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CNS module - 4th year > 2012 module exam > Flashcards

2012 module exam Flashcards

1
Q

Which of the following describes the action of glutamate dehydrogenase on synaptic transmission?

§ Acetylcholine production
§ Increased γ-aminobutyric acid (GABA) synthesis
§ Increased K+
§ Increased catecholamine synthesis

A

§ Increased γ-aminobutyric acid (GABA) synthesis

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2
Q

A patient with anterior spinal artery occlusion. What will he present with?

A

Loss of thermal senses in both sides

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3
Q

What is damaged if the distal muscles of the right lower limb showed spastic paralysis?

A

Right lateral corticospinal tract

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4
Q

What is essential for the regeneration of peripheral neurons after injury?

§ Proliferating Schwann cells
§ Intact myelin

A

§ Proliferating Schwann cells

*Two things are important for regeneration of neurons: mitosis of Schwann cells (from distal to proximal) to form band fiber and presence of intact basal lamina / endoneurium

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5
Q

Which nuclei does the medial leminiscus originate from?

A

Cuneate and gracile nuclei

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6
Q

Which receptor detects vibration?

A

Pacinian corpuscle

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7
Q

Which receptor detects different modalities of sensation?

A

Free nerve ending

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8
Q

What best describes spasticity?

§ The extensors of the lower limb have increased tone
§ Occurs only if there is a lesion in the corticospinal tract
§ Occurs immediately after UMN lesion

A

§ The extensors of the lower limb have increased tone

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9
Q

What best describes reciprocal innervation of the Golgi tendon organ reflex?

A

Stimulation of Ib afferents and excitation of antagonist muscle

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10
Q

What is a characteristic of an upper motor neuron lesion?

§ Rigidity
§ Ankle clonus

A

§ Ankle clonus

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11
Q

How does a slow adapting receptor react to a 60 second stimulus?

§ Action potentials increase gradually in the first 10 seconds
§ Receptor potential increases throughout
§ Action potentials rapidly increases then decays
§ Continuous action potential firing rate

A

§ Action potentials rapidly increases then decays

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12
Q

A 66 years old male presented with left leg and arm weakness. Examination showed loss of vibration and proprioception in the affected side. Tongue is also deviated to the right upon protrusion. Diagnose.

A

Right medial medullary syndrome

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13
Q

What is the response of neurons to demyelination?

A

Increase in ion-pumps

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14
Q

Where would you find pseudounipolar neurons?

A

Mesencephalic nucleus of trigeminal nerve

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15
Q

What is the origin of the preganglionic parasympathetic fibers to the submandibular gland?

A

Superior salivatory nucleus

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16
Q

What is the difference between muscarinic and nicotinic receptors?

A

Nicotinic receptors are ligand-gated ion channels that cause rapid
depolarization upon stimulation

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17
Q

Which nucleus is present at the level of the superior colliculus?

A

Red nucleus

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18
Q

A 49-year old woman had a history of remitting and relapsing neurological symptoms including optic neuritis and transverse myelitis. She died and an autopsy was performed. They found irregular periventricular plaques. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A

Multiple sclerosis

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19
Q

A 39-year old Japanese woman had a history of bilateral visual disturbances and autoimmune disease. Which of the following will be seen?

A

Autoantibodies against aquaporin 4

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20
Q

A section from a patient with a demyelinating disorder showed change in color when adding Toluidine Blue stain. Which is most likely?

A

Metachromatic leukodystrophy

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21
Q

An old man with AIDS and showed white matter demyelination. Diagnose.

A

Progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy

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22
Q

What type of damage occurs in myasthenia gravis?

§ Antibody mediated
§ Perforin
§ TNF
§ T cytotoxic cells

A

§ Antibody mediated

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23
Q

A 50-year women has drooping in her mouth corner but when asked to lift her eyebrows up, there was wrinkling on both sides of the forehead. Where is the lesion?

A

Facial nerve, UMN lesion

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24
Q

Which nerve is affected in Bell’s palsy?

A

Facial nerve, LMN lesion

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25
Q

Which area is associated with the abducent nucleus?

§ Basilar pons
§ Arcuate nucleus
§ Spinal nucleus of trigeminal nerve

A

§ Basilar pons

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26
Q

A patient with carotid dissection and right pinpoint pupils. Diagnose.

A

Horner’s syndrome

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27
Q

What will cause ipsilateral Horner’s syndrome and limb ataxia, but contralateral loss of pain and temperature?

A

Lateral medullary syndrome

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28
Q

Which of the following reflexes extends to either side of the body?

§ Flexor reflex
§ Crossed extensor reflex
§ Reciprocal inhibition

A

§ Crossed extensor reflex

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29
Q

What is the effect when these is a lesion of the upper part of the pyramid?

A

Contralateral upper and lower limb paralysis

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30
Q

Which nucleus is responsible for touch and pressure sensation from the face?

A

Main sensory nucleus of trigeminal nerve

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31
Q

What is a characteristic of proteolipid protein?

§ High positive charge
§ High negative charge
§ Amphiphilic
§ Hydrophobic

A

§ Hydrophobic

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32
Q

A 53-year old man suffers from motor disability, mood disturbances, and he has a mutation in NOTCH3. What is his condition?

A

CADASIL (cerebral autosomal dominant arteriopathy with subcortical infarcts and leucoencephalopathy)

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33
Q

What is the function of the anterior association area when a person wants to hold a cup?

A

Decides whether to pick up the cup or not

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34
Q

The prefrontal cortex projects to which of the following structures?

§ Thalamus
§ Nucleus accumbens
§ Internal capsule
§ Sublentiform nucleus

A

§ Nucleus accumbens

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35
Q

Severe systemic hypotension is a serious clinical condition. What is the main clinical concern regarding its hemodynamic effects in the brain?

§ Increased intracranial pressure
§ Decrease cerebral blood flow

A

§ Increased intracranial pressure

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36
Q

What mainly affects the blood flow when activity of neurons increases under normal conditions?

A

Release of glutamate from neurons

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37
Q

What connects the frontal lobes of both hemispheres?

A

Forceps minor

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38
Q

What is connected by the forceps major?

A

Occipital lobes

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39
Q

Enlargement of the posterior horn of lateral ventricle will compress what?

§ Tapetum
§ Forceps major
§ Optic radiation

A

§ Optic radiation

*The tapetum is superior to the posterior horn and the optic radiation is lateral to it; however, enlargement of the posterior horn more likely to be lateral due to less tissue.

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40
Q

Which one of the following will cause hemiplegia?

§ Peripheral neuropathy
§ Myopathy
§ Lumbar disk herniation
§ Subdural hematoma

A

§ Subdural hematoma

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41
Q

Which of the following worsens the outcome of a patient with acute ischemic stroke?

§ Reduction of blood sugar
§ Nil per oral
§ Aspirin within 24 hours
§ Reduction of systolic blood pressure to <140 mmHg

A

§ Reduction of systolic blood pressure to <140 mmHg

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42
Q

Which of the following nuclei project to the cingulate gyrus?

A

Anterior thalamic nuclei

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43
Q

Which of the following is linked to the limbic system?

A

Habenular commissure

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44
Q

Which of the following is involved in constriction of arterioles?

A

Conversion of arachidonic acid into 20-hydroxyeicosatetraenoic acid in
arteriole smooth muscle

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45
Q

What is responsible for lateral inhibition?

A

Release of GABA from interneurons

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46
Q

What is responsible for dilation of arterioles during ischemia?

A

Increase in CO2

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47
Q

A woman with a brain tumor and astereognosis. What part of her brain is most likely injured?

§ Posterior parietal cortex
§ Primary sensory cortex
§ Somatosensory association cortex

A

§ Posterior parietal cortex

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48
Q

A patient who suffered from a cerebrovascular accident developed spatial agnosia. Which part of the brain is affected?

A

Posterior parietal cortex

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49
Q

Which thalamic nucleus projects diffusely to the cerebral cortex?

A

Medial dorsal

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50
Q

Damage to which structure causes deficit in working memory?

A

Prefrontal cortex

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51
Q

Diffuse pattern of cortical injury is seen in which of the following?

§ Ischemic infarction
§ Global cerebral ischemia
§ Lacunar infarcts
§ Intracerebral hemorrhage

A

§ Global cerebral ischemia

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52
Q

Which of the following is more likely to cause multiple small cerebral infarcts affecting arterioles?

§ Lacunar infarcts
§ Charcot-bouchard aneurysm

A

§ Lacunar infarcts

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53
Q

A patient with personal neglect syndrome failed to recognize contralateral side of his body and denied his arm belonged to him. What is affected?

A

Non-dominant hemisphere

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54
Q

Which of the following is lesioned in a person with apathy and leg weakness?

§ Frontal cortex
§ Dominant parietal cortex

A

§ Frontal cortex

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55
Q

A patient who had a cerebrovascular accident turns his eyes to the left side when trying to rotate her head to the right. In which area do you expect the lesion?

§ Brodmann area 8 
§ Brodmann area 4 
§ Brodmann area 17 
§ Brodmann area 19 
§ Brodmann area 11
A

§ Brodmann area 8

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56
Q

What connects the temporal lobes?

A

Anterior commissure

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57
Q

If there is an ‘error’ during movement, the inferior olivary nucleus will send complex signals to which cell in the cerebellar cortex?

§ Purkinje cells
§ Granule cells

A

§ Purkinje cells

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58
Q

Which movement disorder can be classified as hyperkinetic and hypokinetic depending on the stage?

§ Parkinson’s disease
§ Alzheimer’s disease
§ GABAergic chorea
§ Essential tremor

A

§ GABAergic chorea

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59
Q

Which of the following is an antagonist to peripheral dopaminergic receptors used to treat the side effects of L-dopa such as anorexia and nausea?

A

Domperidone

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60
Q

Two doctors were arguing on assigning a cutoff level for CK2. One chose 10 U/L and the other 20 U/L. Knowing that the higher the CK level, the higher is the risk of developing a disease, which of the following is true?

§ The lower cutoff has higher sensitivity
§ The lower cutoff has higher specificity
§ The specificity of both cutoffs are the same

A

§ The lower cutoff has higher sensitivity

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61
Q

Which of the following is variable with prevalence and is important to rule out the disease?

A

Pretest probability

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62
Q

Which movement disorder is characterized by abnormality of muscle contraction that causes abnormal posture of the body part?

§ Dystonia 
§ Tremor       
§ Chorea
§ Tic disorder 
§ Myoclonus
A

§ Dystonia

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63
Q

Which of the following is a familial neurodegenerative disease characterized by mutations in leucine-rich repeat kinase 2 (LRRK2)?

A

Parkinson’s disease

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64
Q

Caudate nucleus receives extensive input from?

A

Association cortex

*Input of the caudate is association cortex and output is prefrontal cortex (by way of VA, DM), while input of putamen is sensory, motor, premotor, and supplementary motor cortices and output is supplementary motor (by way of VA/VL)

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65
Q

On nose-to-finger examination, a 65 years old woman have right dysmetria, dysdiadochokinesia, and intentional tremor. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A

Tumor on right cerebellar hemisphere

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66
Q

What structure lies superior to the thalamus?

A

Stria terminalis

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67
Q

Which of the following is associated with α-synuclein inclusions in oligodendrocytes?

A

Multiple system atrophy

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68
Q

An old lady presented with involuntary rhythmic, oscillations in her eyes. What is this called?

A

Nystagmus

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69
Q

A patient is unable to perform rapidly alternating movements of hand pronation and supination. What is this called?

A

Dysdiadochokinesia

70
Q

What is the effect of dopaminergic neurons on the direct pathway during strong stimuli?

A

Activation of D1 receptor and increased calcium influx

71
Q

What is affected in Parkinson’s disease?

A

Substantia nigra

72
Q

What will be damaged in case of a lesion in the superior cerebellar peduncle?

A

Dentothalamic tract

73
Q

Which of the following drug is a muscarinic antagonist?

A

Benztropine

74
Q

Which condition is characterized by CGG repeats?

A

Fragile X syndrome

75
Q

Which of the following has α-synuclein aggregates?

A

Parkinson’s disease

76
Q

What is damaged in balance disturbance?

A

Cerebellum

77
Q

A patient was admitted to the hospital with signs and symptoms related to the vestibular dysfunction. Which of the following structures are affected?

A

Flocculonodular lobe

78
Q

Which of the following is involved in selection of movements from internal cues?

A

Supplementary motor area

79
Q

What is the function of Brodmann area 6?

A

Select sequences of movement

80
Q

A decrease in which of the following increase sensitivity?

A

False negatives

81
Q

Which of the following is a DOPA decarboxylase inhibitor?

A

Benserazide

82
Q

What best describes a seizure that shows diffuse cortical activity from the start?

A

Primary generalized seizure

83
Q

A 31-year-old female previously healthy, suddenly suffered from a headache and fell unconscious. MRI revealed subarachnoid hemorrhage at the base of the brain. CSF sample had increased RBCs but no WBCs and a slight rise in protein and no glucose. What is the most likely cause?

A

Ruptured berry aneurysm

84
Q

A patient was driving a car without wearing the seatbelts and had a road traffic accident. What is this type of trauma?

§ Diffuse axonal injury
§ Frontal-temporal countre-coup
§ Concussion

A

§ Diffuse axonal injury

85
Q

Which of the following will cause sodium channel mediated epilepsy?

A

SCN1A

86
Q

A medical emergency of continuous seizure or more than one seizure without returning to normal in between. What best describes this condition?

A

Status epilepticus

87
Q

What is the difference between antipsychotics that preferentially block the D2Rs and those that have strong anticholinergic activity such as thioridazine?

A

Thioridazine has lower incidence of extrapyramidal signs

88
Q

A person fell from the second floor on his buttocks and fractured his skull. No pelvic or femoral fractures occurred. Which type of cranial fracture is this?

A

Ring basal fracture

89
Q

The electroencephalogram (EEG) signals originate from which of the following?

§ Postsynaptic potentials of dendrites
§ Myelinated axons
§ Soma
§ All axons

A

§ Postsynaptic potentials of dendrites

90
Q

What is the drug of choice for absence seizures?

A

Ethosuximide

91
Q

Which drug irreversibly inhibits the enzyme GABA transaminase?

A

Vigabatrin

92
Q

What is the mechanism of action of amitryptilline?

A

Inhibit neuronal reuptake of noradrenaline and 5-hydroxytryptamine

93
Q

What is the mechanism of action of phenytoin?

A

Blocks Na+ channels

94
Q

What will result from an impact of a hammer on the skull?

A

Small depressed fracture

95
Q

Which of the following is a cause of reversible dementia?

A

Hypothyroidism

96
Q

A patient seems awake and arousable but not responsive to external stimuli. Which of the following best describes him?

A

Persistent vegetative state

97
Q

Elderly man with acute memory impairment, decreased attention, and his symptoms worsen at night. What does he have?

A

Delirum

98
Q

In epilepsy, there is increased synchronized electrical activity in the brain, and this is related to increased activity of what?

§ Ionotropic glutamatergic
§ Metabotropic glutamenergic

A

§ Ionotropic glutamatergic

99
Q

What will be recorded in the EEG when paroxysmal depolarization shift occurs in a population of neurons?

§ Sharp wave
§ Polyspike
§ Spike slow wave

A

§ Sharp wave

100
Q

Which region of the brain when stimulated leads to aggression and increased food intake?

A

Lateral hypothalamus

101
Q

Which region when lesioned leads to chronic hyperthermia?

§ Preoptic area
§ Posterior nucleus

A

§ Preoptic area

  • Anterior hypothalamus ↓ heat (i.e. lesion will ↑ heat), while posterior
    hypothalamus conserves heat (i.e. lesion will cause hypothermia)
102
Q

Which drugs causes malignant hyperthermia?

A

Halothane

103
Q

What is the mechanism of action of donepezil?

A

Inhibition of acetylcholinesterase

104
Q

What is the mechanism of action of memantine?

A

Blockade of NMDA receptor

105
Q

What is associated with the heavy phosphorylated neurofibrils in Alzheimer’s disease?

A

Tau

106
Q

What describes the enzymatic changes seen in Alzheimer’s disease?

A

Increased β secretase activity

107
Q

Wrong processing in which of the following produces Aβ42 peptides?

A

Amyloid precursor protein

108
Q

What forms the plaques seen extracellularly in Alzheimer’s disease?

§ Amyloid precursor protein
§ Tau
§ Aβ peptides

A

§ Aβ peptides

109
Q

What is the mechanism of action of benzodiazepines?

A

Enhance GABA-A mediated inhibition through modulatory site

110
Q

Which drug is given to calm patient prior to surgery?

A

Midazolam

111
Q

An 18-year old student has multiple sclerosis and severe anxiety. Which sedative drug is used to treat his muscle strains and reduce his anxiety?

§ Diazepam
§ Ramelteon
§ Zaleplon
§ Zolpidem

A

§ Diazepam

112
Q

What controls the circadian rhythm?

A

Suprachiasmatic nucleus

113
Q

Stimulation of the POMC/CART in which nucleus leads to decreased food intake?

§ Arcuate nucleus
§ Lateral hypothalamic nucleus
§ Ventromedial hypothalamic nucleus

A

§ Arcuate nucleus

114
Q

What is a characteristic of local anesthetics?

§ Adrenaline is used as an adjunct to prolong duration of action
§ Weak acids
§ Amides have short duration of action
§ Esters have long duration of action

A

§ Adrenaline is used as an adjunct to prolong duration of action

115
Q

What links sensory information to emotionally relevant behaviour, particularly in response to fear and anger?

§ Thalamus
§ Amygdala

A

§ Amygdala

116
Q

Which structure develops from the basal plate?

§ Intermediolateral horn
§ Clark’s nucleus
§ Spinal nucleus of trigeminal nerve

A

§ Intermediolateral horn

117
Q

Acetylcholinesterase inhibitors affect which of the following?

§ Acetylcholine degradation
§ Acetylcholine synthesis

A

§ Acetylcholine degradation

118
Q

Which of the following increases the metabolism of brown adipose tissue when stimulated?

A

Posterior hypothalamus

119
Q

A woman with a lesion in the medulla had breathing that is fast with decreased amplitude. What best describes this breathing?

A

Ataxic breathing

120
Q

What is the most probable cause of sporadic CJD?

A

Spontaneous refolding PrPc

121
Q

Gram-positive bacilli were seen in a section taken from an old lady. Which of the following is the most likely cause?

A

Listeria monocytogenes

122
Q

A 53-year old women that has undergone renal transplant and had Gram positive branching bacilli. What is the likely cause?

A

Nocardia asteroides

123
Q

A 2-year old child with meningitis caused by a Gram-negative coccobacilli. What would be the appropriate preventive measure for his sibling?

§ Ciprofloxacin single dose
§ Conjugated vaccine C for children > 2 years
§ Rifampicin for siblings < 5 years old

A

§ Rifampicin for siblings < 5 years old

124
Q

Which of the following best represents the properties of a drug that passes the blood-brain barrier?

A

High lipid solubility, low molecular weight, low amount of hydrogen bonds with water

125
Q

A 60 years old male in an acute confusional state. He has multiple metabolic abnormalities and cardiac failure. Breathing pattern shows hyperapnea and apnea (crescendo-decrescendo). What is this breathing called?

A

Cheyne-Stokes respiration

126
Q

A patient had respiratory depression, hypertension, and bradycardia. Which of the following describes his symptoms?

A

Cushing’s triad

127
Q

Which of the following is associated with increased permeability of endothelial cells in the presence of a tumor or abscess?

A

Vasogenic edema

128
Q

A female coming back from Hajj with headache, nausea and vomiting. Which of the following is a rapid diagnostic test for detecting meningococcal meningitis?

§ Blood culture
§ Urine antigen
§ CSF culture
§ CSF antigen
§ Nasopharyngeal culture
A

§ CSF antigen

129
Q

A 25-year-old patient with acute meningitis. Gram-negative diplococci were isolated. Which of the following is the most likely organism?

A

Neisseria meningitidis

130
Q

What characterizes the toxic prion protein PrPsc?

A

Increased β sheet structure

131
Q

Which vitamin deficiency causes Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome?

A

Vitamin B1 (thiamine)

132
Q

A 30-year old male with meningitis. MRI showed hyperintensity in his temporal lobes. Which drug should be given?

A

Acyclovir

133
Q

What is the most likely causative organism of endogenous endophthalmitis?

A

Candida albicans

134
Q

CSF of a 2-year old girl with meningitis showed Gram-positive diplococci. What is the most likely causative organism?

§ Streptococcus pneumoniae
§ Streptococcus agalactiae

A

§ Streptococcus pneumoniae

135
Q

A 3-year old boy presents with hydrocephalus and perivascular lymphocytes and neuron degeneration. CSF shows increased protein and lymphocytes. What is expected to be seen on examination of the brain?

§ Diffuse cerebral edema
§ Hemorrhagic necrosis in his temporal lobe

A

§ Hemorrhagic necrosis in his temporal lobe

136
Q

Which tumor is characterized by palisading nuclei surrounding pink areas (Verocay bodies)?

A

Schwnannoma

137
Q

What causes necrotizing inflammation with destruction of inferior frontal and anterior temporal lobes?

A

Herpes simplex encephalitis

138
Q

Which of the following tumor is characterized by perivascular pseudorosettes?

A

Ependymoma

139
Q

A 3-month old boy presented with hydrocephalus, convulsions, and pericytic vascular lymphocytes. He also had intracytoplasmic inclusions. What is the diagnosis?

A

Viral encephalitis

140
Q

A 60-year old female complaining of nausea, vomiting, and numbness in her left hand and foot. MRI suggested a primary brain tumor. Which one is most likely?

§ Schwannoma
§ Astrocytoma
§ Meningioma

A

§ Astrocytoma

*Confirmed by Dr. Kapilla

141
Q

Oval inclusions were seen in Purkinje cells of cerebellum. Diagnose.

A

Rabies encephalitis

142
Q

Which of the following affects temporal lobe?

A

Herpes simplex virus

143
Q

A lesion in which of these structures would cause loss of vision in the right eye, but normal visual field in the left eye?

§ Optic nerve
§ Optic chiasm
§ Temporal lobe
§ Frontal lobe

A

§ Optic nerve

144
Q

A lesion in which of these structures would make the patient see a pie in the sky?

§ Optic nerve
§ Optic chiasm
§ Temporal lobe
§ Frontal lobe

A

§ Temporal lobe

145
Q

Which cell is important for ‘center-surround’ organization in the receptive field of the retina that corresponds to the visual field?

§ Horizontal cells
§ Ganglion cells
§ Amacrine cells

A

§ Horizontal cells

*Confirmed by Prof. Zoran Redzic

146
Q

Which of the following structures is involved in internuclear ophthalmoplegia?

A

Medial longitudinal fasciculus (MLF)

147
Q

Which layers are separated in retinal detachment?

A

Between RPE and photoreceptors

148
Q

Visual pathway is related to which structure?

A

Lateral geniculate body

149
Q

Which muscle is involved in the corneal reflex?

§ Orbicularis oculi
§ Levator palpebrae superioris

A

§ Orbicularis oculi

150
Q

What causes depolarization in Na+ taste channels?

A

Increased Na+ gradient

151
Q

Which structure receives nourishing from aqueous humor?

A

Cornea

152
Q

What is true regarding diabetic retinopathy?

A

After 20 years, more than 75% of patient will have some form of diabetic
retinopathy

153
Q

What is the consequence of constitutive induction of phosphodiesterases on phototransduction?

§ Leber’s congenital amaurosis
§ Color blindness
§ Night blindness
§ Complete blindness

A

§ Complete blindness

*Confirmed by Prof. Islam Khan

154
Q

What fibrous structure covers the posterior 5/6 of the eyeball?

A

Sclera

155
Q

Which layer forms the largest vascular structure of the eye?

A

Choroid

156
Q

Where does recognition of complex sound signals occur in?

§ Associative auditory cortex
§ Primary auditory cortex

A

§ Associative auditory cortex

157
Q

For an auditory signal to reach the primary auditory cortex, to which structure of the thalamus it should pass through?

§ Medial geniculate body
§ Lateral geniculate body
§ VA
§ VL

A

§ Medial geniculate body

158
Q

What is responsible for sound localization?

A

Superior olivary nucleus

159
Q

What is responsible for sound frequency detection?

A

Cochlear nerve

160
Q

What is the normal intracranial pressure?

A

8-18 mmHg

161
Q

Which headache occurs for 15-180 minutes?

§ Cluster headache
§ Scunt headache

A

§ Cluster headache

162
Q

What is the origin of the meatal plug?

A

1st pharyngeal cleft

163
Q

What is the origin of the Eustachian tube?

A

1st pharyngeal pouch

164
Q

Damage of which of the following will cause unilateral hearing loss?

A

Cochlear nerve

165
Q

What is the origin of the fibers forming the trapezoid body?

A

Cochlear nucleus

166
Q

What gene is mutated in both HMSN (hereditary motor and sensory neuropathy) and HNPP (hereditary neuropathy with liability to pressure palsies)?

A

PMP22

167
Q

What is the mechanism of action of morphine?

A

Open K+ channel, close Ca2+ channel, inhibit adenylate cyclase

168
Q

What is the mechanism of action of neurokinin-1?

§ Increase Ca2+ release from intracellular stores via inositol trisphophate
§ Increase intracellular Ca2+ through voltage-gated Ca2+ channels

A

§ Increase Ca2+ release from intracellular stores via inositol trisphophate

169
Q

Efferent fibers to the organ of Corti originate from where?

§ Superior olivary nucleus
§ Cochlear nucleus
§ Inferior colliculus
§ Medial geniculate body

A

§ Superior olivary nucleus

170
Q

Which lymph node drains the upper medial part of the auricle?

A

Mastoid or deep cervical lymph nodes

CNS module - 4th year (17 decks)

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