellectually active individual?
a. Alpha waves
b. Beta waves
c. Delta waves
d. Theta waves
e. Polyphasic spikes
f. Sharp wave
g. Spike-slow wave complex
b. Beta waves
Seen in EEG in the tonic phase of grand mal seizure?
a. Alpha waves
b. Beta waves
c. Delta waves
d. Theta waves
e. Polyphasic spikes
f. Sharp wave
g. Spike-slow wave complex
e. Polyphasic spikes
Seen in EEG upon the development of interictal Paroxysmal depolarization shift?
a. Alpha waves
b. Beta waves
c. Delta waves
d. Theta waves
e. Polyphasic spikes
f. Sharp wave
g. Spike-slow wave complex
f. Sharp wave
What is the mechanism of sodium entry into taste receptors responsible for salt?
a. Active transport of sodium
b. Voltage gated sodium channels opening
c. Entry of sodium along its gradient
c. Entry of sodium along its gradient
Which of the following stages of sleep is considered as “restart” to the brain so that beta waves are seen in EEG?
a. REM
b. Stage 1
c. Stage 2
d. Deep sleep
a. REM
A person is feeling thirsty although his total volume of fluid is normal. What is the mechanism responsible for
this thirst?
a. Baroreceptors activation
b. Hypothalamic osmoreceptors activation
b. Hypothalamic osmoreceptors activation
What is the driving force of CSF production in the choroid plexus?
a. Active transport of sodium along the capillary epithelial cells
b. Osmotic gradient along the choroidal cells (osmotic gradient of Na in choridal epithelial cells)
c. Filtrate of the plasma
d. Bulk flow from the brain to CSF
b. Osmotic gradient along the choroidal cells (osmotic gradient of Na in choridal epithelial cells)
Which hypothalamic nucleus is responsible for shivering in a cold environment?
a. Supraoptic nucleus
b. Preoptic nucleus
c. Arcuate nucleus
d. Mammillary nucleus
e. Posterior nucleus
f. Ventromedial Nucleus
e. Posterior nucleus
Which nucleus is responsible for dissipating heat?
a. Supraoptic nucleus
b. Preoptic nucleus
c. Arcuate nucleus
d. Mammillary nucleus
e. Posterior nucleus
f. Ventromedial Nucleus
b. Preoptic nucleus
Which nucleus causes satiety when stimulated?
a. Supraoptic nucleus
b. Preoptic nucleus
c. Arcuate nucleus
d. Mammillary nucleus
e. Posterior nucleus
f. Ventromedial Nucleus
f. Ventromedial Nucleus
Which nucleus functions to induce hunger?
Lateral nucleus
Which of the following cells are the most important in center-surround phenomenon that is seen in retina?
a. Amacrine cells
b. Bipolar cells
c. Ganglion cells
d. Horizontal cells
d. Horizontal cells
A patient suffered from damage to the 2 hippocampi. The doctor wanted to test his memory. He sticked a thumbstick (pin) in his hand then shook hands with the patient, causing pain in the patient. What response do you expect from the patient next day when he comes to the hospital and shakes hands with the doctor?
a. He will shake hands normally because he doesn’t remember anything from the day before
b. He won’t shake hands because he can’t perceive the world on his left
c. He will pull his hands away at the last minute because of a feeling of fear
c. He will pull his hands away at the last minute because of a feeling of fear
Which of the following do you expect to occur in a patient who suffers from damage to the inhibitory reticular formation?
a. Dysfunction of the breathing rhythm
b. Breathing stops
c. Inhibition of the stretch reflexes
d. Increased arousal in the patient
c. Inhibition of the stretch reflexes
(C is the correct answer according to the doctor but only 9% of the batch chose it so he talked to the exam committee if they can consider D correct as well (although one would assume that destruction of the inhibitory reticular formation would lead to increase arousal it doesn’t happen in reality that’s why it isn’t correct but theoretically it could)
Which of the following is responsible for regaining the posture/ balance in a person after an unexpected push from his back while he is walking?
a. Activation of a polysynaptic reflex
b. Activation of a monosynaptic reflex
c. Feedback mechanism involving the brainstem
d. A complex feedback and feedforward mechanisms involving the spinal cord
c. Feedback mechanism involving the brainstem
What is responsible for spontaneous postural control?
a. Vestibular nuclei
b. Cerebellar neurons
c. Excitatory area of the reticular formation
c. Excitatory area of the reticular formation
Has afferents from the supplementary motor, premotor and somatosensory areas as well as from the substantia nigra?
a. Red nucleus
b. Deep cerebellar nuclei
c. Vestibular nuclei
d. Caudate nucleus
e. Globus pallidus
f. Caudate nucleus
d. Caudate nucleus
The cerebellum projects to the spinal cord via this nucleus?
a. Red nucleus
b. Deep cerebellar nuclei
c. Vestibular nuclei
d. Caudate nucleus
e. Globus pallidus
f. Caudate nucleus
a. Red nucleus
What supply superior oblique?
a. occulomotor
b. Abducent
c. Trochlear
d. Maxillary branch of trigeminal
e. Mandibular branch of trigeminal
f. Ophthalmic branch of trigeminal
c. Trochlear
What supply lateral rectus?
a. occulomotor
b. Abducent
c. Trochlear
d. Maxillary branch of trigeminal
e. Mandibular branch of trigeminal
f. Ophthalmic branch of trigeminal
b. Abducent
A patient suffered from a disk prolapse in the level of T6-T7 vertebrae which spinal nerve will be affected?
a. T4
b. T5
c. T6
d. T7
c. T6
What disease results from mutation in Chloride channel, CHRA4
a. Dravet syndrome
b. Benign familial neonatal seizure (BFNS)
c. Benign epilepsy with variable age of onset
d. Autosomal dominant nocturnal frontal lobe epilepsy (ADNFLE)
e. Generalized epilepsy with febrile seizure plus (GEFS+)
f. Febrile seizures in childhood
d. Autosomal dominant nocturnal frontal lobe epilepsy (ADNFLE)
What disease results from mutation in potassium channel, KCNQ2
a. Dravet syndrome
b. Benign familial neonatal seizure (BFNS)
c. Benign epilepsy with variable age of onset
d. Autosomal dominant nocturnal frontal lobe epilepsy (ADNFLE)
e. Generalized epilepsy with febrile seizure plus (GEFS+)
f. Febrile seizures in childhood
b. Benign familial neonatal seizure (BFNS)
Typical cyclic antidepressant that is used in the case of severe depression:
a. Fluoxetine
b. Citalopram
c. Venlafaxine
d. Duloxetine
e. Mirtazapine
f. Imipramine
g. Phenelzine
h. Clozapine
f. Imipramine
Enhance serotonin and noradrenaline neurotransmission by antagonizing presynaptic a2-
adrenoceptors:
a. Fluoxetine
b. Citalopram
c. Venlafaxine
d. Duloxetine
e. Mirtazapine
f. Imipramine
g. Phenelzine
h. Clozapine
e. Mirtazapine
Is used to treat the negative symptoms associated with schizophrenia:
a. Fluoxetine
b. Citalopram
c. Venlafaxine
d. Duloxetine
e. Mirtazapine
f. Imipramine
g. Phenelzine
h. Clozapine
h. Clozapine
Can cause QT prolongation:
a. Phenelzine
b. Fluoxetine
c. Thioridazine
d. Mirtazapine
e. Haloperidol
f. Chlorpromazine
g. Aripiprazole
c. Thioridazine
Can lead to Extrapyramidal motor effects (EPS) due to its strong affinity (tight binding) to
dopaminergic receptors:
a. Phenelzine
b. Fluoxetine
c. Thioridazine
d. Mirtazapine
e. Haloperidol
f. Chlorpromazine
g. Aripiprazole
e. Haloperidol
Drug to drug or drug to food interaction:
a. Phenelzine
b. Fluoxetine
c. Thioridazine
d. Mirtazapine
e. Haloperidol
f. Chlorpromazine
g. Aripiprazole
a. Phenelzine
Where is the location of the frontal eye field in the cerebral cortex?
a. Superior frontal gyrus
b. Middle frontal gyrus
c. Inferior frontal gyrus
d. Superior temporal gyrus
e. Occipital lobe
b. Middle frontal gyrus
The embryological origin of hypoglossal nucleus?
a. Alar plate
b. Basal plate
c. Rhombic lip
d. Marginal zone
e. Mantle zone
f. Ventricular zone
g. Neural crest cells
b. Basal plate
The embryological origin of dentate nucleus?
a. Alar plate
b. Basal plate
c. Rhombic lip
d. Marginal zone
e. Mantle zone
f. Ventricular zone
g. Neural crest cells
a. Alar plate
chemoprophylaxis used for a mother whose child is suffering from H. influnzae meningitis?
a. Ampicillin
b. Gentamicin
c. Rifampicin
d. Vancomycin
e. Cefotaxime
f. Ceftriaxone
g. Dexamethasone
c. Rifampicin
chemoprophylaxis used for a pregnant woman whose husband is suffering from meningococcal meningitis after returning from haj?
a. Ampicillin
b. Gentamicin
c. Rifampicin
d. Vancomycin
e. Cefotaxime
f. Ceftriaxone
g. Dexamethasone
f. Ceftriaxone
A group of people are traveling to a country known for being an endemic area for meningococcal meningitis. What infection control measure should be followed/done?
a. Vaccines
b. Contact precaution
a. Vaccines
Which of the following is present in abnormal prion PRPsc but not in the normal prion PRPc?
a. Increased beta sheets folding
b. Extensive alpha helix structure
c. Is easily degraded by protease enzymes
a. Increased beta sheets folding